Neuro week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Coma

A

Unarousable unresponsiveness, no purposeful responses to internal or external stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Akinetic mutism

A

state of unresponsiveness to the environment in which the patient makes no voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

persistent vegitative state

A

unresponsive patient resumes sleep-wake cycles after coma but is devoid of cognitive or affective mental function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

minimally conscious state

A

inconsistent but reproducible signs of awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Locked-in syndrome

A

lesion affecting the pons and results in paralysis and the inability to speak, but vertical eye movements and lid evaluation remain intact and are used to indicate responsiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical manifestations for altered level of consciousness

A

Occur along a continuum, and the clinical manifestations depend on where the patient is on the continuum.

Initial alterations = subtle behavioral changes, such as restlessness or increased anxiety. The pupils, normally round and quickly reactive to light, become sluggish (response is slower)

As the patient’s state of alertness and consciousness decreases, changes occur in the pupillary response, eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response.

As the patient becomes comatose, the pupils become fixed (no response to light). The patient in a coma does not open the eyes to voice or command, respond verbally, or move the extremities in response to a request to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Altered level of consciousness: assessment

A

evaluation of mental status, cranial nerve function, cerebellar function (balance, coordination), reflexes, and motor/sensory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Altered level of consciousness: diagnostics

A
GCS
CT
Perfusion CT
MRI
MRS
EEG
PET
SPECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Altered level of consciousness: labs

A
BG
electrolytes
serum ammonia
Liver function tests
BUN
serum osmolality
prothrombin
partial thromboplastin
etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Altered level of consciousness: medical management

A

nutritional support, adequate O2 and perfusion, circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Go review and take notes on slide 4 “protecting the patient”

A

you may already know a lot of these things that is why i am not putting it in here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Head injury: focus

A

prevention (seatbelt, helmet, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Primary head injury

A

Initial damage (concussion, contusion, laceration, torn blood vessel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Secondary head injury

A

Ensuing hours or days after the injury, resulting in cerebral edema, ischemia, seizures, infection, hyperthermia, hypovolemia, hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Skull fractures: simple, comminuted, depressed, basilar

A

simple: break in continuity
Comminuted: more than 2 pieces
Depressed: compressed onto brain tissue
Basilar: back of head area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does a patient with a skull fracture generally look like?

A

Depends on severity. Confused, forgetful, not as sharp as they used to be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do skull fractures frequently produce?

A

Hemorrhage from the nose, pharynx, or ears, and blood may appear under the conjunctiva. You may also note an area of ecchymosis that may be seen over the mastoid (Battle sign) develop 12-24 hours after injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When might a basilar skull fracture be suspected?

A

suspected when cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) escapes from the ears (CSF otorrhea) and the nose (CSF rhinorrhea). A halo sign (a blood stain surrounded by a yellowish stain) may be seen on bed linens or on the headdressing and is highly suggestive of a CSF leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is drainage of CSF a serious issue

A

meningeal infection, abscess formation, and osteomyelitis can occur if organisms gain access to the cranial contents via the nose, ear, or sinus through a tear in the dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Skull fracture: assessment

A

close observation, do not blow nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Skull fracture: something the nurse should remember to do

A

keep HOB at 30 or above to reduce ICP and promote spontaneous close of the leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Concussion

A

(also referred to as a mild TBI) involves an alteration in mental status that results from trauma and may or may not involve loss of consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Concussion: how long does it last and what are the s/s

A

no longer than 24 hours and may include symptoms such asheadache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia (sensitivity to light), amnesia, and blurry vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Concussion: treatment

A

observing the patient for symptoms, including headache, dizziness, lethargy, irritability, anxiety, photophobia, phonophobia (fear of sound or of speaking aloud), difficulty concentrating, and memory difficulties.

The occurrence of these symptoms after the injury is referred to aspostconcussive syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Contussion

A

more severe than concussion; bruising of brain with possible surface hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Contussion: s/s

A

patient unconscious for more than few seconds or minutes
– may lie motionless, faint pulse, shallow respirations, cool, pale skin

– may be aroused with effort but soon slips back into unconsciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diffuse axonal injury

A

widespread damage to axons in the cerebral hemispheres, corpus callosum, and brainstem. It can be seen with mild, moderate, or severe head trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diffuse axonal injury: s/s

A
  • The patient experiencesimmediate coma, global cerebral edema, decorticate and decerebrate rigidity, orposturing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Decoricate

A

posturing involves abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension of the lower extremities and indicates damage to the upper midbrain;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Decerebrate

A

posturing involves extreme extension of the upper and lower extremities and indicates severe damage to the brain at the lower midbrain and upper pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage: Epidural hematoma

A

symptoms are caused by expanding hematoma

Momentary loss of consciousness then will become lucid – CSF trying to compensate and regain hemostatsis.

