Gastroenterology and renal Flashcards

1
Q

Serum ascites albumin ratio to diagnose cirrhosis

A

1.5

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2
Q

Bacteria causing D&V after eating pre-prepared food?

A

Listeria

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3
Q

Presence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

A

it is the first serum marker to be detected following initial infection.

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4
Q

Presence of Anti-HBc IgM means?

A

The presence of anti-HBc IgM indicates recent infection within the last six months

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5
Q

Presence of antibodies against HBeAg means?

A

HBeAg seroconversion is the development of antibodies against HBeAg (anti-HBe); it marks a transition from active disease to an inactive ‘carrier’ state.5 Anti-HBe remains in serum for life and indicates acquired, natural immunity (i.e. immunity from a previous infection only).

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6
Q

Main source of listeria

A

Cold pre-prepared food

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7
Q

Mild c.diff infection

A

Mild infection: not associated with an increased white cell count (WCC). Typically associated with fewer than 3 episodes of loose stools per day.

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8
Q

Moderate c.diff infection

A

associated with an increased WCC (but less than 15 × 109 per litre). Typically associated with 3 to 5 loose stools per day.

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9
Q

Severe c.diff infection

A

associated with a WCC greater than 15 × 109 per litre, or an acutely increased serum creatinine concentration (greater than 50% increase above baseline), or a temperature higher than 38.5 degrees Celsius, or evidence of severe colitis (abdominal or radiological signs). The number of stools may be a less reliable indicator of severity.

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10
Q

Life threatening c.diff infection

A

symptoms and signs include hypotension, partial or complete ileus, toxic megacolon or CT evidence of severe disease.

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11
Q

Diagnose SBP on an ascitic tap

A

> 250 polymorphonuclear cells (neutrophils) per cubic millimetre

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12
Q

Incubation period for Hep A

A

28-30 days

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13
Q

Treatment for Hep A

A

Supportive

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14
Q

Key facts re Hep A infection

A

No chronic carrier state
Nil chronic infection
Life long immunity after contracting

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15
Q

Skin sign in UC

A

Erythema nodosum

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16
Q

Skin sign in coeliac disease

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

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17
Q

What is most helpful in diagnosing HUS

A

Peripheral blood smear with schistocytes

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18
Q

When to use calcium chloride in hyperkalaemia

A

Any severity with ECG changes

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19
Q

Moderate hypokalaemia range

Treatment

A

2.5-2.9

Oral replacement

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20
Q

Layers affected in

UC

Crohns

A

Mucosa and sub mucosa (SUPERFICIAL)

Transmural (FULL THICKNESS)

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21
Q

Which antibiotics used in patients with travellers diarrhoea who are at risk of developing an invasive infection

A

Ciprofloxacin

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22
Q

Which type of E.coli does NOT cause bloody diarrhoea

A

Enterotoxigenic (non invasive)

23
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis and chronic active hepatitis are recognised associations of…

24
Q

What type of bacteria is Clostridium difficile

A

Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacteria

25
Q

primary sclerosing cholangitis vs primary biliary cholangitis

A

One major difference is that primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) affects only your intrahepatic bile ducts, the bile ducts within your liver. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) affects all of your bile ducts, including your extrahepatic ducts.

26
Q

1st line for typhoid fever

A

Cefotaxime

Ciprofloxacin is a suitable alternative if the microorganism is sensitive.

27
Q

Ovarian mets most often come from

A

Gastric Ca

28
Q

Pabrinex contains the following vitamins:

A

Thiamine (vitamin B1)
Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
Nicotinamide (Vitamin B3, niacin and nicotinic acid)
Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C)

29
Q

Which two drugs have UK marketing authorisation for the management of acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

A

diazepam and chlordiazepoxide

30
Q

Which screening tool is recommended by NICE for the identification of alcohol misuse.

31
Q

First two choices in rapid tranq according to NICE

A

IM Lorazepam

IM haloperidol + promethazine

32
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy triad

A

Acute confusion
Ophthalmoplegia
Ataxia

33
Q

When is IM haloperidol + promethazine contraindicated in rapid tranq

A

If there is evidence of cardiovascular disease, including a prolonged QT interval, or no electrocardiogram has been carried out, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam used instead.

34
Q

Define AKI stage 1 (based on blood results / UO)

A

A rise in serum creatinine of 26 μmol/L or greater within 48 hours.

50% or greater increase in serum creatinine (1.5 fold from baseline) within the preceding seven days.

A fall in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than six hours.

35
Q

NSAID impact on

Renal plasma flow
Filtration fraction
eGFR

A

Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

36
Q

Define AKI stage 2 (based on blood results / UO)

A

Creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 x baseline),

or

Urine output <0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours

37
Q

Define AKI stage 3 (based on blood results / UO)

A

Creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more x baseline), or

Creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hors or 50% or more rise within 7 days, or

Urine output <0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria for 12 hours

38
Q

At what eGFR should dialysis be started?

A

Patients generally begin dialysis when their GFR reaches 10 ml/min or 15 ml/minute if they are diabetic.

39
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis in children?

40
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults?

41
Q

Most common cause of HUS

A

Enterohaemorrhagic E.coli

42
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis, antibody often identified

A

anti-mitochondrial antibody

43
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis, antibody often identified

A

anti-nuclear cytoplasmic antibody

44
Q

Fulminant Hepatic Failure triad

A

hepatocellular injury, coagulopathy, and altered mental status

45
Q

Causes of bloody diarrhoea

A

Campylobacter spp.
Shigella spp.
Salmonella spp.
Clostridium difficile
Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli
Yersinia spp.
Schistosomiasis
Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica)

46
Q

What type of bacteria is Clostridium difficile

A

Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore-forming bacteria.

47
Q

The current gold standard for the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile colitis

A

Cytotoxin assay.

48
Q

Most common cause of toxic megacolon

49
Q

Campylobacter jejuni colitis treatment

A

Clarithromycin

50
Q

Salmonella enterica severe diarrhoea antibiotic

A

Ciprofloxacin

51
Q

AST:ALT ratio in NASH

52
Q

AST:ALT ratio in ALD

53
Q

How is Gilbert’s passed on genetically

A

Autosomal recessive