Neuromuscular Blockers (5.2) Flashcards
Which subunits must be occupied to open the nicotinic receptor at the motor endplate?
a. alpha and alpha
b. alpha and gamma
c. alpha and delta
d. alpha and epsilon
NMBs
a. alpha and alpha
two alpha units; both must be occupied by an agonist (Ach or succ)
pre-lesson Q1
All of the following statements regarding extrajunctional nicotinic receptors are true except:
a. it’s opened by choline
b. an epsilon subunit replaces a gamma subunit
c. it opens for a longer period of time
d. denervation allows for its proliferation
NMBs
b. an epsilon subunit replaces a gamma subunit
other way around
pre-lesson Q2
Fade during train-of-four stimulation is caused by:
a. agonism of presynaptic nicotinic receptors
b. antagonism of presynaptic nicotinic receptors
c. impaired presynaptic acetylcholine reuptake
d. decreased acetylcholine synthesis
NMBs
b. antagonism of presynaptic nicotinic receptors
pre-lesson Q3
Identify the statement that best characterizes a phase 2 block following succinylcholine. (Select 2)
a. fade with tetany
b. post-tetanic potentiation is absent
c. constant but diminished response to double burst stimulation
d. prolonged duration
NMBs
a. fade with tetany
d. prolonged duration
occurs with excessive dose
pre-lesson Q4
Identify the most sensitive indicator of recovery from neuromuscular blockade.
a. nerve stimulator shows 4/4 twitches with no fade
b. tidal volume 6 mL/kg
c. vital capacity >20 mL/kg
d. inspiratory force better than -40 cm H2O
NMBs
d. inspiratory force better than -40 cm H2O
poss. when 50% or less receptors blocked; others are 70% or more blocked
pre-lesson Q5
Identify the statement that demonstrates the most accurate understanding of succinylcholine. (Select 2)
a. hypertension is a normal side effect
b. it’s an absolute contraindication with an open globe injury
c. severe sepsis increases the risk of hyperkalemia
d. masseter spasm warrants cancellation of the planned procedure
NMBs
a. hypertension is a normal side effect
c. severe sepsis increases the risk of hyperkalemia
pre-lesson Q6
Which enzymes hydrolyze succinylcholine? (Select 3)
a. butyrylcholinesterase
b. type 1 cholinesterase
c. true cholinesterase
d. pseudocholinesterase
e. plasma cholinesterase
f. acetylcholinesterase
NMBs
a. butyrlycholinesterase
d. pseudochoineserase
e. plasma cholinesterase
all the same thing
pre-lesson Q7
Which factors prolong the duration of succinylcholine? (Select 3)
a. metoclopramide
b. edrophonium
c. obesity
d. late-stage pregnancy
e. myasthenia gravis
f. esmolol
NMBs
a. metoclopramide
d. late-stage pregnancy
f. esmolol
reduce pseudocholinesterase activity; myasthenia gravis is resistant
pre-lesson Q8
A patient with a dibucaine number of 20 received succinylcholine. This patient:
a. is heterozygous for pseudocholinesterase
b. fails to produce pseudocholinesterase in sufficient quantity
c. should receive FFP
d. will be paralyzed for eight hours
NMBs
d. will be paralyzed for eight hours
qualitative defect, homozygous patient
pre-lesson Q9
The routine administration of succinylcholine is contraindicated in young children because of the possibility of:
a. malignant hyperthermia
b. hyperkalemic rhabdomyolysis
c. trismus
d. bradycardia
NMBs
b. hyperkalemic rhabdomyolysis
pre-lesson Q10
Identify the patient at the highest risk for developing postoperative myalgia following succinylcholine.
a. 6-year-old boy for strabismus correction
b. 24-year-old female for umbilical hernia repair
c. 35-year-old pregnant patient for appendectomy
d. 86-year-old male for total hip arthroplasty
NMBs
b. 24-year-old female for umbilical hernia repair
children, elderly, pregnant patients have lowest incidence
pre-lesson Q11
Which diseases are associated with hyperkalemia following succinylcholine administration? (Select 3)
a. hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
b. multiple sclerosis
c. hypokalemic periodic paralysis
d. myotonic dystrophy
e. Huntington chorea
f. Guillain-Barre
NMBs
a. hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
b. multiple sclerosis
f. Guillain-Barre
pre-lesson Q12
Rank the nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers in terms of potency. (1 most potent, 4 least potent)
a. pancuronium
b. rocuronium
c. cisatracurium
d. atracurium
NMBs
- cisatracurium
- pancuronium
- atracurium
- rocuronium
pre-lesson Q13
Match each drug with the primary event that terminates its effect.
1. rocuronium
2. pancuronium
3. atracurium
4. cisatracurium
a. biliary excretion
b. renal excretion
c. non-specific ester hydrolysis
d. Hofmann elimination
NMBs
1a (rocuronium biliary excretion)
2b (pancuronium renal excretion)
3c (atracurium non-specific ester hydrolysis)
4d (cisatracurium Hofmann elmination)
pre-lesson Q14
Which drugs potentiate neuromuscular blockade? (Select 3)
a. desflurane
b. gentamycin
c. phenytoin
d. mannitol
e. dantrolene
f. hydrocortisone
NMBs
a. desflurane
b. gentamycin
e. dantrolene
pre-lesson Q15
Which condition precludes the use of pancuronium?
a. aortic regurgitation
b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. first degree AV block
d. bradycardia
NMBs
b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
increases HR, bad for HCM
pre-lesson Q16
Which neuromuscular blocker is most likely to cause anaphylaxis?
a. atracurium
b. cisatracurium
c. succinylcholine
d. rocuronium
NMBs
c. succinylcholine
pre-lesson Q17
Select the most sensitive clinical endpoint of recovery from a neuromuscular blocker.
a. tidal volume
b. vital capacity
c. inspiratory force
d. double burst stimulation
NMBs
c. inspiratory force
post lesson quiz
What muscles are the slowest to undergo spontaneous recovery after rocuronium administration? (Select 2)
a. adductor pollicis
b. corrugator supercilii
c. diaphragm
d. flexor hallucis
NMBs
a. adductor pollicis
d. flexor hallucis
post lesson quiz
Which enzymes are present in the synaptic cleft? (Select 2)
a. butyrylcholinesterase
b. specific cholinesterase
c. false cholinesterase
d. type 1 cholinesterase
NMBs
b. specific cholinesterase
d. type 1 cholinesterase
post lesson quiz
Which neuromuscular blocker should be avoided in the patient with a spinal cord transection that occurred 3 months ago?
a. atracurium
b. mivacurium
c. succinylcholine
d. rocuronium
NMBs
c. succinylcholine
avoid within 24-48 hours then after 1 year following injury
post lesson quiz
Which neuromuscular blocker is capable of producing a phase 1 block?
a. succinylcholine
b. pancuronium
c. cisatracurium
d. vecuronium
NMBs
a. succinylcholine
post lesson quiz
Succinylcholine carries a black box warning in children due to the risk of undiagnosed:
a. anaphylaxis
b. skeletal muscle myopathy
c. malignant hyperthermia
d. rhabdomyolysis
NMBs
b. skeletal muscle myopathy
post lesson quiz
A 6-year-old male experiences cardiovascular collapse following succinylcholine. What treatment is the first priority?
a. defibrillation
b. epinephrine
c. fluid administration
d. calcium chloride
NMBs
d. calcium chloride
immediately need to treat hyperkalemia
post lesson quiz