NeuroExam/Dx/PathoPhys Dz Flashcards

1
Q

Neuroanatomic localization to alterations in a patient sensorium is usually caused by alternation in which region?
A) Ascending reticular activating system
B) Cerebellum
C) Forebrain
D) Cranial nerve VIII

A

A) Ascending reticular activating system

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2
Q
What is pleurothotonus?
	A) Multiple sites of flaccid paralysis
	B) Multiple sites of rigid extension
	C) Deviation of the head and neck to one side
	D) Seen with decerebellate rigidity
A

C) Deviation of the head and neck to one side

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3
Q

What is the difference between decerebellate rigidity and decerebrate rigidity?
A) Decerebrate causes flexion of hips.
B) Decerebrate generally doesn’t cause change in mentation.
C) Decerebellate rigidity involves flexion of the hips.
D) Decerebellate always affects mentation

A

C) Decerebellate rigidity involves flexion of the hips.

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4
Q

Which of the following is false regarding reflexes?

a. A normal reflex requires an intact afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) arm
b. The afferent and efferent arms tend not to enter and exit the spinal cord at the same segments
c. The afferent arm is composed of sensory receptors, sensory nerve, dorsal nerve root, and spinal cord segment
d. Sensory receptors include the muscle spindle or Golgi tendon organ

A

b. The afferent and efferent arms tend not to enter and exit the spinal cord at the same segments

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5
Q

Which of the following reflexes is not matched with the appropriate nerve segments

a. Patellar reflex – l4-l6
b. Biceps – C6-C8
c. Triceps – C7-T2
d. Withdrawal – C1-C5

A

d. Withdrawal – C1-C5 (C6-T2)

Patellar: femoral
Biceps: w/ musculocutaneous
Triceps: Radial n.
L6-S1 is sciatic

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6
Q
The menace is a learned response that may not be present until which age?
6-8 weeks
8-10 weeks
10-12 weeks
12-14 weeks
A

10-12 weeks

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7
Q
The menace response requires all these aspects of the brain to function except which?
Cerebellum
Medial geniculate nucleus.
Occipital lobe of the cerebrum
Optic nerve
A

Medial geniculate nucleus. (Should be lateral gen nucleus)

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8
Q

Describe what it means to have a negative direct but positive indirect PLR verse a negative direct and negative indirect PLR? Where are the lesions?

A

if the nonresponsive pupil is the result of an ocular, retinal, or optic nerve lesion, it will constrict when the light is directed into the contralateral eye (e.g., positive indirect pupillary light reflex).
If the nonresponsive eye remains dilated with light directed into the unaffected eye, a lesion involving the parasympathetic oculomotor nerve nucleus of CN III should be suspected.

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9
Q

Which of the following autonomous zones will have sensation if the sciatic nerve is damaged?

  1. Dorsal surface
  2. Plantar surface
  3. Medial surface
  4. Lateral surfac
A

Medial surface (saphaneous is a br of femoral nerve that projects to L4-L6 spinal cord segments)

Lateral surface - not an autonomous zone

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10
Q

Provide the localization for the following clinical signs: Normal mentation, reduced tone in the thoracic limbs, normal to exaggerated tone in pelvic limbs, hypalgesia in thoracic limbs, unilateral horner syndrome.

  1. C1-C5
  2. C6-T2
  3. T3-L3
  4. Mid to caudal brainstem
A

C6-T2 (T1-T3 specifically with the Horner’s syndrome)

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11
Q

Provide the localization for the following clinical signs: depressed mental state, vestibular ataxia, facial paresis, increased tone in all four limbs,

  1. Prosencephalon
  2. C1-C5
  3. Mid to caudal brainstem
  4. Cerebellum
A
  1. Mid to caudal brainstem (Pontine lesion)
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12
Q

True/false: Spinal shock is disruption of ascending inhibitory axons of border cells in the dorsolateral border of the ventral grey matter L1-L4.

A

False

Correct answer is schiff-sherrington

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13
Q

T/F Dysmetria or a disturbance in rate, range and force of movement is seen with general ataxia

A

False: Cerebellar ataxia

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14
Q

T/F reticulospinal and rubrospinal tracts function in gait generation

A

True

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15
Q

T/F Abnormal postural reactions detect a lesion functionally ipsilateral to the level of the medulla oblongata

A

False: midbrain

anatomic crossover at medulla oblongata

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16
Q

Which segments and nerves need to function for cutaneous trunci m. reflex

A

C8-T1 and both lateral thoracic nerves

17
Q

Describe path for horner’s syndrome

A

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons in TL spinal cord –> T1-T3→ brachial plexus → vagosymp trunk → cranial cervical ganglia → cranial cavity + ophthalmic br of trigeminal → innervate dilator m. of pupil in iris

18
Q

What is true about touching the medial aspect of nasal mucosa?

a. Tests the contralateral br of ophthalmic and maxillary n
b. Nociceptive path goes to ipsilateral thalmus
c. A Contralateral prosencephalic lesion could be localized
d. A dropped jaw could be concurrent

A

C

isplat ophto+max
Contralateral thalmus
dropped jaw = bilateral mandibular br of trigeminal nerve

19
Q

Which is true?

