Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

first line treatment for tonic clonic seizures in child bearing age?

A

lamotrigine

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2
Q

what is an important mimic of TIA that must be ruled out?

A

hypoglycaemia

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3
Q

what are the key features in focal seizures? (6)

A
  • Often have AURAs
    • Loss of awareness with blank look
    • Automatisms, posturing or jerking depending on brain area
    • May evolve to tonic clonic
    • Often underlying brain lesion
    • May or may not have LOC
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4
Q

which part (lobe) of the brain would a lesion cause disinhibition?

A

frontal lobe

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5
Q

can you breastfeed whilst taking AEDs?

A

generally yes with the possible exception of the barbiturates

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6
Q

management of bell’s palsy

A

oral prednisolone and artificial tears

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7
Q

what is Cushing’s triad and what does it indicate?

A

Cushing’s triad: widening pulse pressure, bradycardia and irregular (kaussmaul) breathing, is a late sign indicating impending brain herniation ->CONING

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8
Q

what primary cancer is most likely to be responsible for brain cancer?

A

lung cancer

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9
Q

define Guillain barre syndrome

A

an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy characterised by a rapid, progressive, ascending symmetrical weakness, often preceded by infection

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10
Q

what is the difference between oligodendrocytes and schwann cells, and what conditions can affect these?

A

oligodendrocytes= myelinating cells of CNS- MS
schwann cells= myelinating cells of PNS- GBS

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11
Q

what are the key features of diabetic neuropathy?

A
  • commonly distal symmetrical polyneuropathy
  • usually sensorimotor and autonomic dysfunction
  • glove and stocking distribution
    length related distribution so usually toes and legs affected
  • higher incidence compressive neuropathy- carpal tunnel, ulnar/ peroneal neuropathy
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12
Q

what is the treatment for Bell’s palsy?

A

3 weeks oral predinsolone, if not improvement, urgent referral to ENT

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13
Q

where would a lesion be in painful third nerve palsy?

A

posterior communicating artery

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14
Q

where do 5HT3 (serotonin) antagonists work in the brain in anti emetics?

A

medulla oblongata

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15
Q

what type of medication in Parkinson’s can cause personality changes (inhibition disorder)?

A

dopamine receptor agonists- ropinirole, bromocriptine, cabergoline, apomorphine

manifest as excessive gambling, sexual disinhibition etc. Other side effects of this class of drugs include nausea and daytime drowsiness.

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16
Q

what is the strongest risk factor of Bell’s palsy?

A

pregnancy

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17
Q

what is the treatment of cluster headaches?

A

high flow oxygen and subcutaneous triptan

18
Q

what muscles are usually spared in MND?

A

ocular muscles

19
Q

what is an important side effect of lamotrigine?

A

steve johnson syndrome

20
Q

In trauma, how would you test for CSF leaking from nose or ear?

21
Q

what is the investigation of choice for MS

A

MRI WITH contrast

22
Q

what movement can worsen symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

raising arm above head

23
Q

what are the medications/ drugs that can cause IIH?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
steroids
tetracyclines
retinoids (isotretinoin, tretinoin) / vitamin A
lithium

24
Q

what would a LP show in GBS?

A

increased protein levels and normal WCC

25
what is the CI of triptan use?
patients with a history of, or significant risk factors for, ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease
26
what is the gene associated with MS?
HLA-DR2 ass
27
define ataxic gait
wide based gait with loss of heel to toe walking (coordination) cerebellar injury
28
define antalgic gait
limp caused by pain worse on weight bearing affected limb
29
what neurocutaneous syndrome is ass with acoustic neuroma?
neurofibromatosis type 2
30
In strokes, an extended target time of up to 24 hours may be considered in which of the following circumstances?
limited infarct core volume
31
where does spinothalamic tract decussate in the spinal cord?
anterior white commissure
32
how should carotid artery stenosis be investigated?
duplex US
33
what does an homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing suggest the lesion is?
occipital lobe
34
first line management for subdural haemorrhage?
burr hole craniostomy
35
what are the antibodies for MG?
positive muscle specific tyranise kinase antibodies
36
side effects of sodium valporate
ataxia, Anaemia, confusion, gastric irritation, haemorrhage, hyponatraemia, tremor, weight gain.
37
what does a biconvex shape on CT head show?
extra dural haematoma
38
most common cause of intracerebral haemorrhage (basal ganglia)
hypertension
39
first line treatment trigeminal neuralgia
carbamezepine
40