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Neuro Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 levels of functional hierarchy observed in motor control?

A

Strategy - basal ganglia
Tactics - motor cortex & cerebellum
Execution - brainstem & spinal cord

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2
Q

What do lateral spinal pathway control?

A

Voluntary movements of distal muscles

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3
Q

What do ventromedial spinal pathways control?

A

Control posture & locomotion

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4
Q

Where does the CS tract cross over?

A

Medulla

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5
Q

What does the right motor cortex control?

A

Left side (motor control)

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6
Q

Where do CST neurons synapse?

A

Ventral horn

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7
Q

Where does the Rubrospinal tract originate?

A

Red nucleus (midbrain)

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8
Q

If a lesion of CST or RST occurs what will be observed?

A

Fine movements of hands & arms lost

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9
Q

If the CST alone is lesioned what will be observed?

A

Some deficits seen however function will reappear after a few months

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10
Q

What is the Brodmanns area associated with motor control?

A

Area 4

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11
Q

What are the 2 ventromedial pathways called?

A

Vestibulospinal
Tectospinal tracts
Reticulospinal tract

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12
Q

What is the vestibulospinal tract responsible for?

A

Stabilises head & neck

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13
Q

What is the tectospinal tract responsible for?

A

Ensures eyes remain stable as body moves

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14
Q

Where do the reticulospinal tracts originate?

A

Brainstem

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15
Q

What is the function of the reticulospinal tracts?

A

Maintains balance & body posture

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16
Q

What muscles does the reticulospinal tract activate?

A

Trunk muscles

Antigravity muscles

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17
Q

Where are LMNs found?

A

Ventral horn of spinal cord

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18
Q

Medial motorneurones will control which muscles?

A

Axial & proximal limb muscles

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19
Q

Lateral motor neurones will control which muscles?

A

Distal limb muscles

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20
Q

What is another name for he primary motor cortex?

A

Pre-central gyrus

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21
Q

What lies in front of the primary motor cortex?

A

Pre-motor cortex (PMA)

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22
Q

Stimulating the right primary motor cortex will result in what?

A

Twitching of right limb

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23
Q

What inputs to the posterior parietal cortex allow knowledge of body in space?

A

Somatosensory
Proprioceptive
Visual

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24
Q

Axons from which 2 brain areas converge on Area 6?

