Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear
Hearing and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal

taste and sensation from Posterior tounge
Parotid gland salivation
Carotid body and baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vagus nerve (X) functions

A

Swallowing, cough reflex, parasympathetic to thoracoabdominal and monitor baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

C1-C7 exit above or below the vertebrae

A

Above.
High up = above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in adults?

A

L1-L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Subarachnoid space (which holds the CSF) end where?

A

S2 (Subarachnoid space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lumbar puncture is usually performed where?

A

Below where the spinal cord ends (L1-L2)
So around L3-L4
(To keep the cord alive, puncture between L3 and L5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The spinothalamic tract senses what?

A

Pain and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sensory information going to the spinothalamic tract enter the spinal cord through which root?

A

Dorsal root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pain and temperature sensation dessucates where?

A

At the level of the spinal cord as the anterior white commisure
Ascends contralaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pressure, vibration, fine touch, and proprioception is carried by what tract?

A

Dorsal columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sensation for pressure, vibration, fine touch ender the spinal cord through which root?

A

Dorsal root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does the dorsal column ascend ipsilaterally or contralaterally?

A

Ipsilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does the dorsal columns dessicate?

A

In the medulla and travels upward as the medial lemniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The corticospinal tract is responsible for what?

A

Voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Upper motor neurons from the primary motor cortex descend ipsilaterally through what sections of the brain

A

Posterior limb of the internal capsul and cerebral peduncle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract dessucate?

A

At the caudal medulla ( pyramid) then travels contralaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Signals from the corticospinal tract exit the spinal cord where?

A

At the contralateral anterior horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lower motor neurons leave the spinal cord where?

A

At the anterior horn
Signal comes from upper motor neurons on the contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Plantar reflex

A

Dorsiflexion of big toe and fanning of other toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Babinski sign

A

Presence of plantar reflex (dorsiflexion of big toe and fanning of other toes)

Represents UMN lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diaphragm and gall bladder pain is referred to where via the C3 dermatome

A

Right shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A tight low collar shirt is touching which dermatome?

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The lateral arm and thumbs is which dermatome?

A

6 (if you do a thumbs up it looks like a 6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Early appendicitis has referred pain to the umbilicus via what dermatome?

A

T10 (belly butten)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inguinal ligamen is what dermatome?

A

L1 (Inguinal Ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Down the medial leg and knees to the medial foot is what dermatome?

A

L4 (down on all 4s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sensation of penile and anal zones is what dermatomes?

A

S2, S3, S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Agraphia (writing), acalculia (math), finger agnosia, and left-right disorientation is indicitative of a brain lesion where?

A

Dominant parietal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hemispatial neglect - agnosia of the contralateral side of the world. Where is the brain lesion

A

Nondominant parietal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hutington Disease, and Parkinson disease is due to a lesion in which area of the brain

A

Basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

B1 thiamine deficiency is the cause of Wernicke-Kosakoff. It results in brain lesions where?

A

Bilateral mamillary bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Anterograde amnesia (not able to make new memories) indicates a brain lesion where?

A

Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Decorticate posturing (flexion) is indicative of a lesion where?

A

Above the red nucleus (cerebral cortex)

Hands are near the cor (heart)
Upper extremities flexed, lower limb extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Decerebrate posturing (all extensor) indicates a lesion where?

A

Between the red and vestibular nuclei

There is a worse prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vulnerable hippos need pure water

Most vulnerable areas to ischemia in the brain

A

Hippocampus
Neocortex
Purkinje cells
Watershed areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What kind of necrosis occurs in the brain

A

Liquefactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke results in what symptoms

A

Contralateral Lower limb motor and sensory deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Middle cerebral artery ischemia results in what symptoms

A

Contralateral lower face and upper limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The nondominant hemisphere is usually which side?

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A lesion in the nondominant (right) hemisphere results in what?

A

Hemineglect (parietal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is the Wernicke area?

A

Temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is Broca area?

