gynaecology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the risk factors for urinary incontinence?

A
advancing age 
previous pregnancy and childbirth 
high BMI
hysterectomy 
family history
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2
Q

what are the different types of urinary incontinence?

A

overactive bladder (urge incontinence: due to detrusor over activity
stress incontinence: leaking small amounts when coughing or laughing
mixed incontinence - both urge and stress
overflow incontinence - due to bladder outlet obstruction e.g. prostate enlargement

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3
Q

what investigations would you perform for urinary incontinence?

A

bladder diaries should be completed for a minimum of three days

empty supine stress test 
urinalysis 
post-void residual measurement 
cough stress test 
urodynamic testing 
vaginal exam to exclude organ prolapse
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4
Q

how is urge incontinence managed?

A

1st line is behavioural approach plus lifestyle changes (bladder training and pelvic floor exercises, plus weigh loss, caffeine reduction, fluid management, smoking cessation)
2nd line -antimuscarinincs oxybutynin (immediate release), tolterodine (immediate release). oxybutynin should be avoided in frail old women.
mirabegron may be useful in frail older patients

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5
Q

how is stress incontinence managed?

A

1st line - pelvic floor exercises, vaginal device, lifestyle changes - weight loss, caffine reduction, fluid management

if there is urethral sphincter insufficiency - pseudoephdrine or duloxetine

surgical procedures may be required
retropubic suspension
retropubic colposuspension (burch colposuspension)
mid-urethral sling

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6
Q

What are the types of urogenital prolapse?

A

cystocele, cystourethrocele
rectocele
uterine prolapse

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7
Q

what are the risk factors for urogenital prolapse?

A
increasing age
multiparity
vaginal deliveries 
obesity 
spina bifida
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8
Q

how do prolapses present?

A

sensation of pressure, heaviness, bearing down
urinary sypmtoms - incontinence, frequency, urgency
consipation
sexual dysfunction
lower back pain

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9
Q

how are prolapses managed?

A

if asymptomatic
observation and pelvic floor exercises and weight loss
the use of a pessary
vaginal wall repair

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10
Q

what are the different types of pessaries used for prolapse?

A

Ring - usually first line, but requires intact perineal body for retention
shelf - used when ring pessary not retained

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11
Q

What are uterine fibroids?

A

they are also known as leiomyomata
Fibroids are benign smooth muscle tumours of the uterus,

smooth muscle and fibrous elements are present

*the growth is oestrogen and progesterone dependant

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12
Q

what are the different types of uterine fibroids?

A

intramural (confined to the myometrium)
subserosal (located just under the uterine serosal (outer surface) and can distort the outer surface of the uterus)
pedunculated (on a stalk)
submucosal (develops immediately underneath the endometrium and protrudes into the uterine cavity

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13
Q

what are the risk factors for fibroids?

A
obestiy 
early menarche 
increasing age 
fam history 
ethnicity
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14
Q

what are the symptoms of fibroids?

A

many patients will be asymptomatic
symptoms are more related to the site rather than the size
submucosal will cause abnormal menstrual bleeding whereas subserosal is more likely to be asymptomatic

The main presentation is menorrhagia
Pain - dysmenorrhoea  
there may be pressure symptoms - urinary frequency and retention
Fertility can be impaired
a solid pelvic mass may be palpable
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15
Q

what are the problems of fibroids with pregnancy?

A
premature labour 
malpresentation 
transverse lie 
obstructed labour
postpartum haemorrhage
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16
Q

what investigations would you perform for fibroids?

A

USS - transvaginal
endometrial biopsy

you could also consider:
MRI
hysteroscopy
laparoscopy

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17
Q

how would you manage fibroids?

A

levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system
other options:
OCP
tranexamic acid
GnRH agonist - may reduce the size of fibroid - good for short term management

OR
myomectomy

If fertility preservation is not required…
uterine artery embolisation
hysterectomy

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18
Q

What are the different types of functional ovarian cysts?