A

Prefrontal cortex

Posterior Parietal cortex

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25
If you only think about carrying out a movement, which are of the brain will become active?
Area 6 - pre-motor cortex
26
What is Area 6 responsible for?
Encodes decried actions and converts this int how to carry them out
27
Where will neuronal stimulation be identified just before a planned movement takes place?
PMA - Premotor cortex
28
In order to perform precise movements, what firing of Abs will be observed in Area 4?
Integrated activity of large population of neurones in M1 will produce precise movements
29
What symptoms/signs will be observed with cortical damage?
``` Contralateral flaccidity Hyperreflexia Babinski reflex - extension Spasticity Clonus ```
30
Describe the loop of information from cortex to basal ganglia
Inputs will move from cortex > thalamus > basal ganglia and back to SMA (AREA 6)
31
What is the corpus striatum? Role?
Caudate nucleus & putamen Input zones of basal ganglia
32
What is the corticstriatal pathway?
Inputs running from the cortex to the basal ganglia
33
In Parkinsons disease, which area of the brain is affected?
Substantia niagra degeneration (dopaminergic neurons)
34
What are some of the classical signs of Parkinsons disease?
Slowness in voluntary movements Increase muscle tone Tremors in hands
35
What is observed in the brain of someone with Huntingtons disease?
Profound loss of caudate, putamen & globes pallidus (inhibitory basal ganglia)
36
What are some of the signs associated with Huntingtons disease?
Hyperkinesia - chorea Dementia Personality disorder
37
What is chorea?
Spontaneous, uncontrolled rapid flicks & movements
38
A lesion in the cerebellum will result in what?
Uncoordinated movements = Ataxia
39
Where do preganglionic sympathetic nerves synapse?
Sympathetic chain
40
What cranial nerves have parasympathetic innervation?
3,7,9,10
41
In the sympathetic system, the NT released from the preganglionic is ____ and acts on_____ receptors.
Ach | Nicotinic
42
In the parasympathetic system, the NT released from the preganglionic is ____ and acts on_____ receptors.
Ach | Nicotinic
43
In parasympathetic system, what NT is released from postganglionic fibres ____ and acts on _____ receptors.
Ach | Muscarinic
44
In sympathetic system, what NT is released from postganglionic fibres ____ and acts on _____ receptors.
Noradrenalin | Adrenergic
45
At the adrenal medulla, what stimulates release of adrenalin?
Sympathetic postganglionic fibres
46
In the eye, sympathetic activation causes what?
Contracts radial muscle = pupillary dilation Relaxtion of ciliary body = focusses far away
47
B2 adrenergic receptors usually stimulate_____.
Relaxation
48
Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors usually stimulate ______.
Contraction
49
In parasympathetic activation, what happens to the eye?
Contraction of sphincter muscle = pupillary constriction | Ciliary body contraction = lens focusses close up
50
Eye drops used to dilate the eye may contain ______ or ______.
Alpha 1 agonist | Muscarinic antagonist
51
In blood vessels, sympathetic innervation can cause _____ or _____
Vasconstriction (A1) or vasodilation (B2)
52
Where in the body can the sympathetic system cause vasodilation?
Skeletal muscle | Cardiac muscle
53
In the respiratory system, sympathetic stimulation will result in _____.
Relaxation of smooth muscle
54
What will happen in the Valsalva manoeuvre?
Sympathetic stimulation will increase HR & SV as a result of decrease in venous return during breath hold
55
What are the different types specific sensory receptor types which measure different modalities of sensation?
``` Nociceptors Chemoreceptors Mechanoreceptors Thermoreceptors Proprioceptors ```
56
When a stimulus is sensed, what is the name of the potential that is transduce?
Receptor (generator) potential
57
The size of the ______ encodes the intensity of stimulus.
Generator potential - graded potential
58
The frequency of _____ encodes the intensity of stimulus.
Action potential
59
What does the receptive field encode?
The location of the stimulus
60
Which test can be done to assess the size of receptive field?
2 point discrimination tests
61
What are the 3 primary afferent cutaneous sensory fibres?
Ab Ao C
62
Which is the fastest sensory afferent?
Ab (large myelinated fibres)
63
Which is the slowest sensory afferent?
C (unmyelinated fibres)
64
What types of sensation do Ab fibres carry?
Touch Pressure Vibration
65
What types of sensation do Ao fibres carry?
Fast pain Cold Pressure
66
What types of sensation do C fibres carry?
Slow pain | Warmth
67
What sensory afferents carry information about proprioception?
Ab | Aa
68
In which spinal column do Ab & Aa fibres go up?
Ipsilateral dorsal column (carrying mechanoreceptor/ proprioceptive info)
69
In which spinal column do C & Ao fibres ascend?
Contralateral spinothalamic tracts
70
How many neurones are present in ascending tract?
3
71
If damage occurs to dorsal column what will be observed?
Loss of pressure, touch, vibration of same side
72
If damage occurs to the anterolateral column of spinal cord what will be observed?
Loss of pain sensation on opposite side
73
Convergence will result in _____ acuity
Reduced
74
What allow for better definition of boundaries in a receptor field?
Lateral inhibition
75
What enables sensory receptors to alter firing in response to sustained stimulus?
Adaption
76
What are the different types of pain which can be perceived?
``` Sharp stabbing Dull, diffuse throbbing Visceral pain Referred main Phantom limb pain ```
77
What fibres would be responsible for fast stabbing pain?
Ao fibres
78
Which fibres would be responsible for slow dull pain?
