Communicable Diseases

Question 1

A 54 year old male laborer from Eastern Visayas came to the clinic because of abdominal enlargement. There was ascites upon doing the physical examination of the abdomen and edema of both lower extremities. COPT was positive. The pathology of this disease is:

a) Creation of the IFN pathway that enhances the eggs as IFN inhibitors promote the replication of the parasite
b) The host’s granulomatous reaction to the egg in the liver and the other body parts the eggs lodge in
c) The parasite evade both innate an antiparisitic defenses due to the blockage of IFN and IL-5

Answer 1

b) The host’s granulomatous reaction to the egg in the liver and the other body parts the eggs lodge in

(+) COPT = Schistosomiasis

Question 2

A 35 year old housewife born and residing in Samar province comes to the clinic because of anorexia. She consulted with a private MD and was diagnosed with schistosomiasis. What is the earliest stage if this condition becomes chronic?

a) Icterisiae
b) Hematomas
c) Hepatomegaly
d) Fever

Answer 2

c) Hepatomegaly

Question 3

A 46 year old construction worker steps on a Clostridium tetani infected nail. This organism produces two toxins. What is the lethal form of toxin produced?

a) Tetanolysin
b) Tetanolysis
c) Tetanovacuole
d) Tetanospasmin

Answer 3

d) Tetanospasmin

Question 4

A 35 year old mason, 50 kg body weight, sustains a wound in the occipital area The estimated lethal dose of the clostridium toxin in this patient is:

a) 20 ng
b) 100 ng
c) 125 ng
d) 200 ng

Answer 4

c) 125 ng

2.5 ng x 50

Question 5

The best measure to decrease the spread of the disease caused by Plasmodium falciparum should be targeted in this part of its lifecycle since this determines its initiation

a) Merozoites invading the RBCs
b) The sporozoites maturing in the gut of the mosquito
c) Male and female gametocyte reproduction
d) Sporozoites attaching to the hepatocytes

Answer 5

b) The sporozoites maturing in the gut of the mosquito

Question 6

A 41-year old female, a resident of Quezon City was referred to the hospital because of abdominal enlargement. She had a history of frequent travel to Samar province since here partner was from that place. She had significant freshwater exposure there.

No significant pas medical history.

Schistosomiasis enzyme-linked immunoabsorbent assay, microscopy of terminal urine, and stool microscopy for ova, cysts and parasites were positive. A full blood count and differential were normal. What
is the treatment of choice for her condition?

a) Praziquantel
b) Mebendazole
c) Albendazole
d) Metronidazole

Answer 6

a) Praziquantel

Question 7

A 67 year old male patient was brought to the clinic because of a stab wound sustained in the neck. What is the next step that you as the physician must do aside from treating the gaping wound?

a) Administer an IV penicillin antibiotic specifically Co-amoxiclav
b) Administer antispasmodics to improve ventilation since the wound is located in the neck thereby preventing respiratory tetanus immunoglobulin
c) Wash the gaping wound with soap and water

Answer 7

b) Administer antispasmodics to improve ventilation since the wound is located in the neck thereby preventing respiratory tetanus immunoglobulin

Question 8

The risk of reacquiring M. tuberculosis infection is determined mainly because of:

a) Innate resistance
b) Exogenous factors
c) Endogenous factors
d) Both exogenous and endogenous factors

Answer 8

d) Both exogenous and endogenous factors

Question 9

Patients with tuberculosis and HIV infection would most likely have pulmonary cavitations in their chest X-ray. This statement is:

a) True
b) False
c) It depends on the severity of the HIV
d) It depends on the strain of tuberculosis bacilli

Answer 9

c) It depends on the severity of the HIV

early = with cavitation; late = no cavitations

Question 10

A 36 year old male was bitten on the face by his dog. He admits that the dog has not been vaccinated for the past seven years. He is brought to the ER and the physician gives him an equine derived anti-rabies vaccine. After a few minutes, he develops generalized rashes and become severely dyspneic. What is the drug to be administered to this patient’s reaction after being vaccinated with the equine derived vaccine for rabies?

a) Dopamine
b) Dobutamine
c) Norepinephrine
d) Topical corticosteroid
e) Epinephrine

Answer 10

e) Epinephrine

Question 11

A 63 year old farmer steps on a rusty nail infected with Clostridium tetani spores. He did not seek any medical attention until 5 days after the accident. What is the first sign of generalized tetanus and why?

a) Trismus. Shorter distance the virus must travel up motor nerves to reach the presynaptic terminals
b) Ophisthotonus. Shorter distance the toxin must travel up the motor nerves to reach the postsynaptic terminals
c) Trismus. Shorter distance the toxin must travel up the motor nerves to reach presynaptic terminals
d) Ophisthotonus. Aspiration often is the consequence of this disease if the muscles of the face and jaw are involved

Answer 11

c) Trismus. Shorter distance the toxin must travel up the motor nerves to reach presynaptic terminals

Question 12

A 24-year old female was brought in and admitted because repeated convulsions for the past four days. There were also muscle aches and recurring fever and chills.

On P.E., the patient was febrile (38.3oC), confused and unresponsive. The mother said she had no prior history of convulsion. Vital signs include a BP of 1–/75 mmHg, 25 breaths per minute and a pulse rate of 120 beats per minute.

Spleen was palpable 2 cm below the costal margin
Laboratory results: hemoglobin = 5.8 g/dL, platelets = 7100/µl, Total bilirubin = 3.9 mg/dL, serum creatinine = 2.2 mg/dL, Total leukocyte count was 4900/µL with 20% neutrophils, 50% lymphocytes and 18% monocytes. Lumbar puncture and CT scans were performed without any pathological findings. Thick and thin Giemsa-stained blood smears showed the presence of trophozoites and schizonts of P. vivax with 2.0% parasitemia. The thin smear confirmed the absence of of P. malariae co-infection. How should
the patient be managed now that she is diagnosed with cerebral malaria?

a) Co-Artem and primaquine
b) Primaquine since this is the treatment for the hypnozoites
c) Ceftriaxone and mannitol to cerebral edema
d) Artesunate and doxycycline

Answer 12

b) Primaquine since this is the treatment for the hypnozoites

Co-Artem and primaquine = if co-infection

Question 13

In a patient with acute renal failure secondary to falciparum malaria, what is the treatment of choice

a) Improve hydration since the patient has fluid losses due to the fever
b) Hydrochlorthiazide tablets to increase the urine output
c) Peritoneal dialysis
d) IV Osmotic diuretics

Answer 13

c) Peritoneal dialysis

Question 14

Dual infection with tuberculosis and HIV occur commonly

a) True
b) False
c) Only if the HIV patient already has cavitary TB lesions in both lungs
d) Only if the patient has extrapulmonary TB

Answer 14

True

c. Only if the HIV patient already has cavitary TB lesions in both lungs – it can occur even without cavitary lesions

Question 15

A 74-year old female presented to a physician with back pain that had become progressively worse over the course of 8 months. She related all her symptoms began after a fall one year before consultation. She had been treated conservatively for this back pain
for 6 months with paracetamol and tramadol tablets. Finally the pain became unbearable and the patient was eventually admitted to the hospital.
The patient had no cough or fever on admission. She had, however, a previous history of exposure to a TB patient, her husband whom she cared for until he died after three years. On examination, the patient could walk normally but had severe back pain. The pain was
not radiating. She had localized tenderness over the lower part of the spine. She had no motor weakness or sensory abnormalities in her lower limbs. There was no neurologic deficit. A complete blood count was normal and a chest radiograph was normal. CT scan result revealed a grossly destructive lesion at L1 that
suggested tuberculosis spondylitis. A spinal tap confirmed the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and there was sensitivity to the first line anti-TB drugs. What is the anti-TB regimen of this
patient? – 2 HRZE/4 HR

a) Two months of INH, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and 10 months of Rifampicin and INH
b) Two months of INH, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and 4 months of Rifampicin and INH
c) Two months of INH, Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and 4 months of Rifampicin and INH
d) Four months of INH, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and 4 months of Rifampicin and INH

Answer 15

a) Two months of INH, Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol and 10 months of Rifampicin and INH

TB in spine, bone, joints

Question 16

This is an infectious viral disease with an almost 100% case fatality rate in humans. What virus causes this disease that manifests as an acute viral encephalomyelitis?

a) Flaviviridae
b) Parvoviridae
c) Lyssavirus
d) Alphavirus

Answer 16

c) Lyssavirus

Question 17

Acute symptoms of schistosomiasis

a) Asymptomatic
b) Hepatic schistosomiasis
c) Intestinal schistosomiasis
d) Swimmer’s itch

Answer 17

d) Swimmer’s itch

Question 18

The main pathology of schistosomiasis is attributed to:

a) Egg deposition and subsequent toxin release
b) Granuloma formation of the host to the eggs
c) Invasion of the cercariae to the different body parts through the circulation
d) Katayama fever

Answer 18

b) Granuloma formation of the host to the eggs

Question 19

The following all cause intestinal schistosomiasis except:

a) S. japonicum
b) S. haematobium
c) S. mekongi
d) S. mansoni

Answer 19

b) S. haematobium

JIMM

Question 20

This infectious disease that is caused by a protozoan parasite from the Plasmodium family can be transmitted by the female vector:

a) Anopheles
b) Culex
c) Onchomelania
d) Aedes

Answer 20

a) Anopheles

Question 21

A 55 y/o female, a housemaid in Caloocan who grew up in Surigao del Sur, sough consult at the ER due to complaint of hematemesis, bipedal edema and gradual enlarging of the abdomen. She has noted
decrease in urination. What is your initial impression?

a) Leptospirosis – severe
b) Acute Schistosomiasis
c) Chronic Schistosomiasis

Answer 21

c) Chronic Schistosomiasis

Question 22

Adaptive mechanism used by schistosomes that enable them to evade the host’s defense mechanism:
a) Coiled, highly motile that can burrow thru the host’s
tissue
b) Presence of heptalaminar membrane
c) Attacks the cellular and humoral systems of the host
d) Bacterial endocytosis as orchestrated by the host’s own macrophages

Answer 22

b) Presence of heptalaminar membrane

Question 23

True statement regarding the management of Schistosomiasis:

a) Praziquantel provides direct effect on killing the schistosome
b) Bleeding from esophageal varices is an early indication of irreversible schistosomiasis
c) Medical treatment with drug of choice results to cure as egg counts are reduced
d) Treatment is no longer indicated in the late stage hepatic failure

Answer 23

c) Medical treatment with drug of choice results to cure as egg counts are reduced

Praziquantel affects membrane permeability in the parasite

Question 24

Which form of Schistosoma travels thru the venous circulation eventually reaching the liver parenchyma?

a) Schistosomula
b) Cercariae
c) Adult worm
d) Miracidia

Answer 24

a) Schistosomula

Question 25

Direct detection of schistosomal eggs in the stool:

a) Kato Katz
b) Rectal biopsy
c) COPT
d) FECT

Answer 25

a) Kato Katz

Question 26

Condition that would best isolate Leptospires for identification:

a) Dialysate on the 18th day of illness
b) Blood on the 14th day of illness
c) CSF on the 5th day of illness
d) Urine on the 7th day of illness

Answer 26

c) CSF on the 5th day of illness

Dialysate, blood, CSF = 1st week of illness

Question 27

Pathologic lesions found in the liver during the leptospiuric phase:

a) Damage on the walls of blood vessels
b) Pleocytosis
c) Vacuolation and focal necrosis
d) Contrilobular necrosis with proliferation of Kupffer cells

Answer 27

d) Contrilobular necrosis with proliferation of Kupffer cells

a) Damage on the walls of blood vessels – in blood vessels
b) Pleocytosis – in brain
c) Vacuolation and focal necrosis – skeletal muscles

Question 28

Characteristic of Leptospires, EXCEPT:

a) May be acquired after exposure to contaminated environment with or without abrasions
b) May be grown using special media after weeks of incubation
c) Are highly motile organisms with hooked ends of separate Order class as syphilis and yaws
d) Leptospira interrogans is the pathogenic leptospire

Answer 28

c) Are highly motile organisms with hooked ends of separate Order class as syphilis and yaws

same order

Question 29

The initial stage of severe Leptospirosis

a) Immune phase
b) Leptospiuric phase
c) Leptospiremic phase
d) Weil’s disease

Answer 29

c) Leptospiremic phase

Question 30

Which antibacterial is not used in moderate to severe leptospirosis?

a) Penicillin
b) Doxycycline
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Azithromycin

Answer 30

b) Doxycycline

Question 31

The following are venereal causes of STD except:

a) Molluscum contagiosum
b) Aphthous ulcers
c) Scabies
d) Chancroid

Answer 31

b) Aphthous ulcers

Question 32

Best time to collect urethral discharge to detect urethritis in men:

a) Anytime midstream catch
b) Early morning before voiding
c) Early morning after voiding
d) Before bedtime midstream catch

Answer 32

b) Early morning before voiding

Question 33

Levofloxacin is added to regimen used to treat Epididymitis for this reason:
a) To facilitate entry of antibiotic into the scrotal epidermis
b) For synergistic action with Ceftriaxone to cover for Chlamydia
c) To cover Enterobacter
d) For post instrumentation elderly patients

Answer 33

c) To cover Enterobacter

Question 34

True statement regarding PID except:

a) Appendiceal serositis when present doesn’t involve the intestinal mucosa
b) Yellow mucopurulent discharge
c) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome as a complication shows elevated liver enzymes
d) Elevated ESR, elevated peripheral WBC

Answer 34

c) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis Syndrome as a complication shows elevated liver enzymes

Presence of MPC, Pelvic tenderness, subacute pleuritic RUQ pain, w/ normal liver fxn tests and normal utz

Question 35

Pseudomycella visible upon microscopy of vaginal discharge is a feature of:

a) Vaginal candidiasis
b) Normal vaginal discharge
c) Vaginal Trichomoniasis
d) Bacterial vaginosis

Answer 35

a) Vaginal candidiasis

b) Normal vaginal discharge – epithelial cells, lacto bacilli
c) Vaginal Trichomoniasis – leukocytes, trichomonads
d) Bacterial vaginosis – clue cells, few leukocytes

Question 36

Which of the following is responsible for the symptoms of a patient infected with Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

a) Cytotoxins
b) Cholera toxin
c) Neurotoxin
d) Enterotoxin

Answer 36

a) Cytotoxins

* Infectious Diarrhea*

Question 37

Which of the following microorganism is not correctly paired with its known post-diarrheal complication:

a) Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome – Shigella
b) Gullain-Barre Syndrome – Campylobacter
c) Reactive Arthritis – Giardia
d) HUS – Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

Answer 37

c) Reactive Arthritis

* Infectious Diarrhea*

Question 38

True statement regarding Salmonella typhi, EXCEPT:

a) May be identified serologically via its surface O antigen
b) Infection may be sexually transmitted
c) Is a gram negative, non sporeformer, facultative aerobic bacilli
d) Is an effective commensal causing disease in both humans and animals

Answer 38

c) Is a gram negative, non sporeformer, facultative aerobic bacilli

anaerobe

Question 39

Which of the following patients have the highest risk to develop Typhoid fever?

a) 38 y/o female with amoebiasis
b) 48 y/o male with Chronic gastritis
c) 58 y/o female with UTI
d) 68 y/o male with asthma

Answer 39

b) 48 y/o male with Chronic gastritis

Risk factors include:
o Poor sanitation
o Lack of hand washing and toilet access
o Evidence of prior Helicobacter pylori infection and other
conditions with reduced gastric acidity and reduced intestinal integrity

Question 40

Comparing HIV1 with HIV2, which of the following describe HIV2?

a) Latency is shorter
b) Virulence is lesser
c) Global in distribution
d) Transmission is higher

Answer 40

b) Virulence is lesser

HIV2 has:
a) Latency is longer
c) Global in distribution – West Africa
d) Transmission is lower

Question 41

A diabetic patient has a history of high risk exposure to HIV 3-4 weeks ago. Screening test for HIV is negative. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Repeat test 3 and 6 months is not necessary
b) No chance that he is infected
c) He has false negative test because of diabetes
d) He may be infected but he is at the window period

Answer 41

d) He may be infected but he is at the window period

Question 42

HIV infected person can be considered to have AIDS if he has a CD4 of?

a) 200
b) 250
c) 300
d) 350

Answer 42

a) 200

For adults, adolescents, and children ≥5 years AHD is defined as:
o CD4 cell count <200 cells/mm3 or
o WHO clinical stage 3 or 4 event at presentation for care

All children with HIV <5 years old should be considered as having
advanced disease at presentation

Question 43

Which of the following statements is correct in ART?
a) Finite duration
b) Hold temporarily during breast feeding
c) 2 drug combination may be used
d) Contraindicated in pregnancy

Answer 43

c) 2 drug combination may be used

a) Finite duration – taken for life
b) Hold temporarily during breast feeding – still continue
d) Contraindicated in pregnancy – not contraindicated

Question 44

Which of the late neurologic complications is associated with initiation of ART in the presence of untreated co-infection like tuberculosis?

a) Immune reconstitution inflammatory response
b) Vascular neuropathy
c) HIV associated neurocognitive disorder
d) Meningitis

Answer 44

c) HIV associated neurocognitive disorder

Question 45

A MSM has rapidly declining CD4, rapidly increasing viral load, with history of flu like illness and oral thrush about 2 months ago. He is likely at what stage of HIV infection?

a) Advance HIV disease
b) Chronic or latent HIV infection
c) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
d) Acute HIV infection

Answer 45

d) Acute HIV infection

Question 46

A commercial sex worker is complaining of sudden appearance of painful vesicular rashes on the right side of her forehead. She has weight loss with milk curd like materials on her buccal mucosa. CBC show mild leukopenia, anemia and thrombocytopenia. Base on WHO HIV clinical staging, this patient is:

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 46

c) Stage 3

WHO Stage 3
􏰀 Unexplained severe weight loss (>10%)
􏰀 Unexplained chronic diarrhea for >1 month
􏰀 Unexplained persistent fever for >1 month (>37.6°C, intermittent/constant)
􏰀 Persistent oral candidiasis (thrush)
􏰀 Oral hairy leukoplakia
􏰀 Pulmonary tuberculosis (current)
􏰀 Severe presumed bacterial infections (eg, pneumonia, empyema, pyomyositis, bone or joint infection, meningitis, bacteremia)
􏰀 Acute necrotizing ulcerative stomatitis, gingivitis, or periodontitis 􏰀 Unexplained anemia (hgb <8 g/dL)
􏰀 Neutropenia (<500 cells/μL)
􏰀 Chronic thrombocytopenia ( <50,000)

Question 47

Carlos, 24 y/o, male have unexplained persistent fever for >1 month, HIV testing is (+). Base on this information, Carlos belong to WHO HIV clinical stage:

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 47

c) Stage 3

WHO Stage 3
􏰀 Unexplained severe weight loss (>10%)
􏰀 Unexplained chronic diarrhea for >1 month
􏰀 Unexplained persistent fever for >1 month (>37.6°C, intermittent/constant)
􏰀 Persistent oral candidiasis (thrush)
􏰀 Oral hairy leukoplakia
􏰀 Pulmonary tuberculosis (current)
􏰀 Severe presumed bacterial infections (eg, pneumonia, empyema, pyomyositis, bone or joint infection, meningitis, bacteremia)
􏰀 Acute necrotizing ulcerative stomatitis, gingivitis, or periodontitis 􏰀 Unexplained anemia (hgb <8 g/dL)
􏰀 Neutropenia (<500 cells/μL)
􏰀 Chronic thrombocytopenia ( <50,000)

Question 48

Fred 33 y/o male, (+) for HIV, presenting with unexplained chronic diarrhea for >1 month. Base on this information, Fred should be classified as WHO HIV clinical stage:

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 48

c) Stage 3

WHO Stage 3
􏰀 Unexplained severe weight loss (>10%)
􏰀 Unexplained chronic diarrhea for >1 month
􏰀 Unexplained persistent fever for >1 month (>37.6°C, intermittent/constant)
􏰀 Persistent oral candidiasis (thrush)
􏰀 Oral hairy leukoplakia
􏰀 Pulmonary tuberculosis (current)
􏰀 Severe presumed bacterial infections (eg, pneumonia, empyema, pyomyositis, bone or joint infection, meningitis, bacteremia)
􏰀 Acute necrotizing ulcerative stomatitis, gingivitis, or periodontitis 􏰀 Unexplained anemia (hgb <8 g/dL)
􏰀 Neutropenia (<500 cells/μL)
􏰀 Chronic thrombocytopenia ( <50,000)

Question 49

A HIV (+) female, have recurrent oral ulcers, this presentation is usual in WHO HIV clinical stage:

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 49

b) Stage 2

WHO Stage 2
􏰀 Moderate unexplained weight loss (<10% of presumed or measured body weight)
􏰀 Recurrent respiratory infections (sinusitis, tonsillitis, otitis media, and pharyngitis)
􏰀 Herpes zoster
􏰀 Angular cheilitis
􏰀 Recurrent oral ulceration
􏰀 Papular pruritic eruptions
􏰀 Seborrheic dermatitis
􏰀 Onychomycosis/tinea ungium

Question 49

The level of which of the following is the best for initiating antimicrobial prophylaxis against opportunistic infection (OIs)

a) Platelet count
b) CD4 count
c) Total WBC
d) Antibody titer

Answer 49

b) CD4 count

Question 49

Most vaccine can be offered to people living with HIV (PLHIV). Which of the following types of vaccine are contraindicated among PLHIV?

a) Live attenuated
b) Toxoid
c) Conjugated
d) Recombinant

Answer 49

a) Live attenuated

Question 50

In a patient with sore throat, the presence of this makes the condition likely to be due to virus

a) Cough
b) Fever
c) Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
d) Tonsillar exudate

Answer 50

a) Cough

Question 51

A diabetic patient received flu vaccine 1 week ago. At the ER she was exposed to influenza patient. Which of the following is best for her?

a) Give antiviral once symptoms occur
b) No need for post exposure prophylaxis since she received flu vaccine
c) Start antiviral as post exposure prophylaxis
d) Give second dose of influenza vaccine

Answer 51

c) Start antiviral as post exposure prophylaxis

CDC recommend post exposure chemoprophylaxis – 70-90% effective in preventing influenza & are useful adjuncts to influenza vaccination

Question 51

A 20 year old student has productive cough with yellowish phlegm and a normal chest finding. He has no fever and difficulty in breathing. His illness started 7 days ago as watery nasal discharge. Which of the following is least likely needed in this patient?

a) Cetirizine
b) Amoxicillin
c) N-acetylcystein
d) Phenylephrine

Answer 51

c) N-acetylcystein

a) Cetirizine – may be used for allergic symptoms
b) Amoxicillin – no signs of bacterial etiology (fever & normal chest)
c) N-acetylcystein – to break down the phlegm
d) Phenylephrine - it is a decongestant (no difficulty in breathing)

Question 51

A 65 year old female has multiple vesicular lesions on her left chest that do not cross the midline. This is preceded by pain and feverishness. This is a case of?

a) Varicella zoster
b) Epidemic pleurodynia
c) Pleurisy
d) Herpes simplex

Answer 51

a) Varicella zoster

Question 52

The preferred test for influenza is?

a) Serologic test
b) Viral culture
c) RT-PCR
d) Antigen test

Answer 52

c) RT-PCR

Question 53

An apparently healthy 60 year old female has an acute onset of fever with generalized myalgia for 24 hours with occasional cough, BP, PR and RR are normal. Temperature is 38.5 degree centigrade. Influenza virus is circulating in the community. Which of the following is the recommended management by CDC?

a) Send the patient home and start with neuraminidase inhibitor
b) Test her for influenza and start on neuraminidase inhibitor if positive
c) Start neuraminidase inhibitor and test her for influenza virus
d) Send the patient home and instruct her for follow up if progressive sign or symptom occur

Answer 53

c) Start neuraminidase inhibitor and test her for influenza virus

you have to start antiviral treatment + testing if desired

Question 54

Outpatients who are not at higher risk of complications from influenza can be considered for antiviral treatment if seen within how many days of illness

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer 54

a) 1

but start within 48 hrs/2 days (if according to CDC)

Question 55

Treatment of LTBI includes which of the following:

a) RIF at 10 mg/kg/day with a maximum dose of 600 mg once a day for 4 months
b) INH at 5 mg/kg/day with a maximum dose of 300 mg once a day x 6-9 months
c) INH at 15 mg/kg/day with a maximum dose of 900 mg twice per week 3x/week
d) INH plus rifapentine once a week for 3 months

Answer 55

b) INH at 5 mg/kg/day with a maximum dose of 300 mg once a day x 6-9 months