A

Frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The lenticulostriate artery supplies what part of the brain

A

Striatum, internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Ischemia of the lenticulostriate artery results in what symptoms

A

Contralateral Pure motor paralysis due to corticospinal tract traveling in the internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies which cranial nerve nuclei

A

The pons - facial nerve, vestibular nerve, trigeminal nerve (5, 7, 8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ischemia of the AICA with damage to the facial nucleus results in what deficits

A

Loss of taste from anterior tongue, lacrimation, and salavation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ischemia from the AICA with damage to the vestibular nuclei results in what deficits

A

Inner ear - vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ischemia of the AICA causing damage to the trigeminal nucleus results in what deficits

A

IPSILATERAL face deficits of pain and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The anterior cerebral artery supply which cranial nerves?

A

1-4
Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ischemia of the posterior inferior cerebella artery causes lesions where?

A

Cranial nerve 9, 10
Vestibular nerve (8)
Spinothalamaic tract, trigeminal (5)
Cerebellar peduncle
Sympathetic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Dysphagia and hoarseness is indicitave of ischemia of what artery

A

PICA - posterior inferior cerebellar artery
It supplies the nucleus ambiguus (CN 9 and 10)
9 - glossopharyngeal
10 - vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The anterior spinal artery supplies what part of the brain

A

The caudal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ischemia of the anterior spinal artery damages what structures

A

Corticospinal tract
Medial lemniscus
Caudal medulla - CN12 HYPOGLOSSAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rupture of middle meningeal artery results in epidural or subdural hematoma?

A

Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Rupture of middle meningeal artery results in what kind of symptoms

A

Transient loss of consciousness
Recover
Rapid deteroriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Epidural hematomas are convex or crescent shaped

A

Convex (look like an eyeball)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Subdural hematoma is a result of rupture of what vessel

A

Bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Subdural hematomas are crescent or convex shaped?

A

Crescent

Think sub, crescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrheades are described as what

A

Worst headache of my life with bloody or yellow lumbar fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Rupture of a saccular aneurysm or AVM results in what kind of hemorrhage

A

Subarachnoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Systemic hypertension most commonly results in what kind of hemorrhage

A

Intraparenchymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Broca area is associated with what sense

A

Speaking. Broca = boca (mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Wernicke area

A

Associated with language comprehension
“word salad”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where do berry aneurysms occur?

A

Int he circle of Willis, commonly between anterior communicating and ACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Berry Aneurysms are associated with which diseases

A

ADPKD
Ehlers Danlos
Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A bery arryneurys of the anterior communicating effects what cranial nerve structure

A

CN2 (optic chiasm) - bitemporal hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A berry aneurysm of the posterior communicating causes compression of what cranial nerve

A

CN3 - oculomotor
Blown pupil, down and out eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cluster headaches occur where

A

Periorbital pain wit autonomic symptoms (lacrimation, rhinorrhea, conjunctival injection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Treatment for cluster headaches

A

Acute: Sumatriptan
Prophylaxis - Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe essential tremor

A

Tremor with outstretched arms
Worsened with movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Intention tremor

A

When trying to point towards something, there is zigzag.

Caused by cerebellar damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Resting tremor is caused by a lesion in what area of the brain

A

Substantia nigra

The tremor is alleviated by intentional movement

74
Q

Hemiballismus is caused by a lesion in what area?

A

Contralateral subthalamic nucleus

75
Q

Parkinson Disease pathophysiology

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

76
Q

Huntington disease pathophysiology

A

Loss of GABA neurons in the striatum
Leads to low GABA, low Ach, but high dopamine

77
Q

Huntington disease is inherited in what pattern

A

Autosomal dominant
Trinucleotide repeat expansion on chromosome 4

78
Q

ApoE-2 is protective or increased risk of Alzheimers

A

Protective
Protwoctive

79
Q

Amyloid angiopathy found in Alzheimers disease can result in what kind of hemorrhage

A

Intraparenchymal

80
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular hyperphosphorylated tau proteins. They are associated with what disease?

A

Alzheimers disease

81
Q

Spongiform cortex (no inflammation) with rapid progressive dementia with myoclous and ataxia is assocaited with which disease

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob (prions) which are resistant to proteases

82
Q

Does Normal pressure hydrocephalus result in increased volume in the subarachnoid space?

83
Q

Symptoms of episodic elevated ICP in normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Wobbly, wacky, wet
Gait apraxia, cognitive, urinary incontinence

84
Q

Pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis

A

Autoimmune inflammation and demyelination of CNS

85
Q

Early symptoms of MS

A

Optic neuritis, afferent pupillary defect
Cerebellar syndromes
Corticospinal tract deficiency (upper)

86
Q

Which antibody type is found in the CSF in multiple sclerosis

A

IgG + myelin basic protein

87
Q

Guillain-Barre is an autoimmune condition that destroys what kind of cells

A

Schwann cells which myelinates peripheral nerves

88
Q

Symptoms of Guillan-Barre

A

Symmetric ascending muscle weakness
Depressed reflexes
Bilateral facial paralysis
Respiratory failure

89
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is demylination of CNS due to destruction of oligodendrocytes. It is linked to what virus

A

Reactivation of latent JC virus usually in the immunocompromized

90
Q

NF1 and 2 are inherited in which way

A

Autosomal dominant

91
Q

NF1 and NF2 are protooncogenes or tumor suppresors

A

Tumor suppressors

92
Q

NF1

A

Chromosome 17
Encodes neurofibromin, a negative RAS regulator

93
Q

NF2

A

Chromosome 22
Merlin gene

94
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, juvenile cataracts, meningiomas, and ependymomas is associated with NF1 or NF2

95
Q

Von HIppel-Lindau disease (VHL) is associated with which chromosome

A

chromosome 3

96
Q

HARP

VHL is associated with what tumors

A

Hemangioblastomas in retina, brainstem, spine
Angiomatosis
RCC
Phenochromocytomas

97
Q

Glioblastomas are the most common malignant tumor in adults or children

98
Q

Glioblastomas are assocaited with amplication of what?

99
Q

Histology of glioblastomas

A

Pseudopalisading pleomorphic tumors that border necrosis or vasculature

100
Q

This brain rare tumor found in the frontal lobes have a “fried egg” appearance on histology

A

Oligodendroglioma

101
Q

Which brain tumor has psamomma bodies on histology? and is attached to the brain surface

A

Meningiomas

102
Q

Hemangioblastomas (associated with VHL) can produce which hormone

A

erythropoietin –> secondary polycythemia

103
Q

Most common brain tumor in children

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma

104
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma is mostly found where?

A

Posterior fossa (cerebellum). Benign

105
Q

Upper motor neuron lesions result in lower tone or higher tone/reflexes

A

Upper
Spastic paresis, babinski sign, tone, reflexes

106
Q

Lower motor neuron lesions result in higher or lower reflexes

A

Lower
Atrophy, fasciculations, flaccid paralysis

107
Q

Poliovirus destroys which part of the spinal cord

A

Anterior horn (motor)
Results in asymmetric weakness with meningitis symptoms
WBC and increase in protein on CSF

108
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy is an autosomal recessive mutation of what gene

A

SMN1
Functions in survival of motor neuron proteins

109
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy results in bilateral UMN or LMN deficits

A

LMN, symmetric

110
Q

ALL or Lou-Gehrig disease is UMN or LMN degeneration?

111
Q

Amyotrophic lateral atrophy is associated with motor or sensory deficits

A

Motor only but both UMN and LMN deficit

112
Q

Tabes dorsalis is a complication of what disease

A

Tertiary syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

There is degeneration of the dorsal columns

113
Q

Subacute combined degeneration is degeneration of what tracts

A

Spinocerebellar - gait
Corticospinal (lateral) - UMN
Dorsal columns - vibration

114
Q

Subacute combined degeneration is due to a deficiency of what vitamin

A

Vitamin B12

115
Q

Friedreich ataxia results in degeneration of what tracts

A

Lateral corticospinal - UMN
Dorsal columns - proprioception
Dorsal root ganglia - reflexes

116
Q

A trigeminal nerve lesion would cause the jaw to deviate to what side?