C fibres
79
Which chemical mediators can activate nociceptive response at the nerve terminal?
Bradykinin Prostaglandin Histamine
80
Which channel do opiates mediate their action at the nerve terminal?
K channels - hyper polarise cell therefore inhibit signal transduction
81
Where do Ao/C fibres synapse?
Dorsal horn
82
What mediates Gate control theory?
Inhibitory interneuron | Descending inhibitory pathways
83
What 2 ways can the inhibitory interneuron be activated ?
By Ab fibres - rubbing it better (mechanoreceptors) Descending pathways
84
How does the inhibitory interneuron close the gate at the dorsal horn?
Releases opiate peptides which inhibit synaptic release
85
What is another name for opiate peptides?
Endorphins
86
Where in the brain do descending pathways come from to close the gate?
PAG | NRM
87
What does prostaglandin do at the sensory nerve terminal?
PGN sensitises nociceptors to bradykinin
88
How do NSAIDs mediate their action?
Reduce PGN being produced therefore reduce the sensitisation of nerve terminal to bradykinin
89
How do TENS machines work?
Stimulate Ab fibres therefore activating inhibitory interneuron, reducing synaptic transmission
90
How does morphine mediate pain relief?
Reduces nociceptive sensitivity Blocks synaptic transmission at dorsal horn (epidural) Activates descending pathways
91
How do local anaeasthetics block pain transmission?
Block Na APs therefore all axonal transmission
92
Where do 2nd order neurons in the spinothalamic tract synapse?
Thalamus
93
Where do 3rd order neurons from the thalamus convey to?
Somatosensory cortex Cingulate gyrus Limbic system
94
Where does pain perception occur?
Somatosensory cortex
95
Descending pathways from the ____ radiate to the _____ which decrease pain signals.
Peri-aquaductal grey | Dorsal horn
96
What is hyperalgesia?
Exaggerated response to pain from normal stimuli
97
What is allodynia?
Decreased threshold for pain response
98
What are the 3 components of central sensitisation to pain?
Wind-up Classical Long term potentiation
99
How does wind-up central sensitisation mediate action?
Increases release of NT therefore increased response of neurons
100
How does CLASSICAL central sensitisation mediate action?
activates new synapses in the dorsal horn resulting in increased perceptive of noxious stimuli, lasts longer than original stimuli
101
How does long term potentiation central sensitisation mediate action?
Incorporates more receptors on post-synaptic side therefore increased response perceived
102
How long does acute pain last for?
1 month & resolves with healing of tissue damage
103
How long does chronic pain last?
>3-6 months, lasting longer than duration of healing
104
Which type of pain is protective?
Acute
105
What type of pain is associated with acute pain?
Nociceptive pain
106
What type of pain is associated with poorly localised presentation?
Neuropathic
107
What is pain?
A sensory perception of the mind (not a stimulus)
108
What is cognition?
Highest brain function | Integration of all sensory information to make sense of situation
109
What are the 3 components of learning & memory?
Hippocampus Thalamux Cortex
110
What does the hippocampus do in memory?
Formation of memory
111
What part does the cortex have in memory formation?
Stores memory
112
What part does the thalamus play in memory formation?
Searches & accesses memory
113
What areas compose the limbic system?
Hypothalamus Hippocampus Cingulate gyrus Amygdala
114
What areas in the limbic system are central to learning?
Punishment | Reward areas
115
If damage occurs to hippocampus, what will happen to memory?
Intact immediate & long term memory however unable to form new memories
116
What are the different types of memory?
Immediate (sensory) memory Short-term memory Immediate long term Long term memory
117
Which type of memory is described as working memory?
Short term memory
118
Which the of memory is associated with electrical excitation of reverberating circuits?
Short term memory
119
If the memory in the reverberating circuit is deemed significant what will happen next?
Consolidated and stored in long term memory
120
If the reverberating circuit is disrupted eg head trauma and the hippo/thalamus is damaged what can occur?
Amnesia
121
What are the 2 forms of amnesia?
Anterograde | Retrograde
122
What will anterograde amnesia result in?
Inability to form new memories
123
What will retrograde amnesia result in?
Inability to retrieve old memories
124
What is intermediate long term memory dependant on?
Chemical changes at the presynaptic neuron
125
What is long term memory (LTM) dependant on?
Structural changes at the synapse
126
What structural changes occur at the synapse in formation of LTM?
Increase in NT release sites Increase in vesicle & NT stored on pre-synpatic side Increase in number of presynaptic terminals
127
What is another term for strengthening of the synapse observed in LTM?
Long term potentiation
128
What are the 2 types of LTM?
Declarative | Procedural
129
What is declarative LTM?
The ability to recall events (episodic) & language (semantic memory)
130
What is procedural LTM?
Often acquired through repetition, includes motor memory skills eg paying tennis, driving etc
131
How can short term memories be converted to LTM?
Consolidation (strengthening of synaptic connections by repetition)
132
What composes the Papez circuit?
Hippocampus Mammillary bodies Anterior thalamus Cingulate gyrus
133
What is the definition of sleep?
A state of unconsciousness from which a person can be aroused by normal stimuli
134
What chemical is the precursor for melatonin?
Serotonin
135
If there is a deficiency in serotonin, what will be observed?
Inability to sleep
136
Where is melatonin produced?
Pineal glands
137
What structure in the hypothalamus is thought to contribute to sleep induction?
Suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN)
138
What does activity of the SCN in the hypothalamus stimulate?
Release of melatonin
139
What is the name of the excitatory NT released from the hypothalamus which is required for wakefulness?
Orexin
140
If defective orexin signalling is present, what condition is observed?
Narcolepsy (inability to stay awake)
141
Where is the main sleep centre of the brain?
Reticular formation
142
What does EEG stand for?
ElectroEncepheloGram -assess neuronal activity
143
What are the 4 different types of wave pattern observed in EEG recordings?
Alpha Beta Theta Delta
144
What EEG waves are associated with awake, relaxed?
alpha waves (^ are, ^ amplitude)
145
What EEG waves are associated with being awake & alert?
Beta waves (^ freq, low amplitude)
146
What EEG waves are associated with children and stress in adult?
Theta waves (Low freq)
147
What EEG waves are associated with deep sleep?
Delta waves (low freq, high amplitude)
148
How many stages of sleep are present in the sleep cycle?
5
149
What sleep stage is Theta waves observed?
Stage 1
150
What sleep stages are slo w wave stages?
1-4
151
What stages are delta waves observed?
Stage 3-4
152
Which stages of sleep are categorised as deep sleep?
3-4
153
What does EEG recording of REM sleep mirror?
Wakefulness (fast waves)
154
What stage of sleep do dreams occur?
REM sleep
155
How often does REM sleep cycle/last for?
Occurs every 90 mins and lasts 5-30 mins
156
What is the name of a specific sleep disorder & what are the different types?
Insomnia Primary & secondary
157
In what stage of sleep do nightmares occur?
REM sleep
158
In what stage of sleep do night terrors occur?
Deep Delta sleep
159
What is somnambulism? When does it occur?
Sleep walking | Stage 4 sleep
160
What sleep stage to patients with narcolepsy enter straight in to?
REM sleep
161
Where is the "master clock" which regulates the circadian rhythm?
Suprachiasmatic nuclei in hypothalamus
162
What is the function of the vestibular system?
Sensation of balance & posture
163
Where is the vestibular system found?
Inner ear (temporal bone)
164
What is the vestibular system composed of?
Membranous fluid filled canals (labyrinths)
165
What is the vestibular apparatus composed of?
3 semi-circular canals (superior, posterior & horizontal) Utricle Saccule
166
Where are sensory hair cells found in the vestibular apparatus?
Ampulla Utricle Saccule
167
What is the name given to both the utricle & saccule combined?
Otolith organs
168
What do the otolith organs detect?
Changes in linear acceleration
169
What does the saccule specifically sense?
Vertical movement
170
What does the utricle specifically sense?
Back/front movement
171
What do the semi-circular canals sense?
Rotational acceleration
172
Where are the sensory receptors in the SCCs found?
Swellings at the base of canals called Ampulla
173
What is the name of the sensory receptors in the SCCs?
Cristae
174
What is the name of the flexible gelatinous structure found in the ampulla?
Cupula
175
What is the name of the fluid which moves through the SCCs?
Endolymph
176
What is embedded within the gelantinous cupula?
Cilia of hair cells
177
What way will endolymph move in side the SCCs?
Opposite direction to movement
178
What accounts for dizziness?
Suddenly stopping following rotational acceleration will result in continued motion of endolymph = dizziness
179
What are the 2 types of cilia called at the hair cells?
Kinocilium (1 large) | Stereocilia (multiple small)
180
What will happen is cilia are distorted towards kinocilium?
Depolarisation | Increased APs
181
What will happen is cilia are distorted away kinocilium?
Hyperpolarisation | Decreased Abs
182
What are the sensory receptors of the otolith organs called?
Maculae
183
The maculae in the utricle are orientated in what plane?
Horizontal
184
The maculae in the saccule are orientated in what plane?
Vertical
185
What is the gelatinous membrane called found at the maculae?
Otolith membrane
186
What is embedded in the otolith membrane?
Otolith crystals
187
What forces affect otoliths?
Gravitional
188
Moving the head back/forward with result in what happening at maculae?
Gravitational movement of otolith & membrane, thus moving cilia and causes firing of APs
189
If the head is tilted backwards, what will happen to no. of APs?
Cilia will move towards the kinocilium and cause depolarisation (inc. APs)
190
If the head is tilted FORWARDS, what will happen to no. of APs?
Cilia will move away from kinocilium and cause hyperpolarisation (decreased Aps)
191
Which nerve carries information from the 2 maculae & 3 cristae of SCCs?
Vestibular nerve
192
Where does the vestibular nerve carry information to??
Cerebellum
193
What is the name for the perception of movement & body position?
Kinaesthesia
194
Name some of the vestibular system reflexes
Tonic labyrinthine reflex Dynamic righting reflex Vestibule-Ocular reflex
195
What does the tonic labyrinthine reflex do?
Keeps the axis of the head in relationship with the rest of the body
196
What does the dynamic righting reflex do?
It keeps you upright if you trip, rapid postural changes
197
What are the different reflex tests of the vestibulo-ocular reflex?
Static | Dynamic Vestibular Nystagmus
198
What is the static reflex testing?
Movement of the head results in involuntary eye movements in order to maintain upright image
199
What is the dynamic vestibular nystagmus?
Saccidic movements of the eye which rotate against the direction of movement
200
If there is R nystagmus, which direction will the rