Neurology + Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

Stroke management:
- 1st line (1)
- 2nd line (1)
- what to do with blood pressure?
- what else to give? (1)

A
  • within 4.5 hr = THROMBOLYSIS
  • within 6 hr = THROMBECTOMY
  • BP should NOT be lowered in acute phase unless complications eg hypertensive encephalopathy or thombolysis
  • give aspirin ASAP once haemorrhagic excluded
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2
Q

Stroke:
- what do do RE anticoagulation for AF? (1)

A

usually start 14 days post ischaemic stroke (and obviously stop in hemorrhagic)

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3
Q

what to do RE blood pressure and thrombolysis

A

lower to < 185/110

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4
Q

Absolute contraindications to thrombolysis?

A
  • Previous intracranial haemorrhage
  • Seizure at onset of stroke
  • Intracranial neoplasm
  • Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Stroke or traumatic brain injury in preceding 3 months
  • Lumbar puncture in preceding 7 days
  • Gastrointestinal haemorrhage in preceding 3 weeks
  • Active bleeding
  • Oesophageal varices
  • Uncontrolled hypertension >200/120mmHg
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5
Q

Relative contraindications thrombolysis?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Concurrent anticoagulation (INR >1.7)
  • Haemorrhagic diathesis
  • Active diabetic haemorrhagic retinopathy
  • Suspected intracardiac thrombus
  • Major surgery / trauma in the preceding 2 weeks
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6
Q

Stroke:
- who gets thrombolysis AND thrombectomy? (1)

A

within 6 hours of symptom onset
AND
occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation

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7
Q

Stroke:
- secondary prevention drug? (1)
- who gets carotid endarterectomy? (1)

A

clopidogrel (aspirin if contraindicated)

> 50% occasion

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8
Q

TIA mimics (2)

A

hypoglycaemia
intracranial haemorrhage (–> IMAGING)

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9
Q

TIA:
- medication for resolved TIA awaiting specialist review within 24hr (1) reviewed bt specialist within initial 21 days (1) and long term after the 21 days (1)

  • what to give alongside? (1)
A
  • aspirin first
  • then DAPT first 21 days
  • then clopidogrel after 21 days

clopidogrel (initial dose 300 mg followed by 75 mg od) + aspirin (initial dose 300 mg followed by 75 mg od for 21 days) followed by monotherapy with clopidogrel 75 mg od

if not appropriate for DAPT, just clopidogrel

give PPI

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10
Q

Stroke:
when to consider carotid artery endartectomy?

A

Carotid artery endarterectomy can be considered if there is a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory, and the patient is not severely disabled.
(if stenos >50%)

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11
Q

MS:
diagnosis?

A

MRI with contrast

MRI
high signal T2 lesions
periventricular plaques
Dawson fingers: often seen on FLAIR images - hyperintense lesions penpendicular to the corpus callosum

CSF
- oligoclonal bands (and not in serum)
increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG

Visual evoked potentials
- delayed, but well preserved waveform

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12
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon

A

Uhthoff’s phenomenon occurs when you get “Uhthoff” the bath.
(worsening of vision following rise in body temperature)

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13
Q

MS
- diagnosis?

A

2+ relapses (clinical objective or 2+ lesions)

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14
Q

Lhermitte’s syndrome

A

paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion

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15
Q

Epilepsy:
when yo start treatment after 1 seizure? (4)

A

the patient has a neurological deficit
brain imaging shows a structural abnormality
the EEG shows unequivocal epileptic activity
the patient or their family or carers consider the risk of having a further seizure unacceptable

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16
Q

Epilepsy treatment:
- generalised tonic clinic? men/women (2)
- focal seizure (2)
- absence (1)
- myoclonic (1)
- tonic/ atonic seizure (1)

A
  • men: SV
  • women: lamotrigine or levetiracetam (DUE TO PREGNANCY ISSUES of SV)
  • lamotrigine or levetiracetam
  • ethosuximide
  • men: SV
  • women: levetiracetam
  • men: SV
  • women: lamotrigine
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17
Q

antiplatelet regimens is recommended following an acute ischaemic stroke?

A

aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75mg

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18
Q

Brocas dysphaisa:
- what is it? (1)
- what lobe? (1)
- how different to Wernickes? (1)

A

Broca’s dysphasia: speech non-fluent, comprehension normal, repetition impaired

FRONTAL lobe

Spoken word is heard at the ear. This passes to Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe (near the ear) to comprehend what was said. Once understood, the signal passes along the arcuate fasciculus, before reaching Broca’s area. The Broca’s area in the frontal lobe (near the mouth) then generates a signal to coordinate the mouth to speak what is thought (fluent speech).

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19
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

Classically due to a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus - the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area

Speech is fluent but repetition is poor. Aware of the errors they are making

Comprehension is normal

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20
Q

Herpes simplex encephalitis:
- which lobe? (1)
- features? (1)
- which organism? (1)

A

temporal lobe

fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, vomiting
focal features e.g. aphasia
peripheral lesions (e.g. cold sores) have no relation to the presence of HSV encephalitis

HSV-1

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21
Q

Herpes simplex encephalitis:
- investigations? (4)
- management? (1)

A

CSF: lymphocytosis, elevated protein
PCR for HSV
CT: medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages) - normal in one-third of patients
MRI is better
EEG pattern: lateralised periodic discharges at 2 Hz

IV aciclovir

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22
Q

third nerve palsy signs

A

ptosis, down and out deviation of eye, mydriasis

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23
Q

Raised ICP causes herniation of which cranial nerve

A

3rd nerve

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24
Q

Horners syndrome

A

Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, and enophthalmos

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25
Q

neuropathic pain meds adjustment - how to do it

A

Drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, i.e. if not working then drugs should be switched, not added

first-line treatment*: amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

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26
Q

neuropathic pain- what is used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations?

A

tramadol

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27
Q

migrane prophlyaxis

A

propranolol OR topiramate

(avoid -ol in asthma, avoid topiramate in pregnancy)

28
Q

migraine acute management

A

triptan, NSAID

29
Q

Campylobacter jejuni - what syndrome

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

30
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A

The mnemonic SICKFACES.COM can be used to easily remember common CYP450 inhibitors.

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & Grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

31
Q

CYP450 inducers

A

The mnemonic CRAP GPs can be used to easily remember common CYP450 inducers.

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas

32
Q

umbilicus dermatome

A

T10

33
Q

knee cap dermatom

A

down on all fours - L4

34
Q

big toe dermatome

A

L5 - largest of the 5 toes

35
Q

what vitamins In pabrinex

A

vitamins B and C

thiamine (B1) is essential to prevent Wernikes

36
Q

Wernikes encephalopathy triad

A

nystagmus
ompthalmoplegia
ataxia

37
Q

Korsakoffs symptoms (2)

A

addition of retrograde and anterograde amnesia AND confabulation

38
Q

eye movement cranial nerves

A

LR6, SO4

39
Q

Common peroneal nerve lesion
where does injury occur?
symptoms?

A

neck of the fibula

foot drop

weakness of foot dorsiflexion
weakness of foot eversion
weakness of extensor hallucis longus
sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg
wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles

40
Q

bells palsy management

A

prednisolone

41
Q

seizure territories

A

occipital –> flashers/floaters
parietal –> paraesthesia
frontal –> Jacksonian march
temporal–>

42
Q

triceps reflex nerves

A

C7-C8

43
Q

A 23-year-old man wakes up on a Sunday morning unable to extend his wrist

A

radial nerve palsy

44
Q

huntingdons chromosome

A

chromosome 4

45
Q

Adhesive capsulitis

A

frozen shoulder

46
Q

A 60-year-old gentleman with a background of lumbar spondylosis and chronic back pain presents with gradually worsening bilateral upper limb paraesthesias and leg stiffness.

A

degenerative cervical myelopathy

47
Q

peak incidence of seizures alcohol withdrawal

A

36hr

48
Q

delirium tremens

A

48-72 hours: coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia

49
Q

triptan + SSRI

A

serotonin syndrome

50
Q

SSRI discontinuation syndrome: what symptom most common? (1)

A

gastrointestinal effects common

51
Q

Cyanopsia: what does it mean? (1)

A

blue-tinted vision, is not known to occur with SSRI discontinuation. It is a recognised side effect of some drugs, including sildenafil.

52
Q

Paroxetine use in pregnancy

A

SSRIs:
Use during the first trimester gives a small increased risk of congenital heart defects
Use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester

53
Q

best atypical antipyshciotic for side effects

A

Aripiprazole has the most tolerable side effect profile of the atypical antispsychotics, particularly for prolactin elevation

54
Q

ssri for anxiety

A

Sertraline is the first-line drug for generalised anxiety disorder

55
Q

lithium

A

nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea
fine tremor
nephrotoxicity: polyuria, secondary to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
thyroid enlargement, may lead to hypothyroidism
ECG: T wave flattening/inversion
weight gain
idiopathic intracranial hypertension
leucocytosis
hyperparathyroidism and resultant hypercalcaemia

56
Q

coroner and mental health act

A

always must be referred

57
Q

What is Hoover sign - what is it used for?

A

Hoover’s sign is a quick and useful clinical tool to differentiate organic from non-organic leg paresis. In non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the paretic leg when lifting the non-paretic leg against pressure, this is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension

58
Q

PHQ-9 score: what is a moderate/severe score (1)

A

‘less severe’ depression: encompasses what was previously termed subthreshold and mild depression
a PHQ-9 score of < 16

‘more severe’ depression: encompasses what was previously termed moderate and severe depression
a PHQ-9 score of ≥ 16

59
Q

what type of medication is imipramine

A

TCA

60
Q

Risperidone -typical or atypical antispcyhotic

A

ATYPICAL

61
Q

1st line SSRI for GAD

A

sertraline

62
Q

Which one of the following is a side effect of excess vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) ingestion?

A

peripheral neuropathy

63
Q

Myasthenia gravis - what drugs exacerbate an attack?

A

penicillamine
quinidine, procainamide
beta-blockers
lithium
phenytoin
antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

BB = slow sympathetic nervous Sx

64
Q

Myasthenia gravis: main Sx

A

worsening fatigue later in day

65
Q

essential tremor inheritance?

A

Autosomal dominant

Features
postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched
improved by alcohol and rest
most common cause of titubation (head tremor)

Management
propranolol is first-line
primidone is sometimes used

66
Q

Lacunar stroked features (5)

A

purely motor
most common lacunar syndrome
purely sensory
sensorimotor stroke
ataxic hemiparesis
ipsilateral weakness and limb ataxia that is out of proportion to the motor deficit
dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome