Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

first line treatment for tonic clonic seizures in child bearing age?

A

lamotrigine

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2
Q

what is an important mimic of TIA that must be ruled out?

A

hypoglycaemia

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3
Q

what are the key features in focal seizures? (6)

A
  • Often have AURAs
    • Loss of awareness with blank look
    • Automatisms, posturing or jerking depending on brain area
    • May evolve to tonic clonic
    • Often underlying brain lesion
    • May or may not have LOC
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4
Q

which part (lobe) of the brain would a lesion cause disinhibition?

A

frontal lobe

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5
Q

can you breastfeed whilst taking AEDs?

A

generally yes with the possible exception of the barbiturates

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6
Q

management of bell’s palsy

A

oral prednisolone and artificial tears

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7
Q

what is Cushing’s triad and what does it indicate?

A

Cushing’s triad: widening pulse pressure, bradycardia and irregular (kaussmaul) breathing, is a late sign indicating impending brain herniation ->CONING

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8
Q

what primary cancer is most likely to be responsible for brain cancer?

A

lung cancer

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9
Q

define Guillain barre syndrome

A

an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy characterised by a rapid, progressive, ascending symmetrical weakness, often preceded by infection

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10
Q

what is the difference between oligodendrocytes and schwann cells, and what conditions can affect these?

A

oligodendrocytes= myelinating cells of CNS- MS
schwann cells= myelinating cells of PNS- GBS

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11
Q

what are the key features of diabetic neuropathy?

A
  • commonly distal symmetrical polyneuropathy
  • usually sensorimotor and autonomic dysfunction
  • glove and stocking distribution
    length related distribution so usually toes and legs affected
  • higher incidence compressive neuropathy- carpal tunnel, ulnar/ peroneal neuropathy
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12
Q

what is the treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A

3 weeks oral predinsolone, if not improvement, urgent referral to ENT

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13
Q

where would a lesion be in painful third nerve palsy?

A

posterior communicating artery

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14
Q

where do 5HT3 (serotonin) antagonists work in the brain in anti emetics?

A

medulla oblongata

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15
Q

what type of medication in Parkinson’s can cause personality changes (inhibition disorder)?

A

dopamine receptor agonists- ropinirole, bromocriptine, cabergoline, apomorphine

manifest as excessive gambling, sexual disinhibition etc. Other side effects of this class of drugs include nausea and daytime drowsiness.

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16
Q

what is the strongest risk factor of Bell’s palsy?

A

pregnancy

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17
Q

what is the treatment of cluster headaches?

A

high flow oxygen and subcutaneous triptan

18
Q

what muscles are usually spared in MND?

A

ocular muscles

19
Q

what is an important side effect of lamotrigine?

A

steve johnson syndrome

20
Q

In trauma, how would you test for CSF leaking from nose or ear?

A

glucose

21
Q

what is the investigation of choice for MS

A

MRI WITH contrast

22
Q

what movement can worsen symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

raising arm above head

23
Q

what are the medications/ drugs that can cause IIH?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
steroids
tetracyclines
retinoids (isotretinoin, tretinoin) / vitamin A
lithium

24
Q

what would a LP show in GBS?

A

increased protein levels and normal WCC

25
Q

what is the CI of triptan use?

A

patients with a history of, or significant risk factors for, ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease

26
Q

what is the gene associated with MS?

A

HLA-DR2 ass

27
Q

define ataxic gait

A

wide based gait with loss of heel to toe walking (coordination)
cerebellar injury

28
Q

define antalgic gait

A

limp caused by pain worse on weight bearing affected limb

29
Q

what neurocutaneous syndrome is ass with acoustic neuroma?

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

30
Q

In strokes, an extended target time of up to 24 hours may be considered in which of the following circumstances?

A

limited infarct core volume

31
Q

where does spinothalamic tract decussate in the spinal cord?

A

anterior white commissure

32
Q

how should carotid artery stenosis be investigated?

A

duplex US

33
Q

what does an homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing suggest the lesion is?

A

occipital lobe

34
Q

first line management for subdural haemorrhage?

A

burr hole craniostomy

35
Q

what are the antibodies for MG?

A

positive muscle specific tyranise kinase antibodies

36
Q

side effects of sodium valporate

A

ataxia, Anaemia, confusion, gastric irritation, haemorrhage, hyponatraemia, tremor, weight gain.

37
Q

what does a biconvex shape on CT head show?

A

extra dural haematoma

38
Q

most common cause of intracerebral haemorrhage (basal ganglia)

A

hypertension

39
Q

first line treatment trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamezepine

40
Q
A