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First Aid > CBSE > Flashcards

CBSE Flashcards

1
Q

ADH binds to receptors in what part of the kidney?

A

Collecting tubule . It results in the insertion of aquaporin channels which promote the uptate of water OUT OF THE URINE

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2
Q

In renal papillary necrosis is ADH able to act on the collecting ducts?

A

No. There will be no change in the urine osmolality or volume.

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3
Q

Muscle disorder where weakness begins in the pelvis and works its way up. Associated with fibrofatty replacement of muscles in the legs and dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (X-linked recessive)

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4
Q

Function of the dystrophic protein

A

Cytoplasmic protein that helps to anchor muscle fibers to the ECM

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5
Q

Obstructive uropathy will result in what kind of metabolic imbalance?

A

Metabolic acidosis with compensatory repiratory alkalosis –> near normal pH

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6
Q

Normal PCO2 level

A

44 mmHg

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7
Q

Respiratory alkalosis results in slower breathing or faster breathing

A

Tachypnea. To combat acidosis, the body breaths out more CO2 –> serum levels being around 30 mmHg

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8
Q

Methylmalonic acidemia can be caused by what 2 dysfunctions?

A

Defect in methylmalonyl CoA mutase or vitamin B12 deficiency. This will lead to a build up in methylmalonic acid and homocysteine

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9
Q

B6 deficiency causes what kind of anemia?

A

Sideroblastic due to impaired hemoglobin synthesis

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10
Q

Folic acid deficiency causes what kind of anemia?

A

Macrocytosis with hypersegmented neutrophils

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11
Q

Hookworm infection is caused by which parasitic roundworms?

A

Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus

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12
Q

Hookworm infection exposure is usually due to what

A

Walking barefoot on contaminated soil

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13
Q

Common disease state of hookworms

A

Microcytic anemia, eggs or adult worms in stool

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14
Q

Treatment for hookworms

A

Albendazole. Binds beta-tubulin and inhibit microtubule polymerization

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15
Q

Pinworms are caused by what intestinal worm

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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16
Q

Taenia solium (intestinal tapeworm) causes what symptoms

A

Cystic CNS lesions, seizures,

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17
Q

Method of action of methadone

A

It is a longer-acting agonist

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18
Q

Method of action of buprenophine-naloxone

A

Mised agonist/antagonist
Buprenophine - agonist of opioid receptor
Naloxone - short acting opioid antagonist

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19
Q

Cross sectional studies have what disadvantage of establishing causality?

A

Temporal sequence of events. Because cross sectional studies don’t follow patients, you arent able to examine temporal sequence of events

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20
Q

Gastrointestinal tumors typically arise from activation of what kind of receptor?

A

KIT receptor tyrosine kinase

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21
Q

KIT is a protooncogene or tumor suppressor

A

protooncogene

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22
Q

KIT activation leads to activation of what intracellular signaling pathways

A

MAP kinase and RAS

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23
Q

Metastasis of gastric cancer sommon sites

A

Virchow node - left supraclavicular node
Krukenburg - metastasis to bilateral ovaries

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24
Q

Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 (BCR/ABL) results in what kind of cancer

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

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25
Q

Focal seizures of the left side is due to a brain leison on the ipsilateral or contralateral side of the brain

A

Contralateral

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26
Q

The primary motor cortex is located in what part of the brain?

A

Frontal cortex

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27
Q

Locations of these cortex
Primary motor
Somatosensory
Visual
Auditor

A

Primary motor - frontal
Somatosensory - parietal
Visual - Occipital
Auditory - temporal

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28
Q

The anterior cerebral artery supplies which parts of the body

A

Lower extremity

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29
Q

The ACA supplies which parts of the brain

A

Frontal and parietal lobes (motor and sensory)

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30
Q

Homonymous hemianopia is due to occlusion of what artery?

A

Posterior cerebral artery

31
Q

Graves disease causes hyper or hypothyroidism

A

Hyperthyroidism. There is an autoantibody that stimulates the TSH receptor leads to increased T3 and T4

32
Q

The putamen of the basal ganglia contains inhibitory or excitatory neurons

A

Inhibitory. In parkisonian tremors, these neurons are damaged leading to loss of control of movements

33
Q

Vernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and B1 deficiency leads to atrophy of what part of the brain?

A

Mammilary bodies

34
Q

Pathophysiology of Myasthenic syndrome (Lambert Eaton)

A

Autoantibodies directed against voltage gated calcium channels in the presynaptic neuron which leads to decreased release of ACh

35
Q

Myasthenia gravis pathophysiology

A

Autoantibodies to postsynaptic Ach receptors

36
Q

Muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis is increased or decreased with muscle use

A

Increased (worsened)

37
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with what infection

A

Shiga toxin E. coli which leads to bloody diarrhea

38
Q

HUS results in what lab results

A

Due to widespread microvascular thrombosis, there is low platelets, increased creatinine, increased indirect bilirubin, anemia, increased LDH.

39
Q

Pituitary gland tumors (hypophysis) is located in the sella turcica. It can cause compression of which nerve?

A

Optic nerve (CN2)

40
Q

The trochlear nerve (CN4) innervates which muscle?

A

Superior oblique of the eye

41
Q

The brachial artery and median nerve travel anterior or posterior to the elbow

A

Anterior. Fracture of the supracondylar region of the humerus could cause damage to the brachial artery

42
Q

Fungal cell walls are composed of what?

A

Glucans, chitin, and glycoproteins

43
Q

HYperactue rejection of a transplant is due to what?

A

Preformed antibodies against donor antigens. It results in fibrin thrombi in the capillaries

44
Q

Method of action of Paclitaxel

A

Microtubule inhibitor. It stabilizes microtubules leading to the prevention of spindle formation

45
Q

Continuous GnRH release results in what effects on FSH and LH release

A

Following GnRH release, FSH and LH are released in a pulsatile fashion. Continuous GnRH release leads to a decrease in FSH and LH secretion

46
Q

Leuprolide is what type of medication

A

Gonadotropin release hormone agonist. It is used in the treatment of prostate cancer because it decreases LH and FSH

47
Q

Tamoxifen method of action

A

Used in the treatment of estrogen receptor positive breast cancer. It is a estrogen receptor agonist-antagonist

48
Q

Describe community intervention

A

Intervention on community vs individual. Example being puting a tax on sodas

49
Q

Describe secondary interventions

A

Screening at risk individuals; catching disease early

50
Q

Describe tertiary interventions

A

Therapeutic interventions; aimed to slow the disease

51
Q

Achilles tendon hyporeflexia is associated with radiculopathy at which level?

52
Q

Anticholinesterase poisonining leads to Ach stimulating nicotinic or muscarinic receptors?

A

Both
Nicotinic - skeletal muscle, adrenal medulla, autonomic ganglia
Muscarinic - heart, brain, smooth muscle, sweat glands

53
Q

Which medication is used for anticholinesterase poisoning (which means AchE is irreversibly blocked from breaking down Ach) on muscarinic receptors?

A

Atropine which is a competitive inhibitor

54
Q

WHat medication is used for anticholinesterase poisoning on nicotinic receptors?

A

Pralidoxime. It regenerates Ach esterase. Must be given with atropine.

55
Q

Organophosphates found in insecticides include which medications

A

Fenthion, parathion, malathion

56
Q

Pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Autoimmune inflammation of the synovial tissues. It results in proliferative granulation tissue which erodes articular carilage and bone

57
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica symptoms

A

Pain and stiffness of the proximal muscles with weight loss. No muscle weakness

58
Q

In gallbladder diseases, patients are at risk for developing deficinecy to what vitamins?

A

Fat soluble vitamins (A,E,D,K)

59
Q

Ethanol metabolism requires which cofactor?

A

NAD+ which then generates NADH.
The increase in NADH leads to hypoglycemia dn lactic acidosis

60
Q

Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol to what?

A

Acetaldehyde. This is what causes alcohol intoxication

61
Q

Asian flushing is due to a polymorphism of what enzyme?

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

62
Q

The dorsal column and spinothalamic tract are ascending or descending tracts?

63
Q

The dorsal column has what sensory functions?

A

Pressure, vibration, fine touch, proprioception

64
Q

The spinothalamic tract has what sensory functions?

A

Pain and temperature

65
Q

Sensation of proprioception and fine touch travel in the dorsal column ipsilaterally or contrallaterally?

A

Ipsilaterally. It switches sides in the medulla

66
Q

The anterolateral funiculus carries which neurons?

A

Voluntary motor signals from the corticospinal tract. (decreased deep tendon reflexes, ipsilateral weakness)

67
Q

HIstology of preecelampsia

A

Atherosis of decidual vessels (fibrinoid necrosis)

68
Q

Autsomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is associated with what other diseases

A

Berry aneurysms, MVP, and hepatic cysts

69
Q

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is associated which which genetic mechanism?

A

Variable expressitivity. Example) Father has different symptoms than son

70
Q

Typical Crohn Disease monocloal antibodies are directed against what?

A

TNF-a. This decreases the formation of granuloma formation and maintenance leading to increased risk of TB infeciton

71
Q

Does nephritic or nephrotic syndrome result in high proteinuria

A

Nephrotic syndrome

72
Q

Nephrotic syndrome leads to a loss of which antibody in urine?

A

IgG. This increases risk for infection

First Aid (14 decks)

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