Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IM > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following symptoms of aortic stenosis has the poorest prognosis?

a) Angina pectoris
b) Syncope
c) Hypertension
d) Dyspnea

A

d) Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding aortic regurgitation?

a) Total stroke volume is decreased
b) Infected endocarditis produces a primary aortic root disease
c) In chronic aortic regurgitation, widened pulse pressure is present
d) Pulsus parvus et tardus is present

A

c) In chronic aortic regurgitation, widened pulse pressure is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the most common causes of mitral valve stenosis?

a) Rheumatic valve disease
b) Mitral annular calcification
c) SLE
d) Congenital

A

a) Rheumatic valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following does NOT mimic the murmur and/or clinical characteristics of mitral stenosis?
a) Gallivardin effect of Aortic stenosis
b) Atrial septal defect
c) Left atrial myxoma
d) Austin Flint murmur of severe aortic regurgitation

A

a) Gallivardin effect of Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients with acute severe MR require urgent stabilization and preparation prior to surgery. Which of the following is pharmacotherapy is indicated?
a) Beta blockers
b) Diuretics
c) Spironolactone
d) Nitroprusside

A

Nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is true of mitral regurgitation
a) A diastolic murmur at the apex that radiates to axilla
b) Associated with loud S1
c) Only left atrial enlargement is present
d) Associated with soft S1

A

d) Associated with soft S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What maneuver move click of mitral valve prolapsed earlier in systole?
a) Valsalva maneuver
b) Squatting
c) Isometric exercise
d) Handgrip

A

a) Valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is Quincke’s pulse?
a) Capillary pulsation, an alternate flushing and pailing of the skin at the root of the nail while pressure is applied to the tip of the finger
b) A rapidly rising pulse
c) A booming pistol shot sound heard over the femoral arteries
d) Head bobbing

A

a) Capillary pulsation, an alternate flushing and pailing of the skin at the root of the nail while pressure is applied to the tip of the finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following murmur increases in intensity upon inspiration (Caravallo’s sign)?
a) Tricuspid regurgitation
b) Mitral regurgitation
c) Ventricular septal defect
d) Aortic stenosis

A

a) Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rheumatic fever is caused by which of the following bacteria?
a) Pseudomonas
b) Streptococcus
c) Staphylococcus
d) Shigella

A

b) Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major Jones criteria?
a) Arthralgia
b) Carditis
c) Erythema marginatum
d) Chorea

A

a) Arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the optimal technique to auscultate an S3 heart sound?

a) Left lower sternal border with the patient supine using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
b) Left upper sternal border at end inspiration using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
c) Right upper sternal border with the patient leaning forward at end expiration using the stethoscope
d) Cardiac apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position using the bell of the stethoscope

A

d) Cardiac apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position using the bell of the stethoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The drug of choice for acute rheumatic fever with arthritis is:
a) Steroids
b) Ibuprofen
c) Aspirin
d) Tramadol

A

c) Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most common involved valve in acute rheumatic fever is:
a) Tricuspid
b) Mitral
c) Aortic
d) Pulmonic

A

b) Mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Primary prevention of rheumatic fever requires adequate therapy of group A streptococcus pharyngitis. The following drugs is indicated:
a) Phenoxy methyl penicillin PO BID x 5 days
b) Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg max 1 gm BID PO x 7 days
c) Single dose benzathine penicillin G 1.2 M
d) Amoxicillin 100 mg/kg OD IV x 5 days

A

c) Single dose benzathine penicillin G 1.2 M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following condition can cause platypnea?
a) Severe mitral regurgitation
b) Left atrial myxoma
c) Atrial septal defect
d) Mitral stenosis

A

b) Left atrial myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Arthritis in acute rheumatic fever is described as:
a) Migratory
b) Symmetrical
c) Involves the proximal interphalangeal joint
d) (+) tenderness

