Neurology & psych Flashcards

1
Q

Not able to drive for how long after a single TIA?

A

1 month (no need to tell DVLA)

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2
Q

Not able to drive for how long after multiple TIAs over a short period?

A

3 months and need to tell DVLA

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3
Q

Section 3 of mental health act =

A

Compulsory admission for under 6 months for treatment

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4
Q

Section 2 of mental health act =

A

Compulsory admission for 28 days or less for assessment

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5
Q

Section 4 of mental health act =

A

Exceptional circumstances
Compulsory admission for 72hrs if unable to get section 2 sorted

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6
Q

Section 5 - 2 =

A

Doctor holding powers, 72hrs

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7
Q

1st line medical management in delerium

A

Haloperidol

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8
Q

What Rosier score indicates a potential stroke

A

1 or greater

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9
Q

Treatment in severe myasthenia gravis crisis

A

IV immunoglobulin

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10
Q

Pick’s disease

A

Pick’s disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that causes a slowly progressive frontotemporal dementia.

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11
Q

Mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease 1st line medical management

A

The AChE inhibitors are:
Donepezil (Aricept)
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

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12
Q

Medical tx for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Acetazolamide

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13
Q

Severe Alzheimer’s disease medical management

A

Memantine acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors and is recommended for use in patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease that are intolerant of or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or in patients with severe Alzheimer’s disease.

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14
Q

Korsakoff psychosis, is characterised by:

A

Retrograde amnesia
An inability to memorise new information
Disordered time appreciation
Confabulation

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15
Q

T-ACE is primarily used to screen for

A

alcohol abuse in pregnant women

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16
Q

Meadow syndrome

A

the caregiver fabricates the appearance of health problems in another person, typically their child.

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17
Q

The highest risks for suicide are:

A

Previous episode of self-harm (5) – 4% of people who attend A&E with self-harm will kill themselves within five years
Previous mental illness (4)
Male sex (3)
Severe depression (2)
Misuse of drugs and alcohol (2)

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18
Q

Gedankenlautwerden

A

Thought echo occurs when a patient hears their own thoughts as if they are being spoken aloud. When heard simultaneously this is Gedankenlautwerden

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19
Q

The following are considered to be good prognostic factors in schizophrenia:

(10)

A

Acute onset
Precipitating stressful event
No family history of schizophrenia
Family history of depression
Older age of onset
No history of previous episodes
Normal intelligence
Preponderance of affective symptoms
No loss of emotion
Prompt treatment

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20
Q

SADQ or or LDQ

A

Severity of alcohol dependence

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21
Q

APQ

A

for the nature and extent of the problems arising from alcohol misuse.

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22
Q

AUDIT

A

identification and as a routine outcome measure of alcohol dependency

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23
Q

Lhermitte’s sign

A

sudden sensation resembling an electric shock experienced by patients with MS

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24
Q

Imaging modality to help diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

MRI brain

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25
Q

Meningococcal meningitis, what abx is given in hospital if there is hx of anaphylaxis to cephalosporins

A

Chloramphenicol IV

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26
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke signs

A

Contralateral motor weakness (leg/shoulder > arm/hand/face)
Minimal contralateral sensory loss
Dysarthria, aphasia
Left limb apraxia
Urinary incontinence
Behavioural and personality changes

27
Q

Middle cerebral artery stroke signs

A

Contralateral hemiparesis (face/arm > leg)
Contralateral hemisensory loss
Expressive or receptive dysphasia (dominant hemisphere)
Contralateral neglect (non-dominant hemisphere)

28
Q

Posterior cerebral artery stroke signs

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Quadrantic visual field defects
Contralateral thalamic syndrome (PCA supplies thalamus)

29
Q

Wallenberg’s syndrome

A

Occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery causes the lateral medullary syndrome

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense on the body (damage to spinothalamic tracts)
Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sense on the face (damage to CN V)
Vertigo, nystagmus, tinnitus, deafness and vomiting (damage to CN VIII)
Horner’s syndrome (damage to the descending hypothalamospinal tract)

30
Q

Neisseria meningitidis meningitis contacts, chemoprophylaxis drug

Pregnancy

A

Rifampicin 600 mg PO BD for two days
OR single dose of ciprofloxacin 500mg

Both contraindicated in pregnancy, so IM ceftriaxone 250mg

31
Q

In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by

A

Neisseria meningitidis group B

32
Q

The initial dose of alteplase

A

0.9 mg/kg (up to a maximum of 90 mg), given intravenously over 60 minutes

33
Q

Benedikt syndrome

A

Lateral midbrain syndrome

34
Q

Weber’s syndrome

A

Medial midbrain syndrome

35
Q

Wallenberg’s syndrome

A

Lateral medullary syndrome

36
Q

Logorrhoea

A

pertaining to the overuse of words or excessive talkativeness

37
Q

Who needs prophylaxis for meningococcal disease

A

Household members who have had prolonged close contact within 7 days before the onset of illness

Kissing contacts

Healthcare workers who have had direct exposure to droplets or respiratory secretions prior to completion of 24 hours of antibiotics

38
Q

What abx is used as a prophylaxis in menigococcal disease?

A

Rifampacin / Ciprofloxacin

IV Cef in pregnant patients

39
Q

Pathogenesis of MS

A

MS is a multicentric, multiphasic inflammatory disorder of the central nervous system (CNS) in which focal lymphocytic infiltration leads to damage to myelin and axons.

40
Q

Uhthoff symptom

A

a temporary worsening of multiple sclerosis (MS) symptoms that occurs when the body temperature increases

41
Q

Commonest cause of BPPV

A

Posterior semicircular canal otoliths (calcium oxalate crystals)

42
Q

labyrinthitis

A

When ipsilateral hearing loss is associated with the symptoms of vestibular neuritis

43
Q

At what % of carotid stenosis is surgery offered?

44
Q

How long after a TIA can patients drive?

45
Q

The risk for stroke after a TIA is highest during the first:

46
Q

Typical LP result in GBS

A

A raised CSF protein (>0.4 g/L) with normal white cell count

47
Q

Treatment for patients with GBS who can’t walk

A

IVIG or plasma exchange

48
Q

1st line in mild acute myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine

49
Q

The only medical treatment for vasospasm, due to SAH, with proven clinical benefit is

A

oral nimodipine 60 mg 4-hourly

50
Q

Bacteria causing tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani (bacillus)

51
Q

Which antibiotics can treat Clostridium tetani

A

BenPen and Metronidazole

52
Q

Potential LP findings in cerebral sinus thrombosis?

A

Many patients have raised protein levels and pleocytosis on CSF analysis

53
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy features (4)

A

confusion, ataxia, nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia

54
Q

Chronic tension headache is defined by…

A

Episodes at least 15 days per month

55
Q

Meningococcal prophylaxis in pregnancy

A

IM ceftriaxone 250mg

56
Q

Dose of initial benzo in SE in children

A

Lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg

Buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg

57
Q

Dose of levetiracetam in SE in children

A

40 mg/kg of levetiracetam IV (maximum 3 g) over 5 minutes

58
Q

Dose of phenytoin in SE in children

A

20mg/kg over 20 mins

59
Q

Autonomic involvement in cluster headaches

A

Ipsilateral conjunctival injection
Ipsilateral rhinorrhoea
Ipsilateral lacrimation
Ipsilateral miosis
Ipsilateral ptosis

60
Q

Which type of scan shows evidence of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

61
Q

The initial dose of alteplase for stroke is?

62
Q

In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by

A

N.meningitidis B

63
Q

Time cut off for thrombectomy

64
Q

What imaging must be confirmed for a patient to be eligible for thrombectomy

A

CTA or MRA showing occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation