Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a migraine characterised by?

A
  • a severe, unilateral, throbbing headache
  • associated with nausea, photophobia and phonophobia
  • attacks may last up to 72 hours
  • patients characteristically go to a quiet, dark room during an attack.
    classic migraine attacks are precipitated by an aura.
  • typical aura are visual, progressive and last 5-60 minutes, transient hemianopia disturbances
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2
Q

what are the risk factors for migraines and triggers for migraines?

A

Risk Factors

  • Family history
  • high caffeine intake
  • exposure to change in barometric pressure
  • females

Triggers

  • tiredness, stress
  • alcohol
  • COCP
  • lack of food/dehydration
  • cheese, chocolate, red wines, citrus fruits
  • menstruation
  • bright lights
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3
Q

what are the diagnostic features for migraine?

A
  • presence of risk factors
  • prolonged headache
  • nausea
    decreased ability to function
  • if the headache has the following characteristis - unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, aggravation by or causing avoidance of routine physical activity
  • if it is not attributed to anything else
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4
Q

what investigations would you consider for migraines?

A

it is a clinical diagnosis

consider
ESR, LP, CSF, CT head

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5
Q

how do you treat migraines?

A

Rescue therapy - sumatriptan and high flow oxygen.

to treat mild to moderate symptoms
- give NSAIDs or aspirin
you can add anti-emetics
2nd line = paracetamol mono-therapy

to treat severe symptoms
1st line -triptan (almotriptan)
you can add anti-emetic, hydration and NSAIDs
2nd line - ergot alkaloids (ergotamine/caffine)

Prophylaxsis

  • propranolol is 1st line
  • topiromate can be given if BB is not suitable
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6
Q

what is a tension headache?

A

a form of primary headache
they can episodic or chronic
they are rarely disabling

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7
Q

what are the characteristic features of a tension headache?

A

often described s a tight band around the head or a pressure sensation - symptoms tend to be bilateral (migraine tend to be unilateral)
lower intensity than a migraine
not associated with aura, nausea/vomiting o aggravated by routine physical activity
may be related to stress

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8
Q

what is a chronic tension headache defined as?

A

tension headache lasting more than 15 days per month

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9
Q

how would you treat acute and chronic tension headaches?

A

acute - simple analgesics (aspirin, paracetamol, ibuprofen, naproxen)

Chronic symptoms - antidepressants (amitriptyline or doxepin)

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10
Q

what are the features of a cluster headache?

A

attacks of severe pain localised to the unilateral orbital, supra-orbital, and/or temporal areas; they last 15 minutes to 3 hours.

the attacks usually occur at the same time period for several weeks

they can occur from once every other day to 8 times per day

may be accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling.
more common in men and smokers

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11
Q

what investigations would you order for cluster headaches?>

A

Brain CT or MRT - to eliminate secondary causes

ESR - exclude giant cell arteritis in patients over 50

pituitary function tests - to exclude secondary causes

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12
Q

how do you treat an acute attack of cluster headache?

A

1st line
- subcutaneous sumatriptan with high flow oxygen

2nd line
- intranasal zolmitriptan (nasal)

  • if they have CVD of uncontrolled hypertension then the first line should be just oxygen
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13
Q

how do you treat ongoing episodic/chronic cluster headache?

A

1st line - verapamil

2nd line - lithium, topiramate, gabapentin or melatonin

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14
Q

what are the tiggers for cluster headaches?

A

alcohol
volatile smells
warm temps
sleep

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15
Q

what is temporal arteritis?

A

a large vessel vasculitis
It primarily affects branches of the external carotid artery and is the most common form of vasculitis in adults.
Typically occurs in woman older than 50.

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16
Q

what are the clinical features of temporal arteritis?

A

typically older than 50
usually rapid onset (less than one month)
headache
jaw claudication
visual disturbances secondary to anterior ishcemic optic neuropathy - can be transient or visual loss
tender, palpable temporal artery
around 50% will have features of polymyalgia rheumatica (aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles)
also there may be lethary, depression, low grade fever, anorexia, night sweats.

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17
Q

what are the investigations for temporal arteritis?

A

ESR
CRP
FBC
LFTs

consider temporal artery biopsy (will show skip lesions)
aortic arch angiography

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18
Q

how do you treat suspected and confirmed temporal arteritis?

A

suspected with no visual/neurological symptoms - prednisolone
suspected with neurological symptoms or signs - methylprednisolone plus IV pulse therapy

confirmed temporal arteritis
1st line prednisolone and aspirin can be added plus osteoporosis prevention (calcium carbonate and ergocalciferol and alendronic acid)

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19
Q

what are some differential diagnosis for acute single episode headaches?

A
meningitis 
encephalitis 
subarachnoid haemorrhage 
head injury 
sinusitis 
glaucoma 
tropical illness
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20
Q

what is an ischaemic stroke?

A

when blood supply in a cerebral vascular territory is critically reduced due to occlusion or stenosis of a cerebral artery.
Symptoms must last for more than 24 hours

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21
Q

what is a transient ischaemic attack?

A

it has typical symptoms of rapidly resolving unilateral weakness or numbness

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22
Q

what is a haemorrhagic stroke?

A

vascular rupture with bleeding into the brain parenchyma

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23
Q

what are the types of ischaemic strokes?

A
thrombotic (thrombosis from large vessels e.g. the carotid) 
Embolic stroke (usually a blood clot but fat, air or clumps of bacteria can also act as an embolus. Also AF is an important cause of emboli forming in the heart)
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24
Q

what are the risk factors for an ischaemic stroke?

A

general RF for CV disease - age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, DM)
Fam history
AF

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25
what are the key diagnostic features of a stroke?
``` vision lost or visual field deficit (homonymous hemianopia) weakness aphasia impaired co-ordination swallowing problems ```
26
what are the first line investigations to order for a stroke?
1st line - CT head, MRI brain, serum glucose and serum electrolytes (hypoglycaemia and electrolyte imbalances may cause focal neurological symptoms), serum urea and creatinine (renal failure may be a potential contraindication for some stoke treatment), ECG to exclude cardiac arrhythmia or ischaemia, FBC to detect conditions that may be potential contraindications for some acute stoke treatment and interventions, prothrombin time and PTT
27
what would you see on CT and MRI of a person who has had an ischaemic stroke?
in many cases - the CT is normal within the first few hours of an ischaemic stroke You would see hypo-attenuation (darkness) or the brain parenchyma; loss of grey matter- white matter differentiation and sulcal effacement; hyper-attenuation (brightness) in an artery indicated a clot) MRI - contraindicated in patients with certain metal implants such as pacemakers acute ischaemic infarct appears bright on diffusion-weighted imaging
28
how do you treat an ischaemic stroke?
presentation within 4.5 and no contraindication to thrombolysis 1st line = alteplase aspirin can be added, or endovascular intervention Plus supportive care and swallowing assessment for non-ambulatory patients give VTE propyhlaxis (heparin) presentation after four hours or contraindication to thrombolysis aspirin and supportive care swallowing assessment add VTE prophylaxis (heparin)
29
what are the clinical features of a TIA?
symptoms last less than 24 hours but typically resolve within one hour focal neurological deficit - unilateral weakness or sensory loss, amaurosis fugax or hemianopsia, aphasia, cranial nerve defects, vertigo, lack of coordination, ataxi, syncope.
30
risk factors for TIA
``` AF valvular disease carotid stenosis congestive heart failure hypertension DM smoking alcohol abuse advanced age ```
31
what is ABCD2
``` for TIA - risk of stroke after a TIA age over 60 BP over 140/90 clinical features (unilateral weakness or speech impairment) duration of symptoms diabetes ```
32
how is a TIA treated?
atherosclerotic or small-vessel TIA - 1st line - platelet therapy (aspirin or aspirin plus clopidogrel) plus a lipid lowering agent (atorvastatin) if there is greater than 50% carotid stenosis - stent If there is a cardioembolic TIA without ischaemic heart disease give anticoagulation (warfarin or rivaroxaban) as first line If there is TIA with ischaemic heart disease - anticoagulation plus lipid lowering agent
33
what investigations would you order for a TIA?
blood glucose - hypoglycaemic events can mimic TIA chemistry profile - sever hyponatraemia can trigger seizures or induce generalised weakness extremely low potassium or very high calcium can also cause generalised weakness FBC prothrombin time, INR and activated PTT ECG brain MRI with diffusion fasting lipid profile
34
what are the different types of haemorrhagic strokes?
intraparenchymal/intracerebral bleeding within the brain) subarachnoid (bleeding on the surface of the brain) intraventricular
35
what are the risk factors for haemorrhagic stoke?
``` age hypertension arteriovenous malformation anticoagulation therapy male sex asian, black and/or hispanic ```
36
what are the key features of a haemorrhagic stroke?
``` altered sensation headache weakness sensory loss aphasia dysarthria ataxia ``` ``` Headache Altered mental status Nausea & Vomiting Hypertension Seizures Focal neurological deficits ```
37
what are some features of headaches which suggest subarachnoid or intracerebral?
intracerebral - usually insidious onset and gradually increasing intensity Sudden onset with gradual moderation or the most severe headache of my life - suggests subarachnoid thunderclap headache is characteristic88 of subarachnoid headache.
38
what investigations would you perform for a suspected haemorrhagic stroke?
None infused CT - will show hyperdense lesion chemistry panal FBC - to exclude thrombocytopenia asa cause of haemorrhage, also a low platelet count suggests a secondary cause of haemorrhage clotting factors to rule out coagulopathy ECG platelet function test urine drug screen LFT ICH score
39
how do you treat a haemorhagic stroke?
1st line -neurosurgical evaluation airway protection and aspiration precautions support
40
what is cerebellar syndrome?
a disorder when the cerebellum becomes inflamed or damaged. | the cerebellum is the area of the brain responsible for controlling gait and muscle coordination.
41
what are the symptoms of cerebellar disease?
``` DANISH Dysdiadochokinesia, Dymetria (past pointing) A ataxia N nystamus I intention tremour S- slurred staccato speach H- Hypotonia ```
42
what are the causes of cerebellar syndrome?
``` stoke alchohol MS hypothyroidism drugs - phenytoin, lead poisoning, paraneoplastic e.g. secondary to lung cancer ```
43
what is status epilepticus?
5 or more minutes of either continuous seizure activity or repetitive seizures without regaining consciousness
44
what are generalised seizures
generalised tonic-colonic seizures classically involve loss of consciousness and a phasic tonic stiffening of the limbs, followed by repetitive clonic jerking.
45
what are absence seizures?
characterised by abrupt cessation of activity and responsiveness, minimal associated movements, staring episodes, and no aura/postical state
46
what is a focal seizure?
previously termed partial seizure clinical manifestations of seizures that arise from one portion of the brain. the level of awareness can vary can be motor or non-motor
47
what investigations would order for generalised seizures?
EEG blood glucose FBC - look for infection electrolyte panel toxicology screen - illicit substances may cause seizures head CT - may reveal a structural lesion serum prolactin - greater than twice the baseline indicated GTCS serum creatine kinase
48
how are acute generalised seizures managed?
1st line - IV or rectal benzodiazepine (lorazepam) plus supportive care
49
what is the ongoing treatment for generalised seizures?
1st line sodium valproate other primary options include lamotrigine, topiramte, oxcarbazepine, carbamazepin, phenytoin. secondary options include - zonisamide, lacosamide, clobazam, gabapentin if monotherapy does not work anticonvulsant duel therapy can be used lamotrigine and topiramate lamotrigine and valproic acid topiramate and carbamezapine
50
what are the features of a focal seizure?
movement of one side of the body or one specific body part a premonitory sensation or experience (fear, epigastric sensation, deja vu) automatisms (picking at clothes, smacking of lips) temporary aphasia staring and loss of contact with the environment
51
what are the investigations for focal seizures?
``` blood glucose FBC electrolyte panal toxicology screen LP and CSF analysis CT head MRI brain EEG ```
52
what is the management of multiple focal seizures in a short interval?
1st line - lorazepam/diazepam plus airway maintenance
53
what is the first line treatment for ongoing focal seizures?
carbamazepine other anti-epileptics can also be used
54
what investigations should be ordered for absence seizures?
EEG
55
how are absence seizures managed?
if no history of GTCS 1st line - ethosuximide or valproic acid or lamotrigine 2nd line - topiramate or zonisamide or levetiracetam If there is a history of GTCS valproic acid or lamotrigine
56
what is non-epileptic attack disorder?
epileptic seizures that are not caused by electrical activity in the brain
57
what are the clinical features of non-epileptic attack disorder?
most common they will mimic tonic colonic seizure the person does not usually loose consciousness but they may be unable to respond or react during the attack some may have an aura
58
what causes non-epileptic attack disorder?
it is currently believed that it is the brain's response to overwhelming stress or when the brain has overload often people with this disorder have other health problems such as chronic illness, anxiety or depression
59
how is non-epileptic attack disorder diagnosed?
EEG - measures electrical activity in the brain a raised prolactin suggests epileptic seizure
60
what is narcolepsy?
a chronic condition characterised by a disruption of the sleep-wake cycle and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep intrusion. They can not regulate wake-sleep cycles
61
what are the symptoms of narcolepsy?
excessive day time sleepiness cataplexy (sudden and transient loss of muscle tone caused by strong emotion) hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations as(as waking or as falling to sleep) sleep paralysis only 10-15% of people will have all 4 symptoms
62
what investigations would you perform for narcolepsy?
actigraphy and sleep diary overnight polysomnography mulstiple sleep latency test
63
how do you treat narcolepsy?
sleep hygiene and lifestyle changes - patients should be advised to sleep at regular times, to avoid shift work, have 15-30 min naps at lunchtime and/or afternoon patients should avoid heavy meals and afternoon caffeinated beverages and should abstain from alcohol adequate psychosocial support should be given plus - Modafinil
64
how do you treat narcolepsy with cataplexy?
1st line - avoidance of trigger plus sodium oxybate and/or antidepressants (fluoxetine, venlafaxine) 2nd line - monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
65
what is shingles?
shingles (herpes zoster) is an acute, unilateral, painful blistering caused by reactivation of the varicella zoster virus
66
what are the symptoms of shingles?
localised pain to a dermatome, the pain is burning, stinging, itching or tingling and ranges from mild to severe) - the most commonly involved ganglia are the thoracic and trigeminal nerves pruritus in the affected dermatome rash - erythematous maculopapular rash, which is followed by the appearance of clear vesicles. The vesicle eventually pustulate and form crusts if the trigeminal nerve is affected the rash may cause corneal ulceration.
67
how is shingles managed?
oral antiviral therapy (famciclovir, secondary option is aciclovir) plus simple analgesics plus calamine lotion if severe pain give opioid analgesics and topical analgesics if there is eye involvement - prompt referral to the ophthalmologist
68
what are the complications of shingles?
herpes zoster opthalmicus - if it occurs in the trigeminal nerve - the infection may cause conjunctivitis, keratitis, corneal ulceration, glaucoma and blindness. superinfection skin lesions (staph or strept) encephalitis transverse myelitis varicella zoster retinitis disseminated zoster - seen in severely immunocompromised patients, the vesicular rash involves several dermatomes and visceral involvement may also occur (IV aciclovir should be used)
69
who is the shingles vaccine given to?
offered to all patients aged 70-79 | is is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients
70
what causes wernicke-korsakoff syndrome?
caused by deficiency of thiamine
71
what is wernicke's encephalopathy?
a neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestation
72
why does thiamine deficiency cause problems?
because thiamine deficiency causes impaired glucose metabolism and decreases cellular energy the brain is vulnerable to impaired glucose metabolism this leads to neuronal death in certain neuronal populations with high metabolic requirements and high thiamine turnover.
73
what are the causes of wernicke's encephalopathy?
main cause is alcohol abuse rarer causes: persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, dietary insufficiency
74
what are the symptoms of wernicke's encephalopathy?
``` mental slowing, impaired concentration, and apathy confusion, altered GCS ataxia ophthalmoplegia nystagmus (the most common ocular sign) ```
75
what investigations should your order for wernicke's encephalopathy?
``` therapeutic trial of parenteral thiamine finger prick glucose FBC serum electrolytes renal function LFT urinary and serum drug screen serum ammonia blood alcohol level blood thiamine and metabolites ```
76
how is wernicke's encephalopathy treated?
stabilisation and IV thiamine and IV magnesium sulfate and multivitamins if there is ongoing risk of wernicke's encephalopathy - give dietary supplementation with thiamine
77
what is korsakoff's syndrome?
anterograde amnestic syndrome with disproportionate impairment of recent memory relative to other cognitive domains, accompanied sometimes with confabulation as a long term consequence of thiamine deficiency degeneration of the mammillary bodies often no complete recovery of memory deficit
78
what is Huntington's disease?
an autosomal dominant neurogenerative disorder. it is a progressive and incurable condition that typically results in death 20 years after the initial symptoms develop it is a trinucleotide repeat disorder repeat expansion of CAG which results in degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurones in the striatum of the basal ganglia
79
what are the typical features of huntington's disease?
chorea (jerky involuntary movement) personality changes (irritability, apathy, depression) and intellectual impairment dystonia saccadic eye movement loss of coordination deficit in fine motor coordination (finger tapping) impaired tandem walking
80
what investigations would you perform for huntington's?
diagnosis is clinical consider CAG repeat testing PCR Capillary or gel electrophoresis MRI or CT scan
81
how is huntington's managed?
counselling for patients and family if there is chorea - antipsychotics or benzodiazepines if there is depression - antidepressants - citalopram or fluoxetine behaviour problems and mood instability - carbamazepine or valproic acid behavioural problems where anxiety or insomnia is prominent (SSRI or benzodiazepines) anxiety without prominent behavioural problems - SSRI OCD behaviours - SSRI or antipsychotics or clomipramine or CBT If there is bradykinesia and rigidity predominant - dopamine agonists (levodopa)
82
what is parkinson's disease?
chronic progressive neurological disorder characterised by motor symptoms of resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia and postural instability.
83
what is the pathophysiology of parkinson's?
there is loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra with findings of lewy bodies in the affected neurones. loss of these neurones within the basal ganglia accounts of the constellation of motor symptoms.
84
what are the clinical features of parkinson's?
``` bradykinesia (slow movements) resting tremor - typically pill rolling rigidity - cogwheel - due to superimposed tremor postural instability - develops later shuffling gait stooped posture drooling psychiatric features impaired olfaction (smelling) ```
85
what investigations would you perform for parkinson's?
dopaminergic agent trial also consider MRI brain, functional neuroimaging, olfactory testing, genetic testing, 24 hour urine copper (wilsons disease should be excluded)
86
How is parkinson's treated?
** treatment does not stop the progression of disease just helps symptoms. if the motor symptoms are affecting the patients quality of life give levodopa other options are dopamine agonists (pramipexole or ropinirole) or monoamine oxidase B these can also be added to second line carbidopa or domperidone physical activity - improves functional performance Deep brain stimulation (only if symptoms not controlled with other drugs) this may include intermittent apomorphine injection and/or continuous SC apomorphine infusion *levodopa is usually combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor
87
what can cause parkinsonism?
``` parkinson's disease drug-induced (anti-psychotics, metoclopramide) wilson's disease post-encephalitis toxins ```
88
what is the role of the frontal lobe?
``` movement personality counting spelling decision making ```
89
what is the role of the parietal lobe ?
sensory information | allows us to locate physical location and guides movement in 3d space
90
what is the role of the temporal lobe?
hearing smell memory visual recognition of faces
91
what is the role of the occipital lobe?
processing visual information
92
what is vascular dementia?
a chronic progressive disease of the brain bringing about cognitive impairment. There is loss of brain parenchyma is predominately from cerebrovascular causes such as infarction and small-vessel changes.
93
what are the common diagnostic factors for vascular dementia?
``` history of stoke(s) difficulty solving problems apathy disinhibition slowed processing of info poor attention retrieval memory deficit frontal release reflexes ```
94
what are risk factors for vascular dementia?
age >60 obesity hypertension smoking
95
what investigations would you order for vascular dementia?
``` FBC ESR (to rule out inflam or vasculitis) blood glucose level Renal and LFT syphilis serology vitamin B12 folate thyroid function CT or MRI ECG ```
96
how would you treat vascular dementia?
atherosclerotic ischaemic disease - antiplatelet therapy (aspirin) and lifestyle modification if there is severe carotid stenosis - carotid angioplasty and stenting cardioembolic disease anticoag therapy - warfarin or rivaroxaban a
97
what is alzheimer's dementia?
chronic, progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterised by a global, non-reversible impairment in cerebral functioning deterioration occurs over 8-10 years. insidious onset and a progressive slow decline. it often co-exists with other forms of dementia
98
what are the features of alzheimer's disease?
memory decline with loss of recent memory first disorientation to time and place misplacing items/getting lost nominal dysphagia - difficulty naming objects/people apathy decline in ADL personality change unremarkable initial physical examination
99
what investigations should you order for Alzheimer disease?
``` cognitive testing (MMSE) FBC ``` rule out other causes of dementia: metabolic panel serum TSH serum vitamin B12 deficiency rule out recreational drug use - urine drug screen CT - may exclude space-occupying lesion MRI - generalized atrophy
100
what are the differentials of Alzheimer's disease?
``` delirium depression vascular dementia dementia with lewy bodies frontotemporal dementia Parkinson's disease dementia Creutzfeld-jacob disease ```
101
how is Alzheimer's treated
supportive treatment environmental control measures (home safety assessment) cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil) - the goal of this is to slow symptoms of the disease progression by preserving memory and functional abilities antidepressants and antpsychotics (risperidone) can be added
102
what is lewy body dementia?
a neurodegenerative disorder with Parkinsonism, progressive cognitive decline, prominent executive dysfunction, and visuospatial impairment the characteristic pathalogical feature is lewy-bodies in the substantia nigra, paralimbic and neocortical areas
103
what are the diagnostic features of lewy body dementia ?
cognitive fluctuations are a core feature and may include fluctuations in cognition, attention and arousal. visual hallucinations (typically present early in the disease) motor symptoms - some parkinsonian features REM sleep behavioral disturbance - vivid dreams are accompanied by the loss of associated atonia of REM sleep - patients tend to act out their dreams.
104
how is dementia with lewy bodies treated?
acute - 1st line - short acting benzodiazepines ongoing 1st line - cholinesterase inhibitors - donepezil for psychotic symptoms add atypical anti psychotic (risperidone) if depression add SSRI or benzodiazepine if sleep disturbances add clonazepam or melatonin if there are motor symptoms add carbidopa or levodopa
105
what is frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
it is the third most common type of cortical dementia
106
what are the three types of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
Picks disease progressive non fluent aphasia semantic demential
107
what are the common feature of frontotemporal lobar degeneration?
onset before 65 insidious onset relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills personality change and social conduct problems
108
what are the features of picks disease?
personality change and impaired social conduct hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite and perseveration behaviors focal gyral atrophy with a knife blade appearance is characteristic of Picks disease
109
what are the features of CPA (progressive non-fluent aphasia/chronic progressive aphasia)
the major factor is non fluent speech they make short utterances that are agrammatic comprehension is rarely preserved
110
what is semantic dementia?
Here the patient has a fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer's memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
111
what is creutzfeldt-jakob disease and what are the features?
rapidly progressive neurological condition caused by prion proteins the features are rapid onset dementia and myoclonus
112
what is hydrocephalus?
a condition where there is an accumulation of CSF within the ventricular system of the brain and is caused by an imbalance between CSF production and absorption
113
what is normal pressure hydrocephalus?
characterized by the clinical features of hydrocephalus (levodopa-unresponsive gait apraxia with or without cognitive impairment or urinary symptoms) but without significantly raised CSF pressure as measured by LP
114
what are the features of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
it is a reversible cause of dementia seen in elderly patients the classical triad of symptoms is urinary incontinence , dementia and bradyphrenia and gait abnormality (may be similar to Parkinson disease) they may develop over time they may have been diagnosed with Parkinson's - but levodopa will not improve symptoms ** this is a key to diagnosis
115
what investigations would you order for normal pressure hydrocephalus?
CT head MRI head levodopa challenge LP can also be considered- should reveal normal CSF pressure
116
what is the treatment form normal pressure hydrocephalus?
ventriculoperitoeal shunting | plus control of CV risk factors
117
what is the presentation of hydrocephalus?
usually patients present with symptoms due to raised ICP which include: headache - typically worse in the morning, when lying down and during valsalva) nausea and vomiting papiloedema coma (in severe cases)
118
what two categories can hydrocephalus be broadly divided into?
Obstructive (non-communicating) - due to structural pathology blocking the flow of CSF - causes can be tumours, acute haemorrhage (SAH or IVH) and developmental abnormalities non-obstructive - due to imbalance of CSF production and absorption - either caused by increased CSF production (e.g. choroid plexus tumour) or failure to reabsorb at the arachnoid granulations (meningitis or post-haemorrhagic)
119
what investigations would you perform for hydrocephalus?
CT head MRI LP - diagnostic and therapeutic
120
how is hydrocephalus treated?
an external ventricular drain is used in acute, severe hydrocephalus a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is a long term CSF diversion technique if obstuctive - the treatment may involve surgically treating the obstruction **LP should not be used in obstructive as it will cause herniation
121
what is a meningioma?
a primary tumour of the cranial and spinal meninges | they are predominantly benign
122
what are the features of a meningioma?
headache neurological deficit seizure
123
what investigations would you perform for a meningioma?
MRI head or spine without or with contrast | CT head or spine
124
how is a meningioma treated?
if asymptomatic - observation symptomatic at any size - surgical resection if they are older than 65 and the tumour is less than 3cm then just observation
125
what is an acoustic neuroma?
vestibular schwannoma | a benign tumour that grows from the superior vestibular component of the vestibulocochlear nerve.
126
how does an acoustic neuroma present?
asymmetrical hearing loss facial numbness progressive episodes of numbness They may also have tinnitus difficulty localising sounds
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what investigations would you order for acoustic neuroma?
audiogram gadolinium-enhanced MRI head CT head auditory brainstem reflexes
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how do your treat acoustic neuroma?
if the tumour is not growing then just observe if the tumour is growing - focused radiation or surgery
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what is a medulloblastoma?
a malignant, invasive brain tumour arising from the cerebellar vermis. the vast majority arise sporadically in the first two decades of life
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what is an astrocytoma?
it is a type of glioma (giant cell in origin)
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what are the different types of astrocytomas?
pilocytic astrocytoma - good prognosis, completely benign, mainly seen in children diffuse astrocytoma - premalignant tumour anaplastic astrocytoma - malignant glioblastoma multiforme (GMB) - most common phenotype - very malignant
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what are the clinical features of space occupying lesions in the brain?
progressive headache - worse on waking from sleep in the morning the pain is increased by coughing, straining and bending forwards it is sometimes relieved by vomiting ``` drowsiness vomiting cardinal sign is papilloedema progressive neurological deficit (depends on the area of the brain is affected seizures ```
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what are the investigations for brain tumours?
CT and MRI Bloods - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, B12 etc biopsy - skull burr-hole *** LP is contraindicated when there is any possibility of a mass lesion as it can prevent coning
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what is multiple sclerosis?
it is a chronic cell-mediated autoimmune disorder characterised by demyelination in the central nervous system
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what are the different types of multiple sclerosis?
Relapse-remitting disease - the commonest form, acute attacks followed by periods of remission. Secondary progressive disease - describes relapse and remitting patients who have deteriorated and have developed neurological signs and symptoms between relapses. Generally 65% of patients with relapse and remitting disease go on to develop secondary progressive. Gait and bladder disorders are generally seen Primary progressive - progressive deterioration from the start.
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what are the symptoms of MS?
Visual - optic neuritis: common presenting feature, optic atrophy, Uhthoff's phenomenon: worsening of vision following rise in body temperature, internuclear ophthalmoplegia Sensory - pins/needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, Lhermitte's syndrome: paresthesia in limbs on neck flexion motor: spastic weakness:most commonly seen in the legs Cerebellar: ataxia: more often seen during an acute relapse than as a presenting symptoms, tremor Others - urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, intellectual deterioration
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what investigations would you order for MS? | and what would the tests show?
MRI brain - hyperintensities in the periventricular white matter MRI spinal - demyelinating lesions in the spinal cord, particularly the cervical spinal cord FBC - should be normal Metabolic panel - should be normal TSH - should be normal Vitamins B12 - should be normal
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How would you treat an acute relapse of MS?
1st line - methylprednisolone | this will only shorted the length of acute relapse but will not alter the length of recovery
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how is ongoing relapse and remitting MS treated?
beta-interferon (it has been shown to reduce relapse rate by 30%) Life style - regular exercise programmes and good sleep hygiene if they are still complaining of fatigue - modafinil sensory symptoms - gabapentin or pregabalin Urine frequency - oxybutynin antispasticity medication - baclofen for tremor - propranolol
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how is secondary progressive MS treated?
1st line - siponimod or methylprednisolone
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what is myasthenia gravis?
Autoimmune disorder of the postsynaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle resulting in insufficient functioning acetylcholine receptors and therefore impair neuromuscular transmission . * type two hypersensitivity Is often associated with thymic hyperplasia common in woman aged 20-30 and common in men aged 60-70 often associated with RA and SLE
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what are the clinical features of myasthenia gravis?
the key feature is muscle fatigability which become progressively worse on sustain or repeated activity and improve after rest. Extraocular muscles - ptosis and double vision(drooping eyelids and double vision) * pupils are spared. Dysphagia (difficulting chewing or swallowing) Dysarthria - changes to speech facial paresis- changes in expression - flattened or transverse smile proximal limb weakness - difficulty climbing upstairs. there will be no evidence of muscle waisting.
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what investigations would you perform fo MG?
serum acetylcholine receptor antibody analysis also MuSK and LRP4 antibodies Muscle specific tyrosine fucntion tests serial pulmonary function tests: MG crisis - low FVC and NIF CT/MRI - to look for thymoma single fibre electromyography
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what is the management of MG?
long acting anticholinesterase inhibitors - pyridostigmine Add prednisolone if needed thymectomy Immunosuppressants: Azathioprine usually offered first-line. Inhibits purine synthesis
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what is the management of severe MG or acute crisis MG?
intubation and mechanical ventilation plasmapheresis prednisolone can be added.
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what are some exacerbating factors of MG?
``` the most common factor is exertion drugs which may exacerbate are: penicillamine quinidine, procainamide beta-blockers lithium phenytoin antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracycline ```
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what is guillain-Barre syndrome?
immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection
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what are the common infections that can lead to GBS?
``` cytomegalovirus Epstein barr virus hepB, C or HIV campylobacter jejuni Mycoplasma species mycoplasma pneumomiae ```
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what are the clinical features of GBS ?
progressive onset of limb weakness - usually symmetrical it affects the lower extremities before upper and proximal before distal muscle usually at its worst by 4 weeks reflexes lost early on often sensory symptoms (paraesthesia in the hands and feet) Mild to severe involvement of respiratory and facial muscles back and leg pain bulbar dysfunction causing oropharyngeal weakness extraocular muscle weakness there may be autonomic involvement - urinary retention, diarrhoea
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if proximal muscle weakness evolves for >4 to 8 weeks was would you suspect rather than GBS?
chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy
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what investigations would you perform if you suspected GBS?
nerve conduction studies - will show slowing of nerve conduction Lumbar puncture - will show increased CSF protein, and usually normal WBC LFTs - elevated AST and ALT Spirometry antiganglioside antibody
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what is Miller Fisher syndrome ?
variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome associated with ophthalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia. The eye muscles are typically affected first usually presents as a descending paralysis rather than ascending as seen in other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases
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how do you treat GBS?
IVIG plasmapheresis if decreased VC - then ventilation
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what is motor neurone disease?
cluster of major degenerative diseases - causes loss of motor neurones UMN and LMN are affected - but no sensory or autonomic disturbances.
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what are the four different types of MND?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (50% of patients) Primary lateral sclerosis Progressive muscular atrophy progressive bulbar palsy
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what are the features of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
combination of UMN and LMN findings. typical UMN findings: loss of coordination, spasticity, muscle spasms and hyper-reflexia. spastic unsteady gait LMN findings: weakness with atrophy and fasciculations foot drop increased lumbar lordosis dyspnoea or orthopnoea from progressive diaphragmatic weakness *genetic Limb onset ALS Bulbar onset ALS respiratory onset ALS eventually death usually due to resp failure survival is usually 3-5 years but can be up to 10 years.
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what investigations would you perform for MND?
mainly clinical diagnosis ``` but rule out other diseases EMG repetitive nerve stimulation MRI brain and spine vitamin b12 HIV test genetic testing ```
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what is the criteria for ALS?
El Escorial criteria Clinically definite ALS - evidence for UMN and LMN in 3 segments of neuroaxis Clinically probable ALS: evidence of UMN and LMN signs in at least 2 segments of neuroaxis
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what are the features of primary lateral sclerosis?
it is an isolated UMN disorder, characterised by progressive weakness with associated spasticity median survival 56 months
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what are the features of progressive muscular atrophy?
LMN signs only characterised by progressive weakness, atrophy and fasciculations
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what are the features of progressive bulbar palsy?
palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei carries worst prognosis
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how is MND managed?
``` Riluzole Ventilation support Baclofen or tizanidine for spasticity antidepressants amitriptyline for drooling ```
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what is Cerebral palsy?
an umbrella term referring to a non-progressive disease of the brain originating during antenatal, neonatal or early postnatal period when brain neuronal connections are still evolving all patients present with motor impairment
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what are some causes of cerebral palsy?