A

a) Migratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to the Jones criteria, which of the symptoms and laboratory result would indicate a diagnosis of ARF?
a) Arthritis, chorea, positive ASO titer
b) Fever, carditis, elevated WBC
c) Elevated CRP, ESR, carditis
d) Arthritis, arthralgia, elevated ESR

A

a) Arthritis, chorea, positive ASO titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The recommended duration of secondary prophylaxis for a patient with rheumatic fever with carditis and residual heart disease
a) 5 years or until 21 y/o (whichever longer)
b) 5 years or until 30 y/o (whichever longer)
c) 10 years or until 21 y/o (whichever longer)
d) 10 years or until age 40 y/o (whichever longer)

A

d) 10 years or until age 40 y/o (whichever longer)

|| a. 5 years or until 21 y/o (whichever longer) - without carditis
c. 10 years or until 21 y/o (whichever longer) - with carditis but without valvular disease

with carditis and persistent valvular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The following secondary prophylaxis strategy of rheumatic fever is/are indicated?
a) Penicillin V potassium 250 mg BID
b) Penicillin G Benzathine 1.2 M IM every 4 weeks
c) Penicillin V Na 500 mg OD
d) Penicillin G Benzathine 1.2 M IM every 4 weeks or Penicillin V K 250 mg BID

A

b) Penicillin G Benzathine 1.2 M IM every 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient was admitted with a BP of 220/120 mmHg with left side weakness, fundoscopy revealed Papilledema. He is in what stage of
hypertension
a) Hypertension Stage 1
b) Hypertension Stage 2
c) Hypertensive Urgency
d) Hypertensive Emergency

A

d) Hypertensive Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Social worker female 45 year old with family history of Hypertension accidentally discovered that her BP is 180/100. She is asymptomatic.
What stage of hypertension is she included?
a) HPN Stage 1
b) HPN Stage 2
c) Hypertensive Urgency
d) Hypertensive Emergency

A

b) HPN Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 50 year old female diabetic complained of chest heaviness with cold sweating. BP was 90/60 mmHg. ECG revealed ST depression in
II, III, AVF and V5 & V6. Troponin T revealed 0-50 ng. What is your diagnosis?
a) Chronic stable angina pectoris (Chronic CAD)
b) Unstable angina pectoris
c) NSTEMI myocardial infarction
d) STEMI myocardial infarction

A

c) NSTEMI myocardial infarction

|

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A post-menopausal female 52 years old, Asymptomatic, would like to know her BP since her mother is hypertensive which started 45 years old. Upon examination her BP is 130/90 mmHg on both arms. What will you do to this patient?
a) Submit patient for 2D-echo doppler
b) Advice 24 hours ambulatory BP monitoring
c) Submit patient for ECG
d) Give antihypertensive drug

A

b) Advice 24 hours ambulatory BP monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 60 year old male admitted with loss of consciousness. He has no history of hypertension but family history of HPN. His BP was 200/100 mmHg. But without significant neurological symptoms. Brain CT scan revealed cerebral infarct at the Temporal Occipital region. He is in what stage of HPN?
a) Stage 2 HPN
b) Malignant HPN
c) Hypertensive Urgency
d) Hypertensive Emergency

A

Hypertensive Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Another 50 years old male patient was admitted because of severe chest heaviness lasting for more than 30 minutes. BP was 160/100 mmHg. ECG revealed ST elevation in II, III, AVF. Troponin I revealed 1,200 ng. He was immediately transferred to the Philippine Heart Center of Asia. What is your diagnosis?

a) Chronic stable angina pectoris (Chronic CAD)
b) Unstable angina pectoris
c) NSTEMI myocardial infarction
d) STEMI myocardial infarction

A

d) STEMI myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 42 years old male patient complained of chest heaviness and brought to the ER. BP was 180/100 mmHg. ECG revealed QS & T wave
inversion in V1-V6. What is your diagnosis?
a) Chronic stable angina pectoris (Chronic CAD)
b) Unstable angina pectoris
c) NSTEMI myocardial infarction
d) STEMI myocardial infarction

A

c) NSTEMI myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to prevent blood clots in patients who had to undergo angioplasty for ACS?
a) Rivaroxaban
b) Fondaparinux
c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)
d) Streptokinase
e) Bivalirudin direct thrombosis inhibition

A

c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Considered superior to clopidogrel and indicated to reduce the rate of CV death. It is used for ACS for the 1st 12 months
a) Rivaroxaban
b) Fondaparinux
c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)
d) Streptokinase
e) Bivalirudin direct thrombosis inhibition

A

c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

16
Q

A 60 year old female was admitted because of easy fatigability, chest discomfort. BP 140/90, HR – 120/min. Lung revealed bilateral crackles, (+) jugular vein discomfort & bilateral lower extremity edema
a) Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction
b) Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction
c) Diastolic heart failure
d) Heart failure with mid ranges EF

A

a) Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

if female – PRESERVED;
if male - REDUCED

16
Q

A patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure suffered from PND & Orthopnea. Which will be the initial treatment for the patients whose lung finding is acute pulmonary edema?
a) Digoxin
b) ARB
c) Furosemide
d) Nebivolol
e) Isosorbide Dinitrate

A

c) Furosemide

17
Q

A 60 year old female was admitted because of easy fatigability, chest discomfort. BP 140/90, HR- 120/min. Lung revealed bilateral crackles, (+) jugular vein discomfort & bilateral lower extremity edema. The best treatment for this patient whose cardiac output is 24 & stroke volume of 40 mL/beat and EF of 20% is:
a) Digoxin
b) Spironolactone
c) Sacubitril/Valsartan
d) Furosemide
e) Isosorbide Dinitrate

A

Furosemide

17
Q

A 50 year old male hypertensive with increase LDL complained of chest heaviness with ECG finding of deep Q and ST elevation in II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. Troponin is 800 mg/mL. Which of the following drug should be given?
a) Rivaroxaban
b) Fondaparinux
c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)
d) Streptokinase
e) Bivalirudin direct thrombosis inhibition

A

c) Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

18
Q

To determine the severity of the heart failure of patients, which of the following test must be requested?
a) CKMP
b) NT Pro BNP
c) Troponin T
d) 2D echo Doppler

A

b) NT Pro BNP

18
Q

The Gold standard in the diagnosis of heart failure is which of the following?
a) ECG
b) Nuclear imaging
c) 2D echo Doppler
d) NT Pro BNP

A

c) 2D echo Doppler

18
Q

A patient is in Chronic Heart Failure and had been taking Digitalis and Aldactone without improvement. What will be the best drug for heart failure?

a) Nebivolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Sacubitril/Valsartan
e) ARB/ACE

A

e) ARB/ACE

18
Q

A 60 years old male patient is in Heart failure with HR 120/min and taking other drugs for other disease. What meds can you add?
a) Nebivolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Sacubitril/Valsartan
e) ARB/ACE

A

Nebivolol

18
Q

John 55 y/o, have severe chest pain, ECG revealed ST elevation in II, III, AVF. What area of the heart is affected?
a) Inferior wall
b) Lateral wall
c) Antero Lateral wall
d) Infero Lateral wall
e) Diffuse

A

a) Inferior wall

18
Q

A 65 years old male patient admitted with severe dyspnea, orthopnea and pulmonary edema. What will be the best drug for the patient?
a) Nebivolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Sacubitril/Valsartan
e) ARB/ACE

A

b) Furosemide

18
Q

68 year old male with history of Atrial fibrillation complained of sudden severe pain in the entire right lower extremity. Pulses not appreciated in the right popliteal posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis artery. Capillary refill is intact, there is no muscle weakness nor sensory loss, there is arterial and venous Doppler signals on bedside. What is the best treatment for this patient?
a) Emergency thrombectomy
b) Streptokinase 250,000 for 30 min. followed by 1,000,000 iu/hr over 12-24 hrs.
c) Heparin IV bolus (80-100 units per kg body weight) and continuous drip. Adjust every 6 hours depending on the PTT
d) Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneous q12
e) Emergency amputation (above the knee)