If not – sudden signs of compression appear – deteriorates rapidly. EXTREME emergency – burr holes to decrease pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage: Subdural hematoma

A

Collection of blood between dura and brain

a. acute (24-48)
b. subacute (48 hours-2 weeks after injury)

change in LOC, pupils reaction, hemiparesis, gait disturbances, headache, aphasia, AMS, agitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Intracerebral hemorrhage: solution

A

decompressed caniotomies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Brain injury management

A

A patient with a head injury is presumed to have a cervical spine injury until such injury is ruled out; therefore, immobilization of the spine via cervical collar, spinal backboard, and the avoidance of movement is essential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TBI focused assessment

A

a. ALOC
b. Pupillary abnormalities
c. Sudden onset neuro deficits
d. changes in vitals
e. changes in vision, hearing and sensory functions
f. headaches
g. seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatments to prevent secondary brain injury

A

stabilization of CV and respiratory function to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion, control of hemorrhage and hypovolemia, and maintenance of optimal ABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ICP: Monro-Kellie hypothesis

A

because of the limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the components causes a change in the volume of the others. Due to this limited space, the brain compensates by moving around CFS, increase the absorption or decreasing its production, or decreasing blood volume. If these compensations were not made, ICP would rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Normal ICP

A

5 - 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When does treatment to correct ICP begin

A

treatment begins at 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Early signs of increased ICP

A

HA, N/V, behavior change (restless, disorientation)

Change in LOC.
Agitation
Slowing of speech
Delay in response to verbal orders

Any sudden condition such as restlessness, confusion, increased drowsiness has neurological significance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How might you assess someone if you were worried about increased ICP?

A

GCS, sternal rub, nail bed stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

increased ICP: priority intervention

A

airway, restoring neuro function, HOB 30 or more, fluid restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

increased ICP: medications used/not used

A

Used: Mannitol, hypertonic solutions
NO: hypotonic solutions (0.45% NS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

increased ICP: assessment

A

Lumbar puncture is avoided in patients with increased ICP, because the sudden release of pressure in the lumbar area can cause the brain to herniate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Late signs of increased ICP

A

Comatose
Decreased rr and pulse
Increased temp., BP, and pulse pressure
Fluctuating pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Management of ICP

A
Osmotic diuretics
Fluid restriction
Draining CSF
Control fever
Maintain systemic BP and oxygenation
Reduce metabolic demands
HOB 30+
Neck stays aligned
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can a nurse reduce metabolic demands?

A

dim lights, decrease stimulation, bed rest, anxiolytics, cluster cares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the primary hormone with the posterior pituitary gland?

A

ADH (vasopressin) –> think fluid balance with this hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HYPO-ADH =

A

diabetes insipidus (HIGH AND DRY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypo-AHD (diabetes insipidus): manifestations

A
peeing 
weak, thready pulse
decrease skin turgor
dizzy, low BP
hemoconcentration - hypernatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hypo-ADH (diabetes insipidus): treatment

A

Need to replace vasopressin using desmopressin

Thiazide diuretic to help stimulate vasopressin

DO NOT RESTRICT FLUID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hyper-ADH =

A

SIADH (too much ADH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hyper-ADH (SIADH): manifestations

A
Reabsorbing more water
Bounding pulse
Increase BP
HA
Edema
USG - 1.030 (dark, concentrated)
Hemodilution - severe hyponatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hyper-ADH (SIADH): tx

A
I&O
Daily weight
cognition
HOB flat to promote venous return
Fl. restriction
Furosemide only is Na is > 125
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is an indication that lasix should NOT be given

A

Na+ less than 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Intracranial surgery: craniotomy

A

involves opening the skull surgically to gain access to intracranial structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bone flat

A

– remove portion of skull; allows brain to swell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Burr hole

A

drill into brain to relieve presssure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Types of intracranial surgery

A

Supratentorial
Infratentorial
Transsphenoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Nursing interventions: Supratentorial

A

Maintain head of bed elevated at 30 degrees, with neck in neutral alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Nursing interventions: Infratentorial

A

Maintain neck in straight alignment

Avoid flexion of the neck to prevent possible tearing of the suture line.

62
Q

Nursing interventions: Transsphenoidal

A

Maintain nasal packing in place and reinforce as needed.

Instruct patient to avoid blowing the nose.
Provide oral care according to institutional procedure.

Keep HOB elevated to promote venous drainage

63
Q

What are possible complications of manipulation of the pituitary gland that you might see with a transsphenoidal intracranial surgery

A

CSF leak, visual disturbances, post op meningitis, SIADH

64
Q

Intracranial surgery: postop nursing management

A

Reducing cerebral edema (dexamethasone)
Pain relief
Prevent sz. (phenytoin, levetiracetam)
Monitor ICP

65
Q

Complete spinal cord lesion

A

total loss of sensation and voluntary muscle control below the lesion

66
Q

What are the most common spinal cord injuries?

A

C5 & 6
T12
L1

67
Q

Primary vs secondary spinal cord injuries

A

Primary: result of initial trauma

Secondary: can be reverses during 4-6 hours after. Results from nerve fibers swell and disintegrate leading to hypoxia, ischemia, edema, hemorrhage

68
Q

What are we concerned about the higher the spinal cord injury?

A

respirations

69
Q

Acute complications SCI: spinal shock

A

Depression of reflex activity in spinal cord below the level of injury

70
Q

What may be affected with spinal shock, and how is this treated?

A

bowel and bladder reflexes may be impacted, which can cause bowel distention and paralytic ileus. This is treated with NG tube to decompress the intestine.

71
Q

Acute complication of SCI: neurogenic shock

A

Loss of ANS below level of lesion

72
Q

Neurogenic shock manifestations

A

Vital organs are impacted, leading to hypotension, bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, venous pooling in extremities, peripheral vasodilation, warm skin.

Patient does not perspire on the paralyzed portions of the body (close observation for early detection of fever)

73
Q

Acute complication of SPI: DVT

A

Related to immobility

  • measure thigh and calf daily
  • anticoagulation when brain injury and other bleeding have been ruled out
74
Q

Acute complication of SCI: orthostatic hypotension

A

First 2 weeks following SCI - unstable and low BP due to loss of reflex vasoconstriction

  • lesions above T7
  • slow position changes
  • compression stockings and abdominal binders all times
75
Q

SCI Emergency Management: ASIA Impairment scale

A

go look at this slide 22

76
Q

Autonomic Dysreflexia

A

Medical emergency – exaggerated autonomic response to stimuli that are harmless in normal people.

77
Q

When might autonomic dysreflexia manifest, and how does it manifest?

A
Occurs after spinal shock has resolved with injuries above T6.
HA
Paroxysmal hypertension
Profuse diaphoresis
Nausea
Nasal congestion
Bradycardia
78
Q

What can trigger autonomic dysreflexia?

A

distended bladder
constipation
stimulation of the skin

79
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia: interventions

A
HOB raised
Bladder mt
Constipation assessed
Skin assessed
Hydralazine IV
80
Q

What is a seizure

A

episodes of abnormal motor, sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity (or a combination of these) that result from sudden excessive discharge from cerebral neurons

81
Q

What is the active phase of a seizure called

A

Ictal

82
Q

Status epilepticus

A

Someone who can not stop seizing

83
Q

What are 3 things needed for a seizure?

A
  1. Excitable neurons
  2. increase in excitatory glutaminergic activity through recurrent connections to spread the discharge
  3. Reduction in activity of normal inhibitory GABA projection
84
Q

Causes of seizures

A
Cerebrovascular disease
Hypoxemia of any cause, including vascular insufficiency
Fever (childhood)
Head injury
Hypertension
CNS infections
Metabolic and toxic conditions (e.g., kidney injury, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, hypoglycemia, pesticide exposure)
Brain tumor
Drug and alcohol withdrawal
Allergies
85
Q

Focal seizure

A

Partial seizure
With or without consciousness
In one spot of brain
May not even notice them

86
Q

Generalized seizure: Tonic-clonic

A

Generalized seizures that affect the entire brain; they begin with rigidity (tonic phase), followed by repetitive clonic activity of all extremities characterized by stiffening or jerking of the body.

87
Q

tonic seizures

A

characterized by muscle stiffening, dilation of the pupils, and altered respiratory patterns; the body becomes stiff and the person may fall backward. The seizure usually lasts less than 1 minute, and recovery is rapid.

88
Q

Clonic seizure

A

Characterized by jerking movements, which involve muscles on both sides of the body

89
Q

Absence seizures

A

Short episodes of staring and loss of awareness

90
Q

Atonic seizures

A

Sudden loss of muscle tone, resulting in falls or a “drop” to the ground, with rapid recovery

91
Q

Myoclonic seizures

A

Characterized by jerking (myoclonic) movements of a muscle or muscle group, without loss of consciousness

92
Q

What are the types of epilepsy?