A

Follicular cysts (most common, due to non-rupture of the dominant follicle, they commonly regress after several menstrual cycles). Usually not bigger than 3cm

Corpus luteum cyst - occurs when the corpus luteum does not break down in the absence of pregnancy. Usually less than 5cm

Theca-lutein cysts - in response to hCG - only occur during pregnancy.

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19
Q

what are benign germ cell tumours?

A

dermoid cysts
also called mature cystic teratomas
they are usually line with epithelial tissue and hence may contain skin appendages, hair and teeth

torsion is more common than with other types of tumour?

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20
Q

what are the classifications of cysts?

A

Physiological: occur as an exaggerated response to normal physiological processed; follicular, endometriotic, corpus luteum and theca lutein cysts

Infectious: and abscess or cystic collection of cellular debris

Benign neoplastic: excessive growth of normal ovarian tissue types without dysplasia - serous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenoma, adenofibroma, fibroma, dermoid cyst and brenner’s tumour.

Malignant neoplastic: serous cystadenocarcinoma, endometrioid carcinoma and immature teratoma

Metastatic: invasion and growth of neoplastic tissue from another malignant source, most commonly ovarian, endometrial, colonic or gastric cancers.

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21
Q

what is an endometrioma?

A

a pathological cyst - also called chocolate cysts and are present in the ovaries of people with endometriosis.
There is bleeding into the cyst which gives the appearance

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22
Q

what is the presentation of ovarian cysts?

A

chronic pain
pressure symptoms (bowel/bladder frequency and constipation)
acute pain - rupture or bleeding into a cyst
bloating and early satiety

Ovarian cancer presentation is vague and delayed

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23
Q

what are the complications of ovarian cysts?

A

rupture into the peritoneal cavity causes intense pain particularly with and endometrioma or a dermoid

Haemorrhage into a cyst or peritoneal cavity causes pain

peritoneal cavity haemorrhage is occasionally severe enough to cause hypovolaemic shock

torsion of the pedicle causes infarction of the ovary and tube and causes severe pain

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24
Q

what investigations would you perform for ovarian cysts ?

A

transvaginal USS

CA125

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25
Q

how are ovarian cysts managed?

A

if the patient is acutely ill - laparoscopy or laparotomy

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26
Q

what is an enterocele?

A

prolapse of the upper posterior wall of the vagina. The resulting puch usually contains a loop of small bowel

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27
Q

what are the different degrees of prolapse?

A

first degree - the lowest part of the prolapse descends half way down the vaginal axis to the introitus

second degree - the lowest part of the prolapse extends to the level of the hyman and through the hyman on straining

third degree - the lowest part of the prolapse extends through the hymen and lie outside the vagina

fourth degree - complete prolapse - no support visible

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28
Q

what are the surgical options for prolapse?

A

uterine prolapse - vaginal hysterectomy, hysteropexy
vaginal vault prolapse - sacrocolpopexy, sacrospinous fixation
vaginal wall prolapse - anterior and posterior repairs

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29
Q

what is ovarian torsion?

A

A twisting of the ovary and/or fallopian tube on its vascular and ligamentous supports, blocking adequate blood flow to the ovary

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30
Q

what can cause ovarian torsion?

A

underlying anatomical abnormalities
cysts and neoplasms account for 90% of all cases and . the rest occur in normal appearing ovaries
the larger the ovary the more chance there is of torsion
also long fallopian tubes
sudden increase in abdominal pressure

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31
Q

what are the signs of ovarian torsion

A

usually sudden onset of deep colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress
abdominal and pelvic tenderness
palpable adnexal mass

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32
Q

what investigations would you perform for ovarian torsion?

A

FBC - leukocytosis may increase the suspicion of torsion however it is not always seen
pregnancy test
transvaginal USS - enlarged ovary; soli, cystic or complex adnexal mass; diminished or absent blood flow to the ovary
abdominal USS
urinalysis
surgical visualization - confirms diagnosis

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33
Q

what are the differentials for ovarian torsion?