A

c) Heparin IV bolus (80-100 units per kg body weight) and continuous drip. Adjust every 6 hours depending on the PTT

19
Q

62 year old female, known hypertensive for 20 yrs., non-diabetic, 40 pack years (stopped smoking last year), complained of right ankle and calf pain after walking >200 meters but relieved by rest. BP = 160/100 mmHg, HR = 74/min. Normal rate and rhythm, no murmur, +2 pulses Left femoral, popliteal, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis; +1 pulses Left posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis. Which of the following is the correct treatment for this patient?***
a) Amlodipine 5 mg tab OD. Clopidogrel 75 mg tab, Atorvastatin 40 mg q hs, Vorapaxar 2.5 mg OD
b) Ramipril 10 mg tab, Warfarin 5 mg q hs, Atorvastatin 20 mg q hs. Pentoxifylline 400 mg tid
c) Enalapril 5 mg tab bid, Rivaroxaban 10 mg tab OD, Pitavastatin 2 mg q hs, Sulfoxide 250 mg bid
d) Perindopril 5 mg + Amlodipine 5 mg OD, Aspirin 100 mg OD, Rosuvastatin 20 mg q hs, Cilostazol 50 mg bid
e) Losartan 100 mg bid. Ticagrelor 90 mg tab bid,
Simvastatin 40 mg tab q hs, Beraprost 20 mg tid

A

e) Losartan 100 mg bid. Ticagrelor 90 mg tab bid,
Simvastatin 40 mg tab q hs, Beraprost 20 mg tid

19
Q

56 male, known hypertensive and diabetic for 15 years is complaining of left calf pain after walking for >200 meters and is relieved by rest. There is no calf pain on the right. Palpation of the left popliteal, posterior tibial and dosalis pedis arteries are +1 while the right lower extremity arteries are all +2. Which of the following ankle brachial indices (ABI) is compatible with the patient if he has
peripheral arterial disease (PAD)? – search for normal values of ABI
a) Left ABI = 0.85 : Right ABI = 0.88
b) Left ABI = 0.87 : Right ABI = 1.35
c) Left ABI = 0.92 : Right ABI = 1.20
d) Left ABI = 1.30 : Right ABI = 0.80
e) Left ABI = 1.50 : Right ABI = 1.10

A

b) Left ABI = 0.87 : Right ABI = 1.35

19
Q

Localized, often circular, whitish and atrophic skin areas surrounded by dilated capillary spots and sometimes hyperpigmentation is a description of what stage of deep venous insufficiency?
a) C1
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4
e) C5

A

d) C4

19
Q

If a patient is in heart failure and hypertensive, which will be the best drugs for the patient?
a) Nebivolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Sacubitril/Valsartan
e) ARB/ACE

A

e) ARB/ACE

20
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial ulcer?
a) Affects the lower 3rd of the leg, malleolar area
b) Wounds are described as weeping, irregular borders and are painful
c) Affects the pressure sites, heels and metatarsals
d) Wounds are deep, purulent discharge, painless
e) Affects most distal areas especially the toes

A

e) Affects most distal areas especially the toes

20
Q

28 yr. old female, pregnant 24 weeks ages of gestation while on a flight from Amsterdam to Manila (approximately 14 hrs.) had sudden
pain, erythema swelling of the left thigh with no associated fever 2 hours prior to arrival. Upon arrival in Manila, she was brought to a
hospital for evaluation and treatment. What is the recommended test to diagnose deep venous thrombosis for this patient?
a) CT venography
b) D-dimer
c) MR Venography
d) Venous duplex scan of both lower extremities
e) Venogram

A

d) Venous duplex scan of both lower extremities

20
Q

45 year old female is being treated with an anticoagulant for acute left lower extremity deep vein thrombosis. 5 days while on treatment she developed intracranial hemorrhage. Besides stopping the medications, how will you treat the bleeding due to the anticoagulant?
a) Give Idarucizumab IV for bleeding due to Rivaroxaban
b) Give Andexanet alpha IV for bleeding due to Apixaban
c) Give Vitamin K IV for bleeding due to Enoxaparin
d) Give Ciraparantag IV for bleeding due to Unfractionated heparin
e) Give Fresh frozen plasma for bleeding due to
Fondaparinux

A

b) Give Andexanet alpha IV for bleeding due to Apixaban

21
Q

50 year old male, businessman known atrial fibrillation had sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain with diaphoresis. Patient is lethargic, BP = 80/50, HR = 115/min, RR = 34, O2 sat= 88%, Temp = 36C. Irregularly irregular rhythm. ECG showed Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. CXR showed cardiomegaly. Troponin I is positive. The initial impression is acute pulmonary embolism. What exam will confirm the diagnosis of acute pulmonary embolism? Presuming all exams are available in the hospital
a) CT Angiography
b) D-dimer
c) 2D echo with Doppler
d) MRA
e) Venous duplex scan of both lower extremities

A

a) CT Angiography

21
Q

28 yr. old female, pregnant 24 weeks ages of gestation while on a flight from Amsterdam to Manila (approximately 14 hrs.) had sudden pain, erythema swelling of the left thigh with no associated fever 2 hours prior to arrival. Upon arrival in Manila, she was brought to a hospital for evaluation and treatment. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?
a) Warfarin 5 mg + Dalteparin 200 iu/kg OD
b) Rivaroxaban 15 mg bid x 3 weeks then 20 mg OD x 9 weeks
c) Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneous q12
d) Catheter directed thrombolysis
e) Dabigatran 150 mg tab bid

A

c) Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneous q12

21
Q

50 year old male, businessman known atrial fibrillation had sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain with diaphoresis. Patient is lethargic, BP = 80/50, HR = 115/min, RR = 34, O2 sat= 88%, Temp = 36C, 70 kg. Irregularly irregular rhythm. ECG showed Atrial fibrillation with rapid
ventricular response. CXR showed cardiomegaly. Troponin I is positive. The initial impression is acute pulmonary embolism. What
is the recommended treatment for this patient?
a) Enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneous q 12 + warfarin 5 mg q hs
b) Surgical pulmonary embolectomy
c) Fondaparinux 7.5 mg subcutaneous OD + Dabigatran 150 mg tab bid
d) Percutaneous catheter-directed treatment
e) RtPA 100 mg IV over 2 hours

A

c) Fondaparinux 7.5 mg subcutaneous OD + Dabigatran 150 mg tab bid

22
Q

Which among the cardiac arrhythmias is most prone to cause cardio embolism?
a) Atrial fibrillation
b) Normal Sinus Rhythm
c) Sinus bradycardia
d) Complete Heart Block

A

a) Atrial fibrillation

23
Q

Which among the Covid 19 drug treatments is known to prolong the QTc?
a) Hydroxychloroquine
b) Convalescent plasma
c) Remdesivir
d) Tocilizumab

A

a) Hydroxychloroquine

24
Q

Which part of the cardiac conduction system has the longest refractory period?
a) AV node
b) Left bundle
c) Sinus node
d) Right bundle

A

AV Node

25
Q

The P wave in the electrocardiogram represents:
a) Atrial depolarization
b) Ventricular depolarization
c) Atrial repolarization
d) Phase 2 of the ventricles

A

a) Atrial depolarization

26
Q

The Q wave in the electrocardiogram is:
a) First upward deflection on the QRS complex
b) Suggestive of an old previous myocardial infarction
c) Suggestive of an acute myocardial infarction
d) Second upward deflection after the R wave