antenatal (80%) - cerebral malformation and congenital infection (rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV) intrapartum - (10%) birth asphyxia/trauma postnatal (10%) - intraventricular haemorrhage, meningitis, head trauma
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what are the features and diagnostic factors of cerebral palsy?
``` Delay in motor development - delayed motor milestones Delay in speech development delay in cognitive/intellectual development Retention of primitive reflexes lack of age appropriate reflexes spasticity/clonus (80% ) toe walking scissor gait knee hyperextension crouched gain contratures ```
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what are the different classifications of cerebral palsy?
Spastic: 70% - lesion in UMN Dyskinetic - damage to basal ganglia (dystonia and chorea Ataxic - damage to cerebellum - shaky and uncoordinated Mixed
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what investigations would you perform for cerebral palsy?
MRI brain
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how is cerebral palsy managed?
MDT approach OT/physio/speech therapy Orthoses - bracing or splinting treatment for spasticity - botulinum toxin type a injection Bracing or casting or if needed orthopaedic surgery if required. If dystonia - levodopa
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what conditions is cerebral palsy often associated with?
learning difficulties epilepsy squints hearing impairment
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what is neurofibromatosis?
a genetic disorder that causes tumours to form on nerve tissue.
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what is neurofibromatosis type 1?
An AD genetic disorder, chromosome 17 which encodes neurofibromin.
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what are the clinical features of neurofibromatosis type 1?
cafe au lait spots multiple neurofibromas iris Lisch nodules axillary freckling unilateral diffuse plexiform neurofibroma divisions of the trigeminal nerve (3-5% of patients) they often have pain neurological deficit compromised vision
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what investigations would you perform for neurofibromatosis type 1?
MRI and or CT PET scan biopsy genetic testing
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how is neurofibromatosis treated?
surveillance and surgical removal
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what are the clinical features of neurofibromatosis type 2?
Gene mutation on chromosome 22 bilateral vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuroma) multiple intracranial schwannomas meningiomas and ependymomas
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what are the different types of meningitis and the common causes of them?
``` Viral (common but self limiting)- enterovirus, mumps HSV bacterial (rare but serious) - streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae type B, and neisseria meningitidis Fungal meningitis (progressive and life threatening) - cryptococcus species. ```
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what are the symptoms of viral meningitis?
``` headache nausea and vomiting photophobia neck stiffness fever ```
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how is confirmed viral meningitis treated?
HSV or varicella zoster - antiviral - aciclovir If CMV confirmed - ganciclovir any other causes - supportive care
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what are the features of fungal meningitis?
``` progressive headache severe headache - due to raised ICP nuchal rigidity photophobia symptoms of hydrocephalus reduced visual acuity and papilloedema - signs of raised ICP ```
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what are the common features of bacterial meningitis?
``` headache neck stiffness fever altered mental status confusion photophobia vomiting seizures ``` in infants: - hypothermia - irritability - poor feeding - apnoea
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how is bacterial meningitis treated?
less than one month - cefotaxime and ampicillin 1 month to 50 years - cefotaxime OR vancomycin and ceftriaxone also add dexamethasone older than 50 -ampicillin and vancomycin and cefotaxime and add dexamethasone confirmed meningococcal meningitis - benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime Pneumococcal meningitis - cefotaxime haemophilus influenzae meningitis - cefotaxime Listeria meningitis - amoxicillin and gentamicin IV dexamethasone should be given to reduce risk of neurological sequelae
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who is prophylaxis for meningitis? and what prophylaxis is offered?
household and close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis. given if they have had contact within 7 days before the onset oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin
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what are the investigations for meningitis
``` FBC CRP CSF - protein, glucose, culture, gram stain coagulation screen blood culture whole blood PCR blood glucose blood gas CT head ```
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what would the CSF show for different types of meningitis?
Bacterial Cloudy appearance, low glucose, high protein, high polymorphs (neutrophils) Viral clear/clowdy appearance, glucose level may be low, protein is normal or elevated TB slightly cloudy, fibrin web , low glucose, high protein, high WCC
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what is encephalitis?
inflammation of the brain parenchyma, cerebral function is usually abnormal with altered mental status and motor and sensory deficit
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what is encephalopathy?
defined by a disruption of brain function without inflammation process in the brain (metabolic disturbances, hypoxia, drug)
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what are the clinical features of encephalitis?
fever headache seizures focal features - aphasia, hemianopia, hemiparesis, brisk tendon reflexes altered mental state some patients will have evidence of meningeal inflam with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.
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what are the causes of encephalitis ?
HSV-1 responsible for 95% of cases - typically affects temporal and inferior frontal lobes others include: enteroviruses, coxsackie virus neisseria meningitides, TB, syphilis, listeria, measles, toga virus
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what investigations would you perform for encephalitis?
``` FBC peripheral blood smear serum electrolytes LFTs throat swab blood cultures sputum culture CT brain MRI brain EG CSF analysis, culture, serology and PCR for HSV ```
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how do you treat encephalitis?
viral aetiology - aciclovir may add ganciclovir
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what is a squint?
Squint (strabismus) is characterised by misalignment of the visual axes. Squints may be divided into concomitant (common) and paralytic (rare)
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what are the two types of squint?
concomitant - due to imbalance in extraocular muscle. Convergent is more common than divergent. Paralytic - due to paralysis of extraocular muscles
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what are the causes of squints?
concominat squints seems to be a complex genetic trait with the involvement of more than one gene paralytic - related to malfunction of one or more of the 3 cranial nerves - oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens. restrictive strabismus - graves disease and orbital fractured sensory strabismus - reduced visual acuity in one eye
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what are the different directions of squints?
Horizontal - esotropia (inwards, if nerve related would be abducens), exotropia (outward, if related to nerve would be oculomotor) Vertical - hypertropia (upwards cranial nerve 4 - trochlear) , hypotropia (downwards, oculomotor)
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how would you diagnose a squint?
``` cover test ask the child to focus on a object cover one eye observe movement of uncovered eye cover other eye and repeat test ```
196
how is a squint managed?
correct visual acuity eye patches to prevent amblyopia extraocular muscle surgery
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what are the features of horner's syndrome?
miosis (small pupil) ptosis enophthalmos (sunken eye) anhidrosis (loss of sweating one one side)
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what is seen in congenital horners syndrome?
differences in iris colour
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what are the different lesions and where would they cause anhidrosis in horner's syndrome?
central lesions (stoke, MS, tumour, encephalitis) - anhidrosis of the face, arm and trunk preganglionic lesions (pancoast's tumour, thyroidectomy, trauma) - Anhidrosis of the face Post ganglionic lesions - no anhidrosis (carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, cluster headache)
200
what is bells palsy?
acute, unilateral, idiopathic facial nerve paralysis. | probable viral aetiology - HSV
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what are the features of Bell's palsy?
LMN facial nerve palsy - forehead will be affected usually a single episode almost always unilateral - bilateral would suggest lyme disease, GBS, sarcoidosis etc... absence of other symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, rash etc dry eyes post auricular pain they may have altered taste
202
what is the management of Bells' palsy?
prednisolone eye care is important - artificial tears for severe presentation antiviral therapy can be given
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what is trigeminal neuralgia?
chronic, debilitating condition resulting in intense and extreme episodes of pain Compression of the trigeminal nerve results in demyelination and excitation of the nerve resulting in erratic pain signalling
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what are the sensory and motor functions of the trigeminal nerve?
the sensory portion of the nerve supplies sensation to the face and scalp through 3 divisions (ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular) the motor roots travel with the mandibular division and supply the muscle of mastication
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when is it common for trigeminal neuralgia to present?
peak incidence is between 50-60 years more common in females than males almost always unilateral
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what causes trigeminal neuralgia?
in most cases it is due to compression of the trigeminal nerve by a loop of vein or artery can also be due to local pathology such as aneurysms, meningeal inflammation, tumours (vestibular schwannoma) - local pathology is more common in younger people as a cause of compression may also be due to fifth nerve lesion due to pathology in the brainstem (tumour, MS, infarction), in the cerebellopontine angle (acoustic neuroma, other tumour), within the petrous bone (spreading middle ear infection), within the cavernous sinus)
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what are the risk factors for trigeminal neuralgia?
hypertension is the main risk factor triggers: washing affected area, shaving, eating, talking and dental prostheses
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what is the presentation of trigeminal neuralgia?
it is almost always unilateral at least 3 attacks of unilateral facial pain facial pain occurs in one or more distributions of the trigeminal nerve with no radiation beyond the trigeminal distribution the pain has at least 3 of the following: - reoccurring in paroxysmal attacks from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes - severe intensity - electric shock like, shooting, stabbing or knife like - precipitated by innocuous (non-harmful) stimuli by the affected side - washing or shaving
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what are the DD for trigeminal neuralgia?
giant cell arteritis/ temporal arteritis should be excluded | dental pathology, temporomandibular joint dysfunction, migraine
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how is trigeminal neuralgia diagnosed?
mainly a clinical diagnosis - at least 3 attacks with unilateral facial pain MRI to exclude other causes or pathologies
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how is trigeminal neuralgia managed?
Typical analgesics and opioids DO NOT WORK Anticonvulsants e.g. oral carbamazepine supress attacks in most patients other less effective options include oral phenytoin, gabapentin and lamotrigine may spontaneously remit after 6-12 month if drugs fail then surgery may be needed - microvascular decompensation - gamma knife surgery
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parkinson plus syndromes
Multi-system atrophy (MSA) MSA is an adult-onset, rapidly progressive disease that is characterised by profound autonomic dysfunction leading to severe postural hypotension, urogenital dysfunction and a plethora of other features including cerebellar and corticospinal features. There is a poor response to treatment. Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP) PSP is a neurodegenerative disorder that typically begins at age 50-60 years and is characterised by vertical gaze dysfunction, dysarthria and cognitive decline. Tremor is rare in this condition. Dementia with Lewy-body (DLB) DLB is characterised by early onset dementia (< 1 year) with features of parkinsonism. Dementia is usually the proceeding feature prior to motor symptoms and it is characterised by visual hallucination and fluctuating consciousness ``` Corticobasal degeneration (CBD) CBD is a neurodegenerative disorder that is characterised by a progressive dementia, parkinsonism and limb apraxia. Apraxia refers to problems with motor planning (i.e. unable to wave hello). ``` In severe cases CBD may be associated with alien limb syndrome when there is a feeling that the limb is acting on its own.