A
ectopic pregnancy 
PID
appendicitis 
endometriosis 
UTI 
ovarian cyst
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34
Q

how is ovarian torsion managed?

A

1st line - surgical detorsion

2nd line - salpingo-oophorectomy

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35
Q

what are the different types of germ cell tumours?

A

teratoma
dysgerminoma
yolk sac tumour
choriocarcinoma

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36
Q

what are the different types of sex cord-stomal tumours?

A

granulose cell tumour (malignant - produces oestrogen leading to precocious puberty in children or endometrial hyperplasia in adults)

Sertoli-leydig cell tumour (benign, produces androgens - masculinising effects

Fibroma (benign) tyically occurs around the menopause - classically causing a pulling sensation

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37
Q

what is a kurkenberg tumour?

A

Metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour resulting in a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma

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38
Q

what is Lichen sclerosus?

A

an chronic inflammatory skin disease of the anogenital area in women - usually in the elderly
the vulval epithelium is thin with a loss of collagen

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39
Q

what are the clinical features of lichen sclerosus?

A

white atrophic patches on the skin, usually within the anogenital region
most common symptom is itching and the skin may undergo fissuring or erosions which causes pain
sexually active women often experience dyspareunia
some patients are asymptomatic
inflammatory adhesions can form and potentially cause fusion of the labia
vulval carcinoma can develop in 5% of cases. 1

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40
Q

how is lichen sclerosus managed?

A

first line - topical steroids e.g. clobetasol

if severe - immunosuppression

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41
Q

when may patients with lichen sclerosus need a biopsy?

A

if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change
if disease fails to respond to adequate treatment
if there is extragenital LS, with features suggesting an overlap with morphoea
if there are pigmented areas, in order to exclude an abnormal melanocytic proliferation

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42
Q

what is the most common type of ovarian cancer?

A

epithelial carcinoma - 95%

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43
Q

if a women under the age of 30 is affected by ovarian cancer what is the likely type of cancer?

A

germ cell tumour

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44
Q

what are some risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

family history of the BRCA1 or BRCA 2 gene
many ovulations: early menarche, late menopause, null parity

**pregnancy, lactation and the use of OCP are protective

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45
Q

what are the clinical features of ovarian cancer?

A

** silent nature means it presents v late on
70% of patients present with stage 3-4

persistent abdominal distension and bloating, feeling full, LOA, pelvic/abdo pain, urinary symptoms (urgency and frequency)
symptoms similar to IBS
there may be a palpable abdominal mass

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46
Q

is there screening for ovarian cancer?

A

no screening for the general population only for high risk patients (fam history of ovarian and/or breast cancer)

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47
Q

what is the staging of ovarian cancer?

A

stage 1 - disease macroscopically confined to ovaries
1a - one ovary affected - capsule intact
1b - both ovaries affected- capsule intact
1c - 1a or 1b with tumour on the surface, ruptured capsule, cytologically positive ascites, or positive peritoneal washings

stage 2 - disease extends to the pelvis - e.g. uterus, fallopian tubes or other pelvic tissue

stage 3 - abdominal disease and/or effected lymph nodes

stage 4 - disease beyond the abdomen

the degree of differentiation or grade is also reported

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48
Q

what investigations would you perform for ovarian cancer?

A

CA125 should be measured in woman over 50 with any abdominal symptoms

If CA125 is raised above 35 IU/mL then urgent USS of abdo and pelvis should be ordered.

USS

in women under 40 AFP and hCG should be measured as these are indicative of germ cell tumours

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49
Q

how is ovarian cancer managed?

A

usually surgery and platinum based chemo (carboplatin)

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50
Q

what are the different types of cervical cancer?

A

70-80% are squamous cell carcinomas
15% adenocarcinoma (worse prognosis)
15% mixed in type

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51
Q

what happens before cervical cancer develops?

A

cervical cancer usually develops as a progression from cervical intraepithelial neoplasia which occurs over the course of 10-20 years - sometimes this does regress and does not form cancer

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52
Q

what are some risk factors for cervical cancer?

A
HPV infection
smoking 
STIs 
>8 years of OCP use 
immunodeficiency e.g. HIV
early onset of sexual activity 
multiple sexual partners
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53
Q

what are the features of cervical cancer?

A
may be asymptomatic
abnormal vaginal bleeding (post coital, intermenstrual or post-menopausal)
vaginal discharge (blood stained or foul smelling)
many cases detected through routine screening
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54
Q

what is the most important causative factor for the development of cervical cancer?

A

Human papillomavirus HPV

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55
Q

what stereotypes of the HPV are the most important in the development of cervical cancer?

A

16
18
33

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56
Q

what forms of HPV are responsible for genital warts?

A

6

11

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57
Q

what can endocervical cells infected with HPV develop into?

A

Koilocytes

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58
Q

what are the characteristics of koilocytes?

A

enlarged nucleus
irregular nuclear membrane contour
the nucleus stains darker than normal (hyperchromasia)
a perinuclear halo may be seen

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59
Q

who is screened for cervical cancer and how often?

A

25-49 - 3 yearly screening

50-64 - 5 yearly screening

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60
Q

how is the cervical cancer screened?

A

Papanicolaou (Pap) smears

or liquid based cytology

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61
Q

what investigations would you perform for cervical cancer?

A

vaginal or speculum examination
colposcopy
biopsy
HPV testing

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62
Q

what are the different abnormal cervical smear results?

A

Borderline or Mild dyskaryosis - The original sample is tested for HPV*
if negative the patient goes back to routine recall
if positive the patient is referred for colposcopy

Moderate dyskaryosis - consistent with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2, Severe dyskaryosis - consistent with CIN 3, suspected invasive cancer: refer for urgent colposcopy

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63
Q

what is the management of cervical cancer?

A

stage 1a - micro invasive disease - cone biopsy
if greater than 2cm - radical hysterectomy and lymphadenectomy
if fertility is desired then a radical trachelectomy can be performed.

Radiotherapy and chemo can be added.
chemo - often cisplatin based before or after surgery

64
Q

who is the HPV vaccine being offered to? and what forms of HPV does it protect against?

A

all 12- and 13-year-olds (girls AND boys) in school Year 8 will be offered the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

it protects against 6, 11, 16 and 18.

65
Q

what are the three types of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Pre invasive disease
CIN1: low grade lesion with mildly atypical cellular change in the lower third of the epithelium
CIN 2: high grade lesion with moderately atypical cellular changes confined to basal two thirds of the epithelium
CIN 3: severely atypical cellular changes encompassing greater than two thirds of epithelial thickness and includes full thickness lessons

66
Q

who is the HPV vaccine being offered to? and what forms of HPV does it protect against?

A

all 12- and 13-year-olds (girls AND boys) in school Year 8 will be offered the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine.

it protects against 6,11, 16 and 18.

67
Q

what are the risk factors for endometrial cancer?

A
obesity 
nulliparity
early menarche 
late menopause 
unopposed oestrogen 
DM 
tamoxifen 
PCOS 
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal carcinoma  (lynch syndrome)
68
Q

what factors reduce the risk of endometrial cancer?

A

hormonal contraceptives
being older at the time you give birth
breastfeeding

69
Q

what are the clinical features of endometrial cancer?

A

post menopausal bleeding
premenopausal women may have change in intermenstrual bleeding
pain and discharge are unusual features

associated with obesity - obesity is also associated with a worse outcome

70
Q

what are the two types of endometrial cancer?

A

type 1 - majority - low grade endometrial cancers which are oestrogen sensitive

type 2 - high grade more aggressive and are not sensitive to oestrogen and tend not to be related to obesity

71
Q

what investigations would you perform for endometrial cancer?

A

pelvic transvaginal USS - endometrial thickness greater than 3mm and a stripe appearance
endometrial biopsy - will show adenocarcinoma
hysteroscopy
pap smear
FBC

72
Q

what is the basic staging of endometrial cancer?

A

stage 1 - lesions confined to the uterus (1a/b to do with the degree of myometrial invasion)

stage 2 - carcinoma may extend to cervical stroma but not beyond the uterus

Stage 3 - tumour invades through uterus but stays within pelvis

stage 4 - further spead (a-bowel/bladder, b- distant metastasis)

73
Q

how is endometrial hyperplasia managed?

A

non-malignant simple or complex hyperplasia can be treated with progesterone
atypical hyperplasia should be treated with total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.

74
Q

how is endometrial cancer treated?

A

localised disease is treated with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Patients with high-risk disease may have post-operative radiotherapy
progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women not consider suitable for surgery

75
Q

what is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

premalignant disease of the vulva

it is the presence of atypical cells in the vulval epithelium

76
Q

what are the risk factors for vulval carcinoma?

A
age over 65
HPV infection 
vulval intraepithelial neoplasia 
immunosuppression 
Lichen sclerosus
77
Q

what is vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

premalignant disease of the vulva

78
Q

what are the two types of vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

usual type - most common, can be warty, basaloid or mixed and is more common in women aged 35-55. It is associated with HPV

differential type - rarer, can be associated with lichen sclerosis and is seen in older women. the lesions are uni-focal in the form of an ulcer or plaque and is linked to keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. The risk of progression to cancer is higher than with other types

79
Q

what are the symptoms and treatment for vulval intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

pruritus and pain are common with VIN
emollients and topical steroids may help but the gold standard is local surgical excision to relieve symptoms, confirm histology and exclude invasive disease.

80
Q

what are the clinical features of carcinoma of the vulva?

A

pruritus, bleeding or discharge and may find a mass.

examination will reveal an ulcer or mass most commonly on the labia majora or clitoris.
The inguinal lymph nodes may be enlarged, hard and immobile.

81
Q

what is the most common type of vaginal cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

82
Q

how does vaginal cancer present?

A

bleeding or discharge

mass or ulcer is evident

83
Q

what is clear cell carcinoma of the vagina?

A

most of them are a rare complication affecting daughters of women prescribed DES during pregnancy to try and prevent miscarriage.

84
Q

what is endometriosis?

A

the growth of ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity

85
Q

what are the most common sites of endometriosis?

A

pelvic peritoneum and the ovaries.

86
Q

what are the clinical features of endometriosis?

A
sometimes asymptomatic 
dysmenorrhea
chronic or cyclical pelvic pain 
dyspareunia 
subfertility 
pain on passing stools during menses
87
Q

what investigations would you perform for endometriosis?

A

transvaginal USS
diagnostic laparoscopy

maybe consider MRI

88
Q

how is endometriosis managed?

A

analgesia - NSAIDs or paracetamol
combined OCP
progestogen (IM, intrauterine device or tablet)

2nd line GnRH analogues +/- HRT - acts by inducing a pre-menopausal state

Surgical if symptoms seriously - laser ablation, laparoscopic excision

if very serious - hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

89
Q

what is adenomyosis?

A

the presence of functional endometrial tissue within the myometrium of the uterus

90
Q

what are the clinical features of adenomyosis?

A
my be asymptomatic 
menorrhagia
dysmenorrhoea
deep dyspareunia 
uterus may be enlarged and tender
91
Q

what investigations would you perform for adenomyosis?

A

Transvaginal USS

MRI - it can be seen clearly on MRI

92
Q

how is adenomyosis managed?

A
main aim is symptom control 
only cure is hysterectomy 
NSAIDs
GnRH agonists 
uterine artery embolisation
93
Q

what is dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

abnormal uterine bleed in the absence of structural or organic disease

94
Q

what are some causes of dysfunctional menstrual bleeding?

A
low oestrogen levels 
stress 
obesity 
anorexia 
exercise 
hormone imbalance 
drugs
95
Q

what investigations would you do for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

routine investigations (history and exam, pregnancy test, pap smear and culture, blood)
biopsy
hysteroscopy
transvaginal USS

96
Q

what is the treatment for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

tranexamic acid
NSAID
IUS
OCP

endometiral ablation
hysterectomy

97
Q

what is menorrhagia?

A

excessive menstrual blood loss that interferes with the woman’s physical, emotional, social and material quality of life

98
Q

what are some causes of menorrhagia?

A

in many women there is not pathology it can be attributed to

it may be a result from subtle abnormalities of endometrial homeostasis or uterine prostaglandin levels
uterine fibroids and polyps are the most common pathology found
chronic pelvic infection, ovarian tumours
endometrial and cervical malignancies
thyroid disease

99
Q

what investigations would you perform for menorrhagia?

A
check the patients Hb
coagulation screen and test for VWD
TFT
transvaginal USS
endometrial biopsy
100
Q

how would you manage menorrhagia?

A

if they dont need contraception use tranexamic acid ir NSAIDs

if they need contraception
1st line - IUS
2nd line - COCP
3rd line - long-acting progestogens (depo)

surgical - polyp removal, endometrial ablation, resection of fibroid , hysterectomy, uterine artery embolization

101
Q

what is dysmenorrhoea?

A

painful menstruation due to contraction and uterine ischaemia

102
Q

what is primary and secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

primary - menstrual pain occurring with no underlying pelvic pathology

secondary - menstrual pain that occurs with an associated pelvic pathology

103
Q

what causes primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

excessive release of prostaglandins by endometrial cells

104
Q

what are the clinical features of dysmenorrhoea?

A

lower abdominal pain or pelvic pain which can radiate to lower back or anterior thigh
pain usually crampy in nature and lasts 48-72 hours
pain can be associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and dizziness
uterine tenderness may be present

105
Q

what investigations would you perform for dysmenorrhoea?

A

rule out any underlying pathology
if risk of STI - high vaginal swab and endocervical swab
if there is a pelvic mass palpated a transvaginal USS should be performed.

106
Q

how do you manage primary dysmenorrhoea?

A

the aim is symptomatic improvement
lifestyle changes - stop smoking
NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen, mefenamic acid - they work by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins)
hormonal contraception - OCP or IUS

107
Q

what are some causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A
endometriosis 
fibroids 
PID 
adenomyosis 
IUD
cervical stenosis
108
Q

what is the normal age of puberty in females?

A

8-14 years

109
Q

what is the first sign of puberty in girls?

A

the beginning of breast development (thelarche), the formation of the breast buds signifies the onset of thelarche

110
Q

what is the second stage of puberty in girls?

A

pubarche - typically growth of hair in the pubic area, approx 2 years after pubarche, hair begins to grown in the axillary area as well.

111
Q

what is the menopause?

A

a physiological process which begins at around the age of 40 and progress until the final merach =e and the end of fertility - mean age is 51.

the definition of menopause is the cessation of menses for at least 12 consecutive months, without some other reason for amenorrhoea.

112
Q

what are the hormonal changes during the menopause?

A

reduction in circulating oestrogen due to reduced sensitivity of the ovary to circulating gonadotropins FSH and LH due to the reduction in follicle numbers
levels of FSH and LH significantly rise due to low oestrogen

113
Q

what are the symptoms experienced in menopause?

A

Hot flushes
atrophy of the vagina and thinning of the myometrium
vaginal thinning and dryness which can cause dyspareunia
oestrogen protects bone mass and density by reducing activity of osteoclasts - increased risk of fractures
IHD - oestrogen protects against heart disease
night sweats
mood changes
mild memory impairment

114
Q

what investigations can be used to confirm menopause?

A

pregnancy test

FSH for women under 40 (will be elevated)

115
Q

how is symptomatic menopause managed?

A

1st line - lifestyle changes
- regular exercise, weight loss and reduce stress, good sleep hygiene

2nd line - for those who can not manage their symptoms -
HRT for up to 5 years- oestrogen should be combined with progesterone in women who have not had a hysterectomy

3rd line - for night sweats and hot flushes - SSRI (venlafaxine) or clonidine

for urogenital symptoms - vaginal oestrogens and vaginal moisturiser

116
Q

what is premature ovarian failure?

A

Cessation of menses for more than 1 year before 40 years of age secondary to loss of ovarian function.

117
Q

what are some causes of premature ovarian failure?

A
genetic disorders
autoimmune disorders
infections
toxic causes (including chemotherapy or radiation)
galactosaemia
idiopathic.
118
Q

what investigations would you perform for premature ovarian failure?

A
pregnancy test 
FSH levels - raised
LH levels - raised
oestradiol level will be low 
AMH will be low 
TFT
prolactin level 
transvaginal USS
119
Q

how would you manage premature ovarian failure?

A

HRT therapy - oestrogen and progesterone

vaginal oestrogen

120
Q

what is androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A

an X-recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children to have a female phenotype

121
Q

what are the features of androgen insensitivity syndrome?

A
female external genitalia 
a short blind-ending vagina 
absent uterus and fallopian tubes 
normal breast development 
sparse pubic and axillary hair 

primary amenorrhoea
undescended testes causing groin swelling
breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

122
Q

how is androgen insensitivity syndrome managed?

A

if CAIS is diagnosed before puberty the testes may be left in to allow natural puberty
after puberty - gonadectomy should be offered because of the difficulty monitoring intra abdominal testes
HRT with oestrogen should be started following gonadectomy
some may require testosterone replacement

BMD should be checked for osteopenia once sexual activity is anticipated the vaginal lengthening with the use of dilators should be offered - if this fails then offer vaginoplasty

123
Q

what is a hydatidiform mole?

A

Gestational trophoblastic disorder
it is growth of an abnormal fertilised egg or an overgrowth of tissue from the placenta - women appear to be pregnant, but the uterus enlarges much more rapidly than in normal pregnancy

124
Q

what are the three types hydatidiform moles?

A

complete hydatidiform mole
partial hydatidiform mole
choriocarcinoma

125
Q

what is a complete hydatidiform mole?

A

entirely paternal in origin, usually when one sperm fertilises an empty oocyte and undergoes mitosis.

126
Q

what are the features of a complete hydatidiform mole?

A
  • bleeding in the first or early second trimester
    exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy
  • exaggerated symptoms of pregnancy e.g. hyperemesis
  • uterus large for date
  • very high serum levels of hCG
    -hypertensions and hyperthyroidism may be seen
127
Q

what are the risk factors for hydatidiform moles?

A

age - extremes in reproductive life (<15 or >40)
ethnicity - 2 times higher in east asia
previous molar pregnancy

128
Q

what is a partial hydatiform mole?

A

usually triploid, derived from two sperms entering one oocyte
there is variable evidence of a fetus
one maternal and two paternal haploid sets

129
Q

how are hydatidiform moles managed?

A

urgent referral to specialist centre - evacuation of the uterus is performed
effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months

130
Q

what is pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

infection and inflammation of the female pelvic organs including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries and the surrounding peritoneum.

It is usually the result of ascending infection from the endocervix

however scan be descending infection from local organs such as the appendix

131
Q

what are the common causes of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Chalmydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
mycoplasma genitalium
mycoplasma hominis

132
Q

what are the clinical features of PID?

A
lower abdominal pain 
fever 
deep dyspareunia 
dysuria and menstrual irregularities 
vaginal or cervical discharge 
cervical excitation 
high fever in severe cases 
peri-hepatitis (fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome) - characterised by right upper quadrant pain due to adhesions
133
Q

what investigations would you perform for PID?

A
endo-cervical swab 
blood cultures if there is a fever 
WBC and CRP and ESR
pelvic USS 
laparoscopy
134
Q

how is PID managed?

A

ceftriaxone (IM) and doxycycline (oral)
metronidazole can be added

2nd line
oflaxacin plus metronidazole

135
Q

what are the complications of PID?

A

abscess
infertility
chronic pelvic pain
ectopic pregnancy

136
Q

what are endometrial polyps?