A

b) Suggestive of an old previous myocardial infarction

27
Q

The primary pacemaker of the heart is located in:
a) Right Atrium
b) Right Ventricle
c) Left Atrium
d) Left Ventricle

A

a) Right Atrium

28
Q

The primary pacemaker of the heart is called:
a) Sinus node
b) Bundle of His
c) AV node
d) Bundle branch

A

a) Sinus node

29
Q

Which is the most important part of the ECG complex to diagnose acute myocardial infarction?
a) PR segment
b) ST segment
c) QRS complex
d) T wave

A

b) ST segment

30
Q

Which is the most vulnerable period of the electrical cardiac cycle prone to develop malignant cardiac arrhythmias?
a) P wave
b) PR segment
c) QRS complex
d) Peak of the T wave

A

b) PR segment

31
Q

Which cardiac arrhythmia is most frequently associated with severe lung disease and chronic hypoxemia especially COPD?
a) Ventricular tachycardia
b) Complete heart block
c) Sinus bradycardia
d) Multifocal atrial tachycardia

A

d) Multifocal atrial tachycardia

32
Q

What does the QRS complex on the ECG represent?
a) Rapid depolarization of the ventricles
b) Plateau phase of the ventricles
c) Rapid repolarization of the ventricles
d) Atrial depolarization

A

a) Rapid depolarization of the ventricles

33
Q

The normal paper speed when a 12 lead ECG is done on a patient is:
a) 10 mm/sec
b) 25 mm/sec
c) 50 mm/sec
d) 100 cm/sec

A

b) 25 mm/sec

34
Q

Which ECG leads do you examine if you suspect thrombosis of the right coronary artery?
a) Lead II
b) Lead III
c) Lead AVF
d) ALL

A

d) ALL

35
Q

The chest lead V5 should be placed in which specific area of the chest wall
a) 2nd intercostal space right sternal margin
b) 3rd intercostal space anterior axillary line
c) 4th intercostal space mid-clavicular line
d) 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line

A

d) 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line

36
Q

Upon examining a patient, you noticed his apex beat is displaced to the 6th intercostal space mid axillary line. What would you expect on
his 12 lead ECG?
a) Tall R wave in V1
b) Q wave in Leads II, III, AVF
c) Tall R in V5 and V6 and deep S wave in V1
d) Right axis deviation

A

c) Tall R in V5 and V6 and deep S wave in V1

37
Q

Your auscultation on a patient yielded a loud S1, an opening snap and a Grade 3 diastolic rumble at the apex?
a) P wave is 0.12 s or 3 small squares in duration in leads II,III, AVF
b) Tall R in V5 and V6
c) Deep S waves in V1
d) Tall R in Lead I

A

a) P wave is 0.12 s or 3 small squares in duration in leads II,III, AVF

38
Q

Palpation of the chest revealed a left parasternal lift with a Grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the lower left parasternal border which increases in intensity on inspiration. With these PE findings, which ECG finding would you expect?
a) Tall R in V1
b) R/5 ratio +1
c) Right Axis deviation
d) ALL

A

d) ALL

39
Q

Which phase of the electrical cardiac cycle involves large amount of Na entering the cell with opening of Na channels along the cell
membrane?
a) Rapid depolarization
b) Plateau phase
c) Early repolarization
d) Rapid repolarization

A

a) Rapid depolarization

40
Q

Chest lead V1 should be placed on which part of the chest wall?
a) 4th intercostal space right sternal margin
b) 4th intercostal space left sternal margin
c) 5th intercostal space midclavicular line
d) 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line

A

a) 4th intercostal space right sternal margin

41
Q

Lead AVR represents which particular view of wall of the heart?
a) Inferior wall
b) Anterior wall
c) Lateral wall
d) No specific view

A

d) No specific view

IM (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions