Neurology Flashcards
Which of the symptoms accompanying severe migraine attach is the most common?
A. Fortification spectra
B. Nausea
C. Visual disturbance
D. Photopsia
B. Nausea
First line treatment of painful neuropathy
A. Pregabalin
B. Tramadol
C. Venlafaxine
D. Vitamin B
A. Pregabalin - 50-100mg TID
Which of the following isthe most common cause of cardioembolic stroke?
A. Prosthetic valves
B. Ischemic cardiomyopathy
C. Non valvular AF
D. Myocardial infarction
C. Non valvular AF
The most common cognitive ability lost in dementia
A. Memory
B. Judgment
C. Language
D. Problem solving
A. Memory - amnesia, loss of memory function
Which of the following imaging modality is the preferred choice for evaluation of acute intracranial hemorrhage?
A. Plain cranial MRI
B. Plain cranial CT SCAN
C. Contrast enhanced MRI
D. Contrast enhanced CT SCAN
B. Plain cranial CT SCAN
The neurotransmitter pathway that is more affected in memory and attention dysfunction is the
A. Dopaminergic
B. Cholinergic
C. Serotonergic
D. Noradrenergic
B. Cholinergic - attention and memory function
“Shadow Plaques” are
A. Disrupted Blood Brain Barrier
B. Perivenular cuffing by T-cells
C. Partial remyelination of naked axons
D. Astrocytic proliferation
C. Partial remyelination of naked axons
The basic treatment of Alzheimer’s Disease is the use of:
a. Vaccination
b. Estrogen Replacement
c. Use of Glutamate Antagonist
d. Use of Levetiracetam
e. Use of Acetylcholinesterase
Inhibitor
e. Use of Acetylcholinesterase
Inhibitor
NOT TRUE of Herpes Simplex Encephalitis, the patient may have:
a. Fever, headache, seizures
b. Managed supportively: antibiotic use is optional
c. CSF analysis may show many RBC even if non-traumatic
d. May have EEG and MRI abnormalities in the frontotemporal area
b. Managed supportively: antibiotic
use is optional
If the patient has ptosis due to Botulism, if ice pack is placed over the ptotic eye, there will be:
a. Result is unpredictable
b. No change in the ptosis
c. Worsening of the ptosis
d. Improvement of the ptosis
d. Improvement of the ptosis
Applying an ice pack to the ptotic eye can help improve ptosis temporarily by causing vasoconstriction and reducing swelling in the surrounding tissues.
The cold temperature can stimulate muscle contraction and may enhance the function of the Levator Palpebrae Superioris muscle, resulting in a temporary improvement of the ptosis.
Which of the following medication reduces the risk of vasospasm
a. Felodipine
b. Amlodipine
c. Clonidine
d. Nimodipine
d. Nimodipine
Not a motor feature of PD:
a. Masked facies
b. Freezing
c. Hypophonia
d. Action Tumor
e. Drooling
d. Action Tumor
The most common cause of Viral Meningitis is:
a. Influenza Virus
b. Adenovirus
c. Herpes Virus
d. Enterovirus
e. Mumps Virus
d. Enterovirus
Which among the anticonvulsants
modulate the release of synaptic vesicles
a. Carbamazepine
b. Valproic Acid
c. Lamotrigine
d. Phenytoin
e. Levetiracetam
e. Levetiracetam
Which of the following is the most
common site for intracranial hemorrhage
a. Subarachnoid Space
b. Frontal Lobe
c. Ventricles
d. Parietal Lobe
e. Basal Ganglia
e. Basal Ganglia
esp putamen
Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE regarding EEG?
a. The absence of electrographic activity exclude a diagnosis of seizure
b. EEG is always abnormal during Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures
c. Typical Absence Seizure EEG shows a generalized slow spike and slow-wave pattern with a frequency of 2.5 per second
d. Activating procedures are undertaken while the EEG is recorded in an attempt to prevent seizure occurrence
b. EEG is always abnormal during Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizures
Which of the following statement/s regarding epilepsy is/are CORRECT?
a. It describes a condition in which a person has recurrent seizures due to a chronic, underlying process
b. It refers to a single disease entity phenomenon rather than single disease entity
c. It is recurrent seizures secondary to a correctable or avoidable cause
d. It is two or more provoked seizures
a. It describes a condition in which a
person has recurrent seizures due
to a chronic, underlying process
Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE regarding small vessel stroke syndrome pure motor hemiparesis
a. Accounts for 40% of all strokes
b. Usually due to infarct in the
centrum semi-ovale
c. Usually involves either the face, arm, or leg
d. Results following atherothrombotic or lipohyalinotic occlusion
c. Usually involves either the face, arm, or leg
Treatment of ACUTE attacks of MS or initial demyelinating episode will be:
a. Glatiramer Acetate
b. Interferon
c. Fingolimod
d. Glucocorticoids
d. Glucocorticoids
More common manifestation of Multiple Sclerosis does NOT include:
a. Paresthesia
b. Weakness
c. Visual Problems
d. Ataxia
e. Sensory Loss
d. Ataxia
Differential diagnosis in a patient with dementia-like cognitive deficits will NOT include:
a. Prion Diseases
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Clinical Depression
d. Subdural Hematoma
b. Hyperthyroidism
Which of the following modality is NOT effective in lowering ICP due to edema secondary to Intracerebral Hematoma?
a. Hypertonic saline
b. Induced hyperventilation
c. Ventriculostomy
d. Glucocorticoids
e. Osmotic Diuretic
d. Glucocorticoids
True of Myasthenic Weakness, EXCEPT:
a. Weakness manifest of facial
muscles bring out the
snarl expression
b. May be asymmetric
c. EOM and lid weakness are early
common complaints
d. Limb weakness is often distal
e. Facial weakness produces snarling
expression when patient attempt to smile
d. Limb weakness is often distal
What is the gold standard in diagnosing intracranial aneurysm?
a. CTA
b. PET
c. MRA
d. 4-vessel Angiography
e. Transcranial Doppler Studies
d. 4-vessel Angiography
Which among the anticonvulsant has systematic side effect of gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism:
a. Levetiracetam
b. Lacosamide
c. Lamotrigine
d. Phenytoin
e. Phenobarbital
d. Phenytoin
The recommended workup of a patient in presenting as recurrent short duration hemiparesis suspected as having MS is:
a. Cranial MRI
b. Evoked Potentials
c. LP with CSF analysis
d. Cranial CT Scan
e. EEG
a. Cranial MRI
Cranial MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging):
* This is considered a key diagnostic tool for evaluating patients with suspected MS.
* MRI can detect the presence of characteristic brain lesions, such as white matter lesions, that are indicative of MS.
* It helps in assessing the location, size, and distribution of the lesions, which can aid in
of vertical eye
diagnosis and progression
Dementia plus disinhibition, aphasia, overeating is seen in:
a. Dementia with Lewy Body Disease
b. Vascular Dementia
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Corticobasal Degeneration
e. Frontotemporal Dementia
e. Frontotemporal Dementia
Which of the following patient has the greatest chance of remaining seizure- free sufficient after drug withdrawal?
a. S.T., 17-year-old, female with abnormal neurologic examination, seizure free for 2 years
b. R.G., 25-year-old, with focal slowing noted on recent EEG, seizure free for 2.5 years
c. M.J., 23 years old, female, with multiple types of seizures, seizure-free for 2.5 years
d. J.C., 35 year old, male with low-grade glioma, seizure free for 2.5 years
e. A.R,. 18 years old, female, with generalized tonic clonic seizure free for 2 years
e. A.R,. 18 years old, female, with generalized tonic clonic seizure free for 2 years
The pseudocoma in which an awake patient has no means of producing speech and volitional limb movement
with retention movement:
a. Catatonia
b. Coma Vigil
c. Akinetic Mutism
d. Locked-In State
d. Locked-In State
Akinetic Mutism refers to a partially or fully awake state in which the patient remains virtually immobile and mute but can form impressions and think, as demonstrated by later recounting of events.
* This condition results from dam- age in the regions of the medial thalamic nuclei or the frontal lobes (particularly lesions situated deeply or on the orbitofrontal surfaces)
Catatonia is a hypomobile and mute syndrome that occurs usually as part of a major psychosis, typically schizophrenia or major depression.
TRUE in patients with Atypical parkinsonism
a. Presence of motor asymmetry
b. Late involvement of speech dysfunction
c. Typically will have rigidity and bradykinesia
d. Slower progression of symptoms compared to true PD
e. Good response to Levodopa treatment
c. Typically will have rigidity and bradykinesia
Which of the following statement/s regarding cardioembolic stroke is/are correct?
a. Tend to occur suddenly with maximum neurologic deficit at onset
b. Most significant cause is Valvular Atrial Fibrillation
c. Responsible for 40% of Ischemic Strokes
d. Antiplatelet is the ideal treatment of choice
a. Tend to occur suddenly with maximum neurologic deficit at onset
The most objective finding suggestive of an infection in the CSF analysis is:
a. Decreased protein
b. Increased protein
c. Decreased sugar
d. Pleocytosis
e. Turbidity
d. Pleocytosis
Pleocytosis refers to an increased number of cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), specifically an increase in white blood cells (WBCs). In the context of CSF analysis, pleocytosis is a strong indicator of an inflammatory response, including an infection in the central nervous system.
Other findings, such as changes in protein levels, sugar levels, or turbidity, can also be observed in CSF analysis during an infection, but pleocytosis is considered the most reliable and objective indicator in this context.
Which of the following statement/s regarding psychogenic seizures is/are TRUE?
a. Often last shorter than epileptic seizure
b. Must exclude a concurrent diagnosis of epilepsy
c. Usually accompanied by a rise in serum prolactin immediately post-ictus
d. Often a part of a conversion reaction precipitated by a psychological distress
d. Often a part of a conversion reaction precipitated by a psychological distress
Which of the following anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for patients having mixed type of generalized seizures?
a. Phenytoin
b. Valproic Acid
c. Levetiracetam
d. Lamotrigine
e. Carbamazepine
b. Valproic Acid
True of GBS,EXCEPT
a. If more than 2 weeks have elapsed from onset of motor symptoms immunotherapy effects uncertain
b. Autoimmune mechanism both cellular and humoral
c. 70% of cases occur 1-3 weeks after an acute infectious process
d. CSF analysis show elevated protein without pleocytosis
e. AMSAN show demyelinating pathology after electrodiagnostic test
e. AMSAN show demyelinating pathology after electrodiagnostic test
AMSAN is characterized by axonal damage and loss rather than demyelination, and this can be detected through electrodiagnostic tests such as nerve conduction studies (NCS) and electromyography (EMG).
In a patient with peripheral nervous system disorder, pure motor manifestation will NOT be seen in a patient with:
a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
b. Botulinum Toxicity
c. Muscle Dystrophy
d. Myasthenia Gravis
e. Atorvastatin
e. Atorvastatin
Pure motor manifestations are not typically associated with atorvastatin intake, which is a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is primarily used to manage dyslipidemia and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. It does not typically cause peripheral nervous system disorders characterized by pure motor manifestations.
Restricted vertical movement is typical of:
a. Multisystem Atrophy
b. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
c. Corticobasal Degeneration
d. Parkinson’s Disease
b. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
The common manifestation of Herpes Simplex Encephalitis EXCEPT:
a. Papilledema
b. Seizures
c. Behavioral Changes
d. Altered Sensorium
a. Papilledema
Work up that should NOT be done routinely in patient suspected of ocular myasthenia gravis:
a. Tensilon Test
b. Cranial CT Scan
c. Routine Electromyography
d. Repetitive Nerve Stimulation
e. Ach R Antibody Test
d. Repetitive Nerve Stimulation
NOT true of the epidemiology of MS:
a. Higher risk for identical twins than fraternal twins
b. Threefold more common in females than males
c. Geographical gradients are observed
d. Whites have lower risks compared to blacks
d. Whites have lower risks compared to blacks
Which of the following signs and symptoms is seen OPPOSITE the lesion in patient with lateral medullary symptoms?
a. Pain, numbness, impaired sensation over half of the face
b. Numbness of arm, trunk, or leg
c. Ataxia of limbs
d. Impaired pain and thermal sense over half the body
e. Horner’s syndrome
b. Numbness of arm, trunk, or leg
The most common clinical type of MS is:
a. Secondary Progressive
b. Monophasic
c. Bout MS (RMS)
d. Primary Progressive
c. Bout MS (RMS)
The earliest and most common manifestation of Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy:
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Autonomy
d. Sensory-Motor
a. Sensory
Whichofthefollowingimagingmodality is the preferred choice for evaluation of Acute Intracranial Hemorrhage?
a. Contrast-Enhanced CT Scan
b. Plain Cranial MRI
c. Contrast-Enhanced MRI
d. Skull X-Ray
e. Plain Cranial CT Scan
e. Plain Cranial CT Scan
Which of the following seizure type/s is/are post-ictal confusion typically observed?
a. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure
b. Absence Seizure
c. Myoclonic Seizure
d. Atonic Seizure
a. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure
Destruction of the Medulla is NOT
manifested as:
a. Absent gag reflex
b. Irreversible apnea
c. Presence of agonal gaps
d. Presence of cough reflex
d. Presence of cough reflex
a. Absent gag reflex: The medulla is responsible for coordinating the gag reflex, so its destruction would typically result in the absence of the gag reflex.
b. Irreversible apnea: The medulla plays a crucial role in regulating breathing. Destruction of the medulla can lead to the loss of the respiratory centers, resulting in irreversible apnea (cessation of breathing).
c. Presence of agonal gaps: Agonal gaps are abnormal, irregular gasps or pauses in breathing that occur in the final moments before death. These can be a manifestation of medullary dysfunction or damage.
d. Presence of cough reflex: The cough reflex is primarily mediated by the medulla, and its destruction would typically result in the loss or absence of the cough reflex.
Presence of muteness, rigidity, incontinence is seen in what stage of Alzheimer’s Disease
a. Late
b. Middle
c. Early
d. End
d. End
What scale is used for prognostication for SAH?
a. ABCD2
b. Hunt and Hess
c. HAS-BLED
d. CHA2D2S-VASc
b. Hunt and Hess