A

Towards the side of the lesion

117
Q

Vagus nerve lesion would cause the uvula to deviate to what side?

A

Uvula moves away from the lesion

118
Q

Accessory nerve (11) would cause weakness when turning head toward or away from lesion

A

Turning head away from the lesion would be weak

119
Q

Hypoglossal nerve lesion would cause deviation of the tongue to which side

A

Towards the lesion (like your wounds)

120
Q

Upper motor neuron lesions causes weakness in the ipsilateral or contralateral face

A

Contralateral. The corticalbulbar tract is after the dessucation in the pons

121
Q

UMN lesions results in deficits in upper or lower face?

A

Lower face only because the upper face is supplied by the ipsilateral side

122
Q

Lower motor neuron lesions results in ipisilateral or contralateral facial drooping

A

Ipsilateral forehead and lower muscles

Lesion is in cranial nerve 7, after the dessucation from the cortical tract

123
Q

Normal agin hearing loss is a form of sensorineural or conductive hearing loss

A

Presbycusis - progressive bilateral symmetric sensorineural hearing loss of higher frequencies due to destruction of hair cells at the cochlear base

124
Q

Horner syndrome pathophysiology

A

Sympathetic denervation of face
1. Ptosis
2. Miosis
3. Anhidrosis

125
Q

GABA is inhibitory in the brain. It causes hyperpolarization of the membrane via what movement of ions

A

Influx of chloride and bicarb
or
Efflux of potassium

126
Q

Glutamate is excitatory and binds to what post synaptic receptors?

A

NMDA receptors. It causes depolarization via influx of sodium and calcium

127
Q

Dopamine, serotonin, histamine, and norepinephrine act through what kind of receptors?

A

G-coupled protein receptors

128
Q

Oxidation of VLCFa occurs in which membranous structure

A

Peroxisomes

129
Q

Amebic meningitis by Naegeria fowleri gains access to CSF via which nerve

A

Olfactory (CN1)

130
Q

Stimulation of beta 2 receptors on the myometrium would result in increased or decreased contraction

131
Q

B2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in stimulation or inhibition of NaK ATPase

A

Stimulation
Excessive –> hypokalemia as potassium goes inside of cells

132
Q

If there is motor and sensory deficits along a dermatome, that indicates a lesion where?

A

Compression/damage of a nerve root

133
Q

Syringomylia results in what deficits

A

Bilateral upper extremity weakness and sensory (pain/temp) issues in a cape fashion

134
Q

Does muscle fatigue improve or worsen with use in myasthenia gravis?

A

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune reaction to postsynaptic Ach receptors.
As the muscle continues to get used, the Ach runs out –> worsening weakness

135
Q

Acetylcholine is high or low in Alzheimers disease

A

Low

Treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors helps

136
Q

HIV dementia is associated with viral replication in what kind of cells

A

Macrophages

137
Q

What ions enter the presynaptic neuron at the NMJ causing release of acetylcholine?

138
Q

Glucose
Protein
Cell type
In viral meningitis

A

Normal glucose
Elevated protein
Leukocytes

139
Q

Glucose
Protein
Cell type
In bacterial meningitis

A

Low glucose
Very high protein
Neutrophils

140
Q

ACE inhibitors cause what abnormalities in babies

A

Fetal renal damage

141
Q

Antiepileptic drugs cause what kind of deformities in fetus

A

Neural tube defects

142
Q

Valproate, carbamazepine, phenytoin phenobarbitol (all epileptic medications) cause what kind of fetal abnormalities

A

Neural tube defects
Cleft palate
Skeletal abnormalities

143
Q

Lithium causes what kind of fetal abnormalities

A

Ebstein anomaly where the tricuspid valve falls into the right ventricle

144
Q

Chorea vs hemiballism

A

Chorea - jerky movements that move from one group to another

Hemiballism - flinging motions

145
Q

Dystonia

A

Involuntary muscle contractions

146
Q

Is opening pressure increased or decreased in the CSF with bacterial meningitis

147
Q

Meningitis caused by yeast shows what levels of
Glucose
Protein

A

Both are low

148
Q

Local anesthetics MOA

A

Blockage of voltage gated sodium channels

149
Q

Opioid MOA

A
  1. Blocks calcium influx in presynaptic vesicles which then decreases Ach release
  2. Open potassium efflux channels on the postsynaptic neuron = hyperpolarization
150
Q

Botulism toxin MOA

A

Inhibits SNARE proteins in the presynaptic terminal which inhibits the release of Ach

151
Q

Which vitamin can be used as a neuroprotective effect in Alzheimers?

A

Antioxidants. Vitamin E

They don’t give improvement in cognition

152
Q

Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors effects on congnition and disease

A

Improves cognition
Does not change disease course

153
Q

NMDA receptor antagonists effects on Alzheimers

A

Decreases excitability of NMDA receptor which can delay disease progression (metamantine)

154
Q

In methylmalonic acidemia, which amino acids are accumulated?

A

VIMT
Valine
Isoleucine
Methionine
Threonine

155
Q

Common fibular nerve function

A

Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot
Sensory - lateral calf and dorsal aspect of foot

156
Q

Tibial nerve function

A

Plantar flexion, inversion
Sensory - plantar foot
Achilles reflex

157
Q

First line treatment for essential tremors (occur while doing activities and improved with alcohol)

A

Beta blockers

158
Q

In poorly controlled HTN, which arteries are most at risk for rupture?

A

Lenticulostriate which supplies the basal ganglia

Symptoms: Contralateral motor and sensory, dysarthria

159
Q

Cranial nerve 5 (V3) exits the skull through which opening

A

Foramen ovale

160
Q

CNV V2 exits the skull through which opening

A

Foramen rotundum

161
Q

Pancoast tumor symptoms

A

Compression of brachial plexus - shoulder pain
Ptosis - compression of sympathetic tract in the neck
Miosis - lack of sympathetic tract in the neck

162
Q

What does decerebrate posturing look like?

A

Upper and lower extremities extended

Due to a lesion of the brain stem

163
Q

Decorticate posturing

A

Upper extremities flexed near the heart

Due to damage above the red nucleus (usually the cortex)

164
Q

TMJ pain is usually due to overaction of which nerve?

A

Trigeminal nerve V3 (mandibular)

165
Q

Symptoms of congenital rubella

A

hearing loss
cataracts
congenital heart defects

166
Q

Trisomy 18 (Edwards) Symptoms

A

PRINCE
Prominant occipitus
Rocker bottom feet
Intellectual disability
Clenched fists
Ears low

167
Q

Trisomy 18 fetal markers

A

All Decreased
(eDward)

168
Q

Is methylmalonic acid decreased or increased in patients with vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

It is increased because B12 is needed to convert methylmalonic acid to succinyl coA for the TCA cycle

169
Q

Does NADH increase or decrease during ethanol metabolization?

170
Q

Is serum lactate level increased or decreased in alcohol intoxication

171
Q

In huntington disease, there is a decrease in which neurotransmitters?

A

GABA and Ach in the caudate nucleus (basal ganglia)

172
Q

Atrophy of the basal ganglia in Huntington disease causes what on brain scan

A

Enlargement of frontal horns of the lateral ventricle

173
Q

Common cause of neuro injury after subarachnoid hemorrhage (berry aneurysm rupture)

A

Vasospasms of the endothelium = delayed ischemia
This can be prevented by treatment with calcium channel blockers (vasodilation)

174
Q

Substance P function

A

Topical capsacin results in depletion of substance P which is a neurotransmitter that tranmits pain signals

175
Q

Interventricular bleeding in premature babies usually originate from where?

A

Germinal matrix

176
Q

Premature baby with UMN motor deficits and motor delay

A

Cerebral palsy.
Premature = less blod perfusion around the ventricles

177
Q

Schwannomas and melanoma are positive for what marker?

A

S-100
Neural crest derived

178
Q

The middle meningeal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

External carotid –> maxillary –> middle meningeal

179
Q

The radial nerve could be injured at what part of the humerus?