A

they are adenomas

focal overgrowth of the endometrium

137
Q

what are the symptoms of endometrial polyps?

A

often asymptomatic
can cause menorrhagia and intermenstrual bleeding
sometimes can cause prolapse of the cervix

138
Q

investigations for polyps?

A

USS or hysteroscopy

139
Q

treatment for polyps?

A

resections during hysteroscopy - they should be sent for biopsy

140
Q

what is chronic pelvic pain?

A

intermittent or constant pelvic pain in the lower abdomen or pelvis of at least 6-month duration

141
Q

what investigations would your perform for chronic pelvic pain?

A
urinalysis 
urine culture 
cervical swab 
MRI
transvaginal USS
laparoscopy 
psychological evaluation may be helpful in some patients
142
Q

what are some possible causes of chronic pelvic pain?

A
endometriosis 
adenomyosis 
gynaecological or pelvic adhesions 
psychological factors 
pelvic congestion syndrome 
intesitial cystitis 
haemorrhagic ovarian cysts 
fibromyalgia 
IBS
143
Q

what is the pathophysiology of PCOS?

A

insulin resistance - means the body has to produce extra insulin to compensate - high levels of insulin cause the ovaries to produce too much testosteroen which interferes with the development of follicles and prevents normal ovualtion
insulin also increases the free testosterone circulating in the body by supressing the hepatic synthesis of sex hormone binding globulin
also hypersecretion of LH which stimulates production of androgens secretion form theca cells

144
Q

what are the clinical features of PCOS?

A

subfertility and infertility
menstrual disturbances - oligomenorrhea and amenorrhoea
hirtutism and acne due to hyperandrogenism
obesity
acanthosis nigricans - due to insulin resistance

145
Q

what investigations would you perform for PCOS?

A
  • serum total and free testosterone - elevated
    -DHEAS - serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate - elevate
  • serum SHBG
  • serum prolactin
  • TSH
    -oral glucose tolerance test
    basal (day 2-5) LH, FSH, TFT, prolactin, testosterone
146
Q

how is PCOS managed?

A

weight loss
improve menstrual regularity with weight loss, metformin COCP

eflornithine topical may help with acne and hair growth

If fertility is desired - clomifene

147
Q

what is turner’s syndrome ?

A

chromosomal disorder, involving a complete or partial absence of the second sex chromosome

148
Q

what are the features of turners syndrome?

A
short stature 
shield chest, widely spaced nipples
webbed neck
bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of the arota 
primary amenorrhoea 
cystic hygroma 
high arched palate 
short fourth metacarple 
delayed or absent puberty
horseshoe kidney 
hypothroidism
149
Q

how do you diagnose tuners syndrome?

A

karyotype

150
Q

how do you manage tuners syndrome?

A

if there is poor growth - growth hormone (somatropin) and oxandrolone
those with pubertal delay or arrest - low dose oestrogen and cyclic progesterone

after establishment of cyclical bleeding - ovarian HRT and breast implants

151
Q

what is asherman’s syndrome ?

A

an acquired uterine condition charcterised by the formation if adhesions (scar tissue) inside the uterus

152
Q

what are the risks in pregnancy in people with ashemans?

A

placenta previa
placenta increta
exessive bleeding

153
Q

what is a prolactinoma?

A

a type of pituitary adenoma
benign
they produce prolactin

154
Q

how can pituitary adeomas be classified?

A

size
- microadenoma <1cm
- macroadenoma >1cm
hormonal status - secretory/functioning

155
Q

what are the clinical features of prolactinomain women?

A
amenorhoea and oligomenorrhoea 
infertility 
galactorrhoea
loss of libido 
visual deterioration  - temoral hemianopia 
osteoporosis
156
Q

what investigations would you perform for a prolactinoma/.

A

serum prolactin
pituitary MRI
computerised visual field exam

157
Q

how do you treat a prolactinoma?

A

if asymtomatic - observation
if it is symtomatic - give a dopamine agonist (cabergoline)

surgery is performedfor patients who cannot tolerate or fail to respond to medical therapy