a. Law of electromagnetic induction = change in strength and direction of magnetic field results in electrical voltage in a coiled wire
b. Weighting = radiofrequency excitation followed by relaxation
c. Pulse sequence = accentuating variation in signal by manipulating parameters

A

A true
B weighting –> variation in signal
c. Pulse sequence = excitation/relaxation

20
Q

Name 3 types edema of the neuro system

A

vasogenic, cytotoxic, interstitial

21
Q

True/False: myelographic techniques use ionic contrast media iohexal or iopamidol

A

False: NONionic

22
Q
What layers compose the subarachnoid space?
A) pia and dura
B) pia and arachnoid 
C) arachnoid and dura 
D) epidural and arachnoid
A

B pia and arachnoid

Leptomeninges = arachnoid and pia --> contains CSF
Pachymeninges = dura and arachnoid
23
Q
Where is csf produced?
A) lateral ventricle
B) third ventricle
C) fourth ventricle
D) all of the above
A

D all

24
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

a. the blood brain barrier is composed of endothelial cell tight junctions, astrocyte processes, basal lamina, pericytes, and perivascular microglia
b. Free diffusion through the blood brain barrier is dependent upon substance lipid solubility, ionization, and size
c. Substances such as glucose, amino acids, and thiamine are freely diffusible through the blood brain barrier
d. The antigen presenting cells of the blood brain barrier are the endothelial cells and perivascular microglial cells

A

C
Specific transport systems for glucose, amino acids, and thiamine
cytokines and certain drugs are freely diffusible through the blood brain barrie

25
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. The meninges and choroid plexus do not have a blood brain barrier
B. The CNS is not immunologically privileged
C. Oligodendrocytes are the resident immune and phagocytic cell of the CNS
D. Aminoglycosides have good penetration of the blood brain barrier

A

A true

microglial cells = resident immune and phagocytic cells

26
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Brain trauma typically causes both focal and diffuse pathologic changes
B. Diffuse brain injury is caused by brain swelling, hypoxia, and diffuse axonal injury
C. Axonal injury causes membrane damage allowing unregulated potassium entry into the cell and depolarization
D. Decrease perfusion to an area of the CNS typically leads to cytotoxic edema

A

C false

Axonal injury leads to membrane damage allowing unregulated SODIUM entry into the cell and subsequent depolarization

27
Q

True/False

• Axonal injury is the cause of posttraumatic coma and death in patients that do not have a mass identified

A

True

28
Q
When nerves are damaged, what neurotransmitter increases extracellularly due to increased neuronal release and decreased astrocyte uptake?
•	Acetylcholine
•	Gaba
•	Glutamate
•	Serotonin
A

Glutamate

29
Q
What does increase in glutamate lead to an increase of inside of the cell?
•	Na+
•	K+
•	Ca2+
•	Phosphorous
A

Sodium and Calcium

30
Q

Which is FALSE about the effects of increase in calcium?
• Activates intracellular proteases such as calpains and caspase
• Leads to destruction of the cytoskeleton and chromosomes and initiate programmed cell death.
• Activates phospholipase A2, thereby producing eicosanoids and initiating an antiinflammatory response
• Binds intracellular phosphates, further depleting the cell of energy sources.

A

C false

phospholipase A2–> inflammatory response

31
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
• Leukotrienes and other inflammatory mediators have effects on ionic conductances and synaptic transmission
• Failure of ion pumps at the cell membrane may result in interstitial edema
• Genetic basis for degenerative changes have been found in humans and animals both young and old.
• Knowing the type of edema present helps direct treatment.

A

• Failure of ion pumps at the cell membrane may result in (cytotoxic) edema

32
Q
At what age does Hansen type I degeneration peak in dogs (yrs)? 
•	2-7
•	5-8
•	6-9
•	3-4
A

B. 5-8

33
Q
Characteristics of cytotoxic edema include?
•	Increased vascular permeability 
•	Presence of a normal BBB
•	Increased intraventricular pressure
•	Secondary effect of Elevated PaCO2
A

B correct
Increased vascular permeability = vasogenic
Increased intraventricular pressure= interstitial
Elevated PaCO2 –>in vasodilation. Cytotoxic edema is from vasoconstriction → ischemia

34
Q

Which is true about autoregulation of CNS perfusion?

a. Oligodendrocytes detect changes in chemical milieu
b. Very sensitive to changes in PaO2
c. Endothelial derived factors largely mediate dilation and constriction of pressure vessels
d. Metbolic is the only means of regulation

A

C is correct

Astrocytes: detect chemicals
PaCO2 increase –> vasodilation of cerebral vessels
metabolic AND Pressure autoregulation

35
Q

true or false: hansen type II is a protrusion of the dorsal annulus and common in younger dogs

A

False, OLDER dogs

36
Q

Which is true?
a. Oligodendrocytes and microglial cells can be regenerated readily
B. paritially denervated muscle cannot be reinervated by neighboring motor units
c. Astrocytes help axons grow/sprout
d. Myelin contains ligands that activate nogo recpetors–> growth cone collapse

A

D

A oligodendrocytes + astrocytes
B. can
C. Astrocytes produce inhibitory molecules

37
Q

what is the normal intracranial pressure?

A

8-12 mmHg