A

Focal and generalized

93
Q

Focal seizure - retains awareness

A

There is no impairment of consciousness, similar to simple partial seizures, may have movement of body parts, may experience an aura.

94
Q

Focal seizures - altered awareness

A

There is impairment of consciousness, similar to complex partial seizures, this can spread to both hemispheres of brain.

95
Q

Where in the brain is a generalized seizure happening

A

both hemispheres

96
Q

What are the types of generalized seizures

A
Tonic-clonic
Tonic 
Clonic
Absence
Atonic 
Myoclonic
97
Q

What is important to keep in mind with someone who has received long-term anticonvulsant therapy

A

These patients are at increased risk for fractures resulting from bone disease (osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and hyperparathyroidism), which is a side effect of therapy.

so…

During seizure, the patient is protected from injury with sz. precautions and monitored closely.

98
Q

What test will be performed of someone having sz or someone suspected of having sz?

A

EEG - electrodes on head

99
Q

What is important information to gather of someone who is experiencing sz?

A

Hx. clot, stroke, medication, stress, alcohol use, withdrawal, last alcoholic drink, blood thinners, etc.

100
Q

If you know someone is being admitted for sz., how will you prepare the room?

A
Privacy provided as soon as possible 
Loose clothing
2 or 3 side rails up
Bed lowest position
Bed rails padded
Pillow under head
O2 tubing
O2 and suction available
101
Q

Keppra (Levetiracetam): what?

A

anticonvulsant

102
Q

Keppra (Levetiracetam): dose-related sfx

A

Somnolence, dizzy, fatigue

103
Q

Keppra (Levetiracetam): toxic effects

A

unknown

104
Q

Seizures: gero considerations

A

Increased incidence

Treat underlying cause

Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of medications are altered in the older adult as a result of age-related changes in renal and liver function

105
Q

Why might there be an increased incidence of seizures among the gero population

A

medication, head injury, dementia, infection, alcoholism, and aging

106
Q

Triggers for migraine

A

Foods that contain tyramine, such as chocolate, cheese, coffee, dairy products

Dietary habits that result in long periods between meals

Menstruation and ovulation (caused by hormone fluctuation)

Alcohol (causes vasodilation of blood vessels)

Fatigue and fluctuations in sleep patterns

107
Q

Migraine headaches: teaching

A

Headache diary

Stress management and lifestyle changes

Correct pharm management
–> acute therapy and prophylaxis to include medication regiment and sfx

comfort measures (dark place, quiet)

108
Q

Surgical management of seizures

A

Lobectomy
Resection surgery
Stimulator

109
Q

Bacterial meningitis infectious agents

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria Meningitidis

110
Q

Bacterial meningitis risk factors

A
Tobacco use
Mastoiditis
Immunosuppressed
Young or Old
Low GCS
111
Q

Bacterial meningitis: treatment

A

Antibacterial (penicillin, IV dextramethasone), anticonvulsants

112
Q

Bacterial meningitis: clinical manifestations

A
HA
Fever
Stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)
ALOC 
PositiveKernigsign
Positive Brudzinski sign
113
Q

What does the nurse recognize as expected findings in a client with bacterial meningitis

A

The nurse recognizes that with fever, tachycardia and tachypnea are expected.

If bradycardia and decreased RR are seen, the nurse should consider ICP as an etiology for the decreased HR and RR.

114
Q

What is a positive Kernig sign

A

When the patient is lying supine with the hip flexed to a 90-degree angle, resistance to passive extension of the knee is a positiveKernigsign

This pain is caused by inflammation of the meninges and spinal roots.

115
Q

What is a positive Brudzinski sign

A

When the patient’s neck is flexed (after ruling out cervical trauma or injury), flexion of the knees and hips is produced; when the lower extremity of one side is passively flexed, a similar movement is seen in the opposite extremity

116
Q

What meningitis is more common and what one is more deadly

A

common - viral

deadly - bacterial

117
Q

What is common with viral meningitis?

A

HIV and children

118
Q

Clinical manifestations of viral meningitis

A
HA
low grade fever
stiff nech
photophobia
malaise
URI
NO ALOC or sz.
119
Q

What is the biggest difference between viral and bacterial meningitis

A

with viral, you will see no sz. and no AMS but you will see that with bacterial

120
Q

Viral meningitis treatment

A

HOB 30
dark quiet room
isolation (both types)

121
Q

Encephalitis

A

acute inflammation of brain tissue

122
Q

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis impacts what

A

olfactory and trigeminal nerves - common pathways

123
Q

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis: s/s

A

HA, Fever, Stiff neck & confusion

124
Q

Herpes Simplex Encephalitis: tx

A

Acyclovir

125
Q

Arboviral encephalitis - cause

A

misquito

126
Q

Arboviral encephalitis: s/s

A

Flu-like, can have HA and nuchal rigidity, SIADH, rash

127
Q

What is Bell’s palsy

A

facial paralysis

128
Q

Bell’s Palsy: s/s

A
increased lacrimation
Painful sensations in the face
Ear pain
Speech difficulties
Smiling 
  – absence of wrinkling on the forehead
Mask-like face
129
Q

Bell’s palsy: treatment

A

Corticosteroid therapy
Heat to help blood flow
Eye ointment –> lid can not close because they can not blink

130
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

Destruction of the myelin that surrounds certain nerve fibers about brain and spinal cord – therefore impairing impulse

131
Q

Multiple Sclerosis: primary symptoms

A
Unilateral visual loss
Fatigue
Depression
Weakness
Limb numbness
Difficulty with coordination
Loss of balance
Pain (nerve fibers open)

Think fatigue and loss of coordination d/t destruction of myelin –> impairs impulses

132
Q

MS: treatment

A

Interferon beta-1a and interferon beta-1b

Promote physical mobility (rest right before they become too fatigued, no strenuous)

Bowel/bladder training

Coping

133
Q

Myasthenia Gravis: what

A

Autoimmune disorder – muscle weakness of voluntary muscles

134
Q

Myasthenia Gravis: s/s

A

Diplopia

Weakness with muscles in the face/throat

Dysphonia

Motor Dysfunction only – no effect on sensation or coordination

Muscle weakness, intensifies with activity, improves with rest

135
Q

Myasthenia Gravis: Treatment

A
Acetylcholinesterase test – diagnose
Ice pack over eyes for 2 minutes
Pyridostigmine bromide
Corticosteroids
Caution at dentist office with Novocain
136
Q

What is the neurotransmitter that plays a big role in myasthenia gravis

A

acetacholine

137
Q

Nursing management: MG

A

Meals coincide with the peak anticholinesterase medications

Patient must sit up right during meals

Soft foods

Suction available

Supplemental feedings

Impaired vision – tape/patch eye closed

Avoid stress factors – emotional stress, infections (respiratory), vigorous exercise, high environmental temperatures

Rest throughout the day

138
Q

Myastenic crisis

A

Temporary exacerbation of s/s

Respiratory weakness

139
Q

Cholinergic crisis

A

Muscle weakness
Respiratory impairment
Excessive pulmonary secretions

140
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Autoimmune attack on peripheral nerve myelin

Rapid, acute, segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves

Typically happens about 2 weeks after an infection

141
Q

What are big characteristics of Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Dyskinesia, Hyporeflexia, and paresthesia

142
Q

Guillain-barre syndrome s/s

A

Muscle Weakness
Sensory impairment
Depending on how far up the symptoms go – complications
Does not affect cognitive function or LOC

143
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome: tx

A

IVIG

Plasmapheresis

144
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome: nursing considerations

A
medication ER
Monitor respiratory function
Physical Mobility
Adequate Nutrition
Improving Communication
Fear and Anxiety – include Family
145
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Slowly progressing neurological Movement

Decreased levels of dopamine – leaves more excitatory neurotransmitters

Symptoms appear after 60% neurons are lost

146
Q

Parkinson’s s/s

A
Tremor
Rigidity
Akinesia/Bradykinesia
Postural disturbances
Uncontrolled sweating, orthostatic hypotension, urinary retention, constipation
Cognitive changes
Sleep disturbances
147
Q

Parkinson’s treatment

A

Levodopa with Carbidopa

148
Q

Nursing management for parkinson’s disease

A
Improve mobility
Self-care
Bowel Elimination
Nutrition & Swallowing
Communication
Coping
149
Q

Alzheimers disease

A

most common type of dementia. This disease is a progressive, irreversible, degenerative neurologic disease that begins insidiously and is characterized by gradual losses of cognitive function and disturbances in behavior and affect

150
Q

Alzheimers disease s/s

A

Forgetfulness
Subtle memory loss
Personality changes

151
Q

Alzheimers: tx

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors - donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept), rivastigmine tartrate (Exelon), and galantamine hydrobromide (Reminyl), enhance acetylcholine uptake in the brain, thus maintaining memory skills for a period of time.

Memantine (Namenda) is an N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist that is thought to interfere with glutaminergic overstimulation.

152
Q

Alzheimers: nursing management

A

Safety
Support
Self-care
Reducing Anxiety/Agitation