Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Genetics of Spinal Muscular Atrophy, type 1

A

Autosomal recessive, chromosome 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pathogenesis of SMA type 1

A

Degeneration of anterior horn cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genetics and pathophysiology of Congenital myasthenia

A

Autosomal recessive, caused by deficiency of endplate acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genetics of congenital myotonic dystrophy

A

Autosomal dominant, chromosome 19, caused by expanded CTG repeat with severity determined by number of repeats; inherited disorder of muscle caused be altered protein which leads to dysfunctional sodium and potassium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Riley-Day syndrome

A

Familial dysautonomia; autosomal recessive on 9q31-33; disorder or peripheral nervous system; reduced number of small unmyelinated nerves that carry pin, temp, taste, and mediate autonomic fxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Syndrome with poor sick and swallow, emesis, abdominal dissension, loose bowel movement, pale, blotchy skin, hypotonia, absent corneal reflexes, hypersensitive pupillary enervation, decreased tongue papillae, temp and BP instability

A

Familial dysautonomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mechanism of action of phenobarbital

A

Increase time that chloride channels are open by acting on GABA-A receptor subunits which depresses the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism of action of phenytoin

A

Blocks voltage gated sodium channels, thus blocking repetitive firing of action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MoA of levetiracetam

A

Binding to the synaptic vesicle protein SV2A reducing the rate of vesicle release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MoA of midazolam

A

Increases GABA activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MoA of lidocaine

A

Antiarrythmic medication/class Ib type; blocks sodium channels; mechanism and anticonvulsant not known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MoA of topiramate

A

Blocks sodium channels, enhances GABA-activated chloride channels and inhibits excitatory neurotransmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MoA of bumetanide

A

Inhibits Na-K-Cl cotransporter; effective for temporal lobe epilepsy with altered chloride homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Genetics of tuberous sclerosis

A

Autosomal dominant; chromosomes 9, 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Genetics of Neurofibromatosis type 1

A

Autosomal dominant, chromosome 17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Genetics of Neurofbromatosis, type 2

A

Chromosome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clinical features of mcCune Albright syndrome

A

Irregular brown pigmentations, fibrous dysplasia, bones, precocious puberty, hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Genetics of von Hippel Lindau disease

A

Autosomal dominant on the short arm of chromosome three, results from over expression of transcription factor hypoxia-inducible factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common type of cerebral palsy seen with extreme prematurity

A

Spastic diplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Macrocephaly, transillumination of skull, and adducted thumbs

A

X-linked hydrocephalus caused by stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvia’s (HSAS); mutation in L1CAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Diseases associated with congenital glaucoma

A

Sturge Weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, homocystinuria, trisomy, 21, congenital rubella, stickler syndrome

22
Q

What gestational age does the EEG become continuous?

23
Q

At what gestational age do you start to see EEG changes with external stimuli

24
Q

What is the most common manifestation of neurofibromatosis in infancy?

A

Café au lait macules

25
When is optic nerve myelination complete
24 months of age
26
Persistence of what reflex is characteristic of athetoid cerebral palsy
Palmer grasp reflex
27
What is more common cystic PVL or diffuse PVL
Diffuse PVL
28
Head shape and syndrome associated with premature closure of bilateral coronal sutures
Brachycephaly, which can be observed in carpenter syndrome
29
Which suture closes to give trigonocephaly
Metopic suture
30
MMC at T12-L2- reflexes seen and ambulation potential
No reflexes, full braces needed- long-term ambulation unlikely
31
MMC at L3-L4; reflexes seen and ambulation potential
Knee jerk present, may ambulate with braces and crutches
32
MMC at L5- S1, reflexes seen and ambulation potential
Ankle jerk present, ambulate with or without short braces
33
MMC at S2-S4, reflexes seen and ambulation potential
Anal wink reflex present, ambulate without braces
34
Calculation of cerebral perfusion pressure
CPP= MAP-ICP MAP= (2/3)DBP + (1/3)SBP
35
Developmental finding seen more in IUGR infants
Decreased full scale and verbal IQ
36
Diagnosis of septooptic dysplasia
Two of the following 3: optic nerve hypoplasia, pituitary gland dysfunction, and absence of the septum pellucidum
37
Genetics of achondroplasia
Autosomal dominant but 80 to 90% result from new mutations, increased risk with increased paternal age, secondary to a mutation in the trans membrane domain of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 gene
38
Trident hands, depressed nasal bridge, frontal bossing, megalocephy, caudal narrowing of spinal cord, normal intelligence, short stature
Achondroplasia
39
Chromosome in Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
11p15.5
40
Tumor surveillance screening in BWS
abdominal ultrasound every three months until age 7, monitoring alpha-fetoprotein
41
Genetics and features of Holt-Oram syndrome
Autosomal dominant with variable expression, 12q2 locus Cardiac in greater than 50%: ASD, VSD, coarctation; upper limb defects, absent, hypoplastic, or abnormally shaped thumbs, narrow shoulders
42
Genetics of Marfan syndrome
Autosomal dominant with variable expression, connective tissue disorder that is secondary to abnormal fibrillin gene located at 15 Q 21.1
43
Genetics of Noonan syndrome
Sporadic or autosomal dominant, 12 Q 22
44
Genetics of osteogenesis imperfecta
Majority or autosomal dominant, defect in type one collagen
45
Genetics of Stickler syndrome
Autosomal dominant with variable expression, secondary to mutation of type 2 collagen on 12 Q 13
46
Lower eyelid coloboma, downslanting palpebral fissures, mandibular hypoplasia, dysmorphic ears, malar hypoplasia
Treacher -Collins syndrome (autosomal dominant but 60% secondary to new mutations)
47
Neuroblastoma has been associated with what medical conditions
Turner syndrome, Hirshprung disease, and central hypo ventilation syndrome
48
Cranial nerve IV name and what happens if it’s impaired
Trochlear nerve Impaired downward gaze
49
Name of cranial nerve VI and what happens if it’s impaired
Abducens nerve Absence of lateral eye movement
50
Most common presenting symptom after in utero mca ischemic stroke
Seizures
51
A tethered cord should be considered, when
When the conus medullary is located below the lumbar 1-2 disc space
52
The optic vesicle develops from
Diencephalon