Infectious diseases & dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common form of extra pulmonary TB

A

Lymphatic

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2
Q

Mainstay of treatment for Kawasaki disease

A

Immunoglobulin and aspirin

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3
Q

Criteria for antiviral drugs for flu

A

Start within 48hrs of symptoms
65+ / < 6months / pregnant

or a b/g of….

Asplenism
Immunocompromised
IHD
CKD
Chronic liver disease
Chronic respiratory disease
Chronic neurological condition
Morbid obesity

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3
Q

Infection of unclear cause in a child <3 months, what should be given alongside 3rd gen cef ? and why?

A

Amox for listeria

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4
Q

School exclusion advice for mumps

A

return 5 days after onset of swelling

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5
Q

Treatment of choice for severe Falciparum malaria

A

IV Artesunate

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6
Q

Tx of choice for uncomplicated Falciparum malaria

A

Arteminisin combination therapy

Artemether + lumefantrine

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7
Q

School exclusion for scarlet fever

A

Can go back 24hrs after treatment commenced

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8
Q

What complication of chicken pox are pregnant women especially at risk of ?

A

Pneumonia

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9
Q

Where does the rubella rash typically start

A

Behind the ears

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10
Q

Rubella exclusion period

A

5 days from rash onset

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11
Q

Differentiator between malaria and dengue fever

A

Rash

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12
Q

Treatment for lyme disease, either rash present or +ve serology

2nd line

A

Doxy

Amox (1st line in pregnancy)

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13
Q

Most common cause for bilateral facial palsy

A

Lyme disease

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14
Q

When does gas gangrene develop

A

Deep soil wound

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15
Q

antiviral drug in influenza criteria

A

Present with 48hrs of symptoms and any of the following

Pregnant (up to 2 weeks PP)
65+
<6 MONTHS
Or major chronic conditions

(Zanavir can be started 36hrs after sx in children)

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16
Q

Most commonly used assay tests for HIV

A

p24

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17
Q

Cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

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18
Q

Organism causing chancroid

A

fastidious Gram-negative bacteria Haemophilus ducreyi.

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19
Q

Treatment for chancroid

A

Azithromycin or ceftriaxone

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20
Q

Onchocerciasis

A

Parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus

Transmitted through black flies

Lots of skin reactions, ocular involvement (river blindness)

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21
Q

CD4 count diagnostic of advanced HIV disease

anti-retroviral therapy should be considered

A

<200 mm3

<350 mm3

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22
Q

Tape worm treatment

A

niclosamide or praziquantel

23
Q

Rose spots are seen in?

A

Typhoid, usually on the body

24
Q

Horder’s spots can present as part of what infection?

A

Psittacosis

zoonotic infection caused by Chlamydia psittica

Horders spots are found on the face

25
Q

Erythema marginatum

A

pale red maculopapular rash seen in rheumatic fever

26
Q

Causes of acanthosis nigricans

A

Malignancy, e.g. gastric carcinoma, lymphoma
Acromegaly
Cushing’s syndrome
Diabetes Mellitus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Obesity

27
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome is also known as (2)

A

5th disease or erythema infectiosum

28
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome is caused by?

A

Parovirus B19

29
Q

Erythroderma definition

A

erythema affecting more than 90% of the body surface

30
Q

Exfoliative erythroderma is also known as

Defined by

A

Red man syndrome

Erythema affecting more than 90% of the body surface + exfoliation

31
Q

Most common underlying cause for exfoliative erythroderma

A

Atopic dermatitis

32
Q

Infected eczema first line abx

Pen allergic

A

Flucloxacillin

Erythromycin

33
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris vs Bullous pemphigoid

Nikolsky sign

A

Middle aged vs elderly
Flaccid lesions vs tense
Fluids vs haemorrhagic blisters
Oral involvement common vs rare
Puritis rare vs common

Positive vs negative

34
Q

Skin biopsy in Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Intra-epidermal deposition of IgG between cells throughout the epidermis

35
Q

Skin biopsy in Bullous pemphigoid

A

A band of IgG and/or C3 at the dermo-epidermal junction

36
Q

Antiviral treatment in chicken pox, what is the indications?

A

In immunocompromised patients and those at special risk (e.g. because of severe cardiovascular or respiratory disease or chronic skin disorder);

37
Q

Erysipelas is an infection of the superficial epidermis, most frequently caused by

A

Strep pyogenes

38
Q

Acne conglobata =

A

very severe form of acne where acne nodules track together and form sinuses

39
Q

Acne fulminans =

A

sudden severe inflammatory reaction that precipitates deep ulcerations and erosions, sometimes with systemic effects

40
Q

Pork tape worm species

Beef tapeworm

A

Taenia solium

Taenia saginata

41
Q

Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment for malaria is suggestive of

A

Blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

42
Q

Malaria is usually diagnosed using the…

A

Indirect Fluorescence Antibody Test (IFAT).

43
Q

The benign malarias are:

And usually treated with…

A

P.vivax, P. malariae and P.ovale

Chloroquine

A course of primaquine is also required in P.vivax and P.ovale infection.

44
Q

Notifiable disease, time frame to notify

Urgent

Non urgent

A

24hrs

72hrs

45
Q

The median incubation period from HIV infection until the development of advanced HIV disease

46
Q

Needlestick injury

The risk of contracting Hepatitis C from a Hepatitis C positive source patient is

The risk of contracting HIV from an HIV positive source patient

A

3-10%

0.2-0.5%

47
Q

In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by

A

Neisseria meningitidis group B

48
Q

Cysticercosis

A

An infection caused by the larvae of the parasite Taenia solium

Whereby larval cysts infiltrate and disseminate throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain.

49
Q

Differentiate dengue fever vs malaria

50
Q
A

Cutaneous vasculitis

51
Q

Hereditary angioedema is caused by

A

deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor

52
Q

Appropriate test for whooping cough in patients of all ages with cough <2 weeks

A

Nasopharangeal swab / aspirate

53
Q

Appropriate test for whooping cough in patients of all ages with cough <3 weeks

A

PCR testing for pertussis toxcin (nasopharyngeal or throat swab).

54
Q

Appropriate test for whooping cough in with cough >2 weeks:

17+

5-16 y/o

A

Antipertussis toxin IgG (serum)

Antipertussis toxin IgG (oral fluid)