Gynaecology + Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

HPV cercial cancer types (1)
other RF (5)

A

Human papillomavirus infection (particularly 16,18 & 33) is by far the most important risk factor

Mechanism of HPV causing cervical cancer
HPV 16 & 18 produces the oncogenes E6 and E7 genes respectively
E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene
E7 inhibits RB suppressor gene

Other RF:
smoking, HIV, parity, low SES, COCP

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2
Q

widely spaced nipples and primary amenorrhoea

A

Turner’s syndrome
(X)

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3
Q

hormonal changes characteristic with turners

A

raised gonadotrophin levels (FSH/LH)

decreased levels of oestrogen and progesterone due to gonadal dysgenesis resulting in a compensatory increase in serum FSH and LH.

Gonadal dysgenesis causes an increase in FSH/LH by the negative feedback cycle to try to compensate for the lack of oestrogen and progesterone produced by the ovaries.

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4
Q

Increased serum androgen levels

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome. This will present a history of oligomenorrhoea, obesity, acne and hirsutism.

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5
Q

most common cause of primary amenorrhoea

A

gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. turners)

other causes:
testicular feminisation
congenital malformations of the genital tract
functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary to anorexia)
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
imperforate hymen

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6
Q

secondary amenorrheoa

A

hypothalamic amenorrhoea (e.g. secondary stress, excessive exercise)
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
hyperprolactinaemia
premature ovarian failure
thyrotoxicosis*
Sheehan’s syndrome
Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions)

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7
Q

amenorrheoa- what do the gonatorohins show us

A

FSH/LH tell us:
low levels indicate a hypothalamic cause where as raised levels suggest an ovarian problem (e.g. Premature ovarian failure)
raised if gonadal dysgenesis (e.g. Turner’s syndrome)

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8
Q

secondary amenorrhoea + raised FSH/LH + lw oestradiol

A

POremature ovarian insufficiency (<40 years)

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9
Q

Gonadotropin-producing pituitary adenoma: hormones

A

elevated FSH and LH levels alongside normal or high oestradiol levels

  • mass effect on surrounding structures, such as headaches or visual disturbances.
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10
Q

diagnostic test for POI

A

FSH level

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11
Q

Ectopic:
when can you do expectant:
hCG (1)
size (1)

A

<35mm
unruptured
asymptomatic
no fetal heartbead
hCG <1000
(involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours and if B-hCG levels rise again or symptoms manifest intervention is performed.)

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12
Q

Ectopic:
when can you do medical management:
hCG (1)
size (1)

A

<35mm
no significant pain
no heart beat
hCG < 1,500

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13
Q

medical management ectopic

A

methotrexate
pt has to be willing to attend follow up

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14
Q

Ectopic:
when can you do surgical management:
hCG (1)
size (1)

A

> 35mm
hCG >5000
heart beat
pain

Salpingectomy is first-line for women with no other risk factors for infertility

Salpingotomy should be considered for women with risk factors for infertility such as contralateral tube damage (around 1/5 require further methotrexate/ salpingostomy)

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15
Q

Infertility in PCOS - first line treatment
2nd line?

A

1st= clomifene
2nd line= metformin
(weight reduction)

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16
Q

uterine fibroids short term treatment to reduce size

A

GnRH agonists

typically used more for short-term treatment due to side-effects such as menopausal symptoms (hot flushes, vaginal dryness) and loss of bone mineral density

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17
Q

uterine fibroid surgical management

A

myomectomy: this may be performed abdominally, laparoscopically or hysteroscopically
hysteroscopic endometrial ablation
hysterectomy
uterine artery embolization

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18
Q

Benign ovarian cyst management:
premenopausal
postmenopausal

A

PREMENOPAUSAL
a conservative approach may be taken for younger women (especially if < 35 years) as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (e.g. < 5 cm) and reported as ‘simple’ then it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be arranged for 8-12 weeks and referral considered if it persists.

POSTMENOPAUSAL
by definition physiological cysts are unlikely
any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst regardless of nature or size should be referred to gynaecology for assessment

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19
Q

gestational sac containing a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion

A

missed misscarriage

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20
Q

threatened vs inevitable miscarroage

A

Inevitable miscarriage would have symptoms of imminent expulsion such as abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding with an open cervical os.

Threatened miscarriage would have vaginal bleeding with or without abdominal pain, with a closed cervical os.

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21
Q

HIV and cervical cancer screening

A

Women with HIV should be offered cervical cytology at diagnosis.. Cervical cytology should then be offered annually for screening.

Even those women who are effectively treated with antiretrovirals have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative cytology.

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22
Q

bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis treatment

A

metronidazole

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23
Q

thrust treatment options (2)
if pregnant (1)

A

oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose first-line
clotrimazole 500 mg intravaginal pessary as a single dose if oral therapy is contraindicated

if pregnant then only local treatments (e.g. cream or pessaries) may be used - oral treatments are contraindicated

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24
Q

hormonal changes in menopause

A

The menopause can either be a natural or iatrogenic process that results in the cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries. Due to this decrease, FSH and LH levels will often increase.

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25
Q

temperature during period

A

Rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels

Progesterone also highest in luteal (secretory) 15-28 days, as it is secreted by the egg

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26
Q

Urge incontinence management (2)
examples of the meds (3)

A
  1. bladder retraining
  2. anti muscarinic antagonist

NICE recommend oxybutynin (immediate release),
tolterodine (immediate release) or
darifenacin (once daily preparation)

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27
Q

who to not give oxybutynin to

A

Immediate release oxybutynin should, however, be avoided in ‘frail older women’

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28
Q

duloxetine MOA

A

mechanism of action: increased synaptic concentration of noradrenaline and serotonin within the pudendal nerve → increased stimulation of urethral striated muscles within the sphincter → enhanced contraction

duloxetine may be offered to women if they decline surgical procedures

STRESS INCONTINENCE

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29
Q

Amels’s criteria;
what cells? (1)
what pH (1)

A

Amsel’s criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis - 3 of the following 4 points should be present:
thin, white homogenous discharge
clue cells on microscopy: stippled vaginal epithelial cells
vaginal pH > 4.5
positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)

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30
Q

Treatment for BV and trichomonads vaginalis

A

Oral metronidazole

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31
Q

recurrent candida - how to treat

A

if 4+ / year

–> check compliance
–> check for other causes e.g. diabetes
–> consider lichen sclerosis

TREAT with induction-maintenance regimen
induction: oral fluconazole every 3 days for 3 doses
maintenance: oral fluconazole weekly for 6 months

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32
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 25 years

A

Dermoid cyst (teratoma)

also called mature cystic teratomas. Usually lined with epithelial tissue and hence may contain skin appendages, hair and teeth
most common benign ovarian tumour in woman under the age of 30 years
median age of diagnosis is 30 years old
bilateral in 10-20%
usually asymptomatic. Torsion is more likely than with other ovarian tumours

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33
Q

commonest type of ovarian cyst
due to non-rupture of the dominant follicle or failure of atresia in a non-dominant follicle
commonly regress after several menstrual cycles

A

Follicular cysts

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34
Q

sample “inadequate” in cervical smear

A

repeat in 3 months

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35
Q

if 2x samples inadequate in cervical smear

A

colposcopy

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36
Q

HPV +ve by cytology normal (i.e NO borderline changes) –> repeat in 12 months.
if repeat:
normal? (1)
+ve? (1)

A

if the repeat test is now hrHPV -ve → return to normal recall
if the repeat test is still hrHPV +ve and cytology still normal → further repeat test 12 months later:
If hrHPV -ve at 24 months → return to normal recall
if hrHPV +ve at 24 months → colposcopy

(Cervical cancer screening: if 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is still hrHPV +ve → colposcopy)

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37
Q

progesterone surge in cycle

A

day 21

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38
Q

fertility: what hormone to test for

A

progesterone

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39
Q

management endometrial cancer

A

localised disease is treated with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy

Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women not considered suitable for surgery.

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40
Q

when to investigate infertility

A

> 35 = 6 months
<35= 12 months

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41
Q

VWD

A

Von Willebrand’s disease is the most common inherited bleeding disorder. The majority of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion* and characteristically behaves like a platelet disorder i.e. epistaxis and menorrhagia are common whilst haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare

Investigation
prolonged bleeding time
APTT may be prolonged
factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced
defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin

42
Q

ovarian hyperstimulaton syndrome

A

Whilst it is rarely seen with clomifene therapy is more likely to be seen following gonadotropin or hCG treatment. Up to one third of women who are having IVF may experience a mild form of OHSS

severe;
* As for moderate
* Clinical evidence of ascites
* Oliguria
* Haematocrit > 45%
* Hypoproteinaemia

critical’ As for severe
* Thromboembolism
* Acute respiratory distress syndrome
* Anuria
* Tense ascites

43
Q

secondary dysmenorrhoea in the GP

A

referred to gynaecology for investigation

44
Q

Hypothyroidism impact on menstrual cycle

A

menorrhagia NOT dysmenorrahia
(heavier longer periods not really more painful)

44
Q

Adenomyosis

A

endometrium grows in myometrium of the uterus (endometriosis in the womb)

45
Q

ages cervical cancer screening

A

Cervical cancer screening
25-49 years: 3-yearly
50-64 years: 5-yearly

46
Q

First line treatment for:
dysmenorrahgia
menorrhagia

A

DYSmenorrhagia - NSAID

Menorrhagia - intrauterine system (Mirena) is first-line

47
Q
A
48
Q

what hormone causes ovulation

A

LH surge causes ovulation

49
Q

Most common type of ovarian pathology associated with Meigs’ syndrome (1)
what else Sx associated? (2)

A

fibroma
associated with ascites and pleural effusion

50
Q

corpus luteum cyst

A

during the menstrual cycle if pregnancy doesn’t occur the corpus luteum usually breaks down and disappears. If this doesn’t occur the corpus luteum may fill with blood or fluid and form a corpus luteal cyst
more likely to present with intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts

51
Q

Benign epithelial tumours:
serous cystadeoma
mutinous cystaedoma

A

Serous cystadenoma (The most common type of epithelial cell tumour)
the most common benign epithelial tumour which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma)
bilateral in around 20%

Mucinous cystadenoma
second most common benign epithelial tumour
they are typically large and may become massive
if ruptures may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei

–> SEROUS CARCINOMA IS MOST COMMMON TYPE OF OVARIAN CANCER

52
Q

normal HR for fetus

A

100-160

53
Q

fetal HR < 100 causes

A

Increased fetal vagal tone, maternal beta-blocker use

54
Q

fetal HR > 160

A

Maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, prematurity

55
Q

what type of decelerations in foetus is normal

A

EARLY is normal

56
Q

variable decelerations in fetal HR

A

May indicate cord compression

57
Q

how many weeks into gestation is pre eclampsia

A

new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation with proteinuria (≥0.3g/24h) or other maternal organ dysfunction.

58
Q

preterm prelabour rupture of membranes PPROM management

A

10/7 erythromycin

59
Q

aspirin and breastfeeding

A

AVOID (Reye syndrome)

60
Q

breastfeeding and epilepsy

A

Breast feeding is acceptable with nearly all anti-epileptic drugs

61
Q

epilepsy drugs and pregnancy

A

aim for monotherapy
there is no indication to monitor antiepileptic drug levels
sodium valproate: associated with neural tube defects
carbamazepine: often considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics
phenytoin: associated with cleft palate
lamotrigine: studies to date suggest the rate of congenital malformations may be low. The dose of lamotrigine may need to be increased in pregnancy

62
Q

RFM when to refer

A

24 weeks
(Generally women can feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks)

63
Q

how long to take folic acid for in pregnancy

A

until 12 week

64
Q

Pregnant women ≥ 20 weeks who develop chickenpox .. treat with

A

oral acyclovir if they have the rash

if severe –> hospital for IV acyclovir

65
Q

Magnesium sulphate - what to monitor

A

monitor reflexes + respiratory rate

66
Q

breast candid infection -

A

treat mum and beat ad continue breastfeeding

67
Q

women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease - what to do

A

ntrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP), either benzylpenicillin or ampicillin.

Antibiotics should only be administered to the child if they present signs and symptoms of neonatal sepsis.

IAP should be offered to women in preterm labour regardless of their GBS status
women with a pyrexia during labour (>38ºC) should also be given IAP
benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for GBS prophylaxis

68
Q

perineal tears - 1st
2nd
3rd
4th

A

1st = SUPERFICIAL
2nd= MUSCLE BUT NO ANAL S{PINTER (repeat on ward)
3rd= INVOLVING ANAL SPINCTER (repeat in theatre)
4th= ANAL SPINTER COMPLEX and rectal mucosa

69
Q

anomaly scan

A

18 - 20+6 weeks

70
Q

downs syndrome screening/ nuchal scan

A

11 - 13+6 weeks

71
Q

what medications or diseases –> folic acid 5mg (4)

A

DIABETES
antiepileptic drugs or has coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait.

72
Q

methotrexate and pregnancy

A

Methotrexate: must be stopped at least 6 months before conception in both men and women

73
Q

breastfeeding avoid these drugs

A

antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides
psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines
aspirin
carbimazole
methotrexate
sulfonylureas
cytotoxic drugs
amiodarone

74
Q

Can have these in breastfeeding

A

antibiotics: penicillins, cephalosporins, trimethoprim
endocrine: glucocorticoids (avoid high doses), levothyroxine*
epilepsy: sodium valproate, carbamazepine
asthma: salbutamol, theophyllines
psychiatric drugs: tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics**
hypertension: beta-blockers, hydralazine
anticoagulants: warfarin, heparin
digoxin

75
Q

UTI and pregnant treatment

A

trimethoprim

76
Q

multiparty or nulliparity associated with placental abruption

A

MULTIparity

77
Q

when to do OGTT for women at risk of gestational diabetes

A

ASAP after booking

78
Q

OGTT number

A

fasting glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L
2-hour glucose >=7.8 mmol/L

79
Q

Amiodarone and breastfeeding

A

AVOID

80
Q

sodium valproate and breastfeeding

A

SAFE

81
Q

when does gestational diabetes usually start

A

2nd or 3rd trimester

82
Q

Psychological changes in pregnancy

A

increased SV, CO, HR, plasma volume

83
Q

rudimentary digits, limb hypoplasia and microcephaly

A

Varicella zoster

84
Q

cerebral calcification, microcephaly and sensorineural deafness

A

cytomegalovirus

85
Q

deafness, congenital cataracts and cardiac complications

A

rubella

86
Q

smoking in pregnancy increased risk of..

A

Increased risk of pre-term labour

(and IUGR
stillbirth
miscarriage)

87
Q

Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given as soon as possible (but always within 72 hours) in the following situations:

A

delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn
any termination of pregnancy
miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks
ectopic pregnancy (if managed surgically, if managed medically with methotrexate anti-D is not required)
external cephalic version
antepartum haemorrhage
amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling
abdominal trauma

88
Q

when to give anti-D

A

28 and 34 weeks

89
Q

Booking visit and bloods

A

8-12 weeks

Booking visit
general information e.g. diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, antenatal classes
BP, urine dipstick, check BMI
Booking bloods/urine
FBC, blood group, rhesus status, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies
hepatitis B, syphilis
HIV test is offered to all women
urine culture to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria

89
Q

OP vs OA : urge to push

A

5: Generally, women will experience an earlier urge to push in OP than OA.

89
Q

oligohydramnios

A

less than 500ml at 32-36 weeks and an amniotic fluid index (AFI) < 5th percentile.

premature rupture of membranes
Potter sequence
bilateral renal agenesis + pulmonary hypoplasia
intrauterine growth restriction
post-term gestation
pre-eclampsia
renal agenesis

89
Q

pregnancy 10 - 13+6 weeks

A

early scan to determine dates

89
Q

A 19-year-old woman presents with a two day history of central lower abdominal pain and one day history of vaginal bleeding. Her last period was 8 weeks ago. On examination her cervix is tender to touch

A

ectopic - miscarriage NOT usually painful cervix

90
Q

Anomaly scan

A

18 - 20+6 weeks

91
Q
A
92
Q

HIV and breastfeeding

A

All mothers known to be HIV positive, regardless of antiretroviral therapy, and infant PEP,
should be advised to exclusively formula feed from birth.

93
Q

factors which reduce HIV transmission to baby

A

maternal antiretroviral therapy
mode of delivery (caesarean section)
neonatal antiretroviral therapy
infant feeding (bottle feeding)

94
Q

baby prophylaxis for HIV

A

zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if maternal viral load is <50 copies/ml. Otherwise triple ART should be used. Therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

95
Q

when to deliver baby with gestational hypertension

A

mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are more than 37 week pregnant, and are showing signs of pre-eclampsia, should be recommended to give birth within 24 - 48 hours.

96
Q

Downs syndrome

A

↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

97
Q

what do you assess before induction of labour

A

Bishops score

Cervical position (posterior/intermediate/anterior)
Cervical consistency (firm/intermediate/soft)
Cervical effacement (0-30%/40-50%/60-70%/80%)
Cervical dilation (<1 cm/1-2 cm/3-4 cm/>5 cm)
Foetal station (-3/-2/-1, 0/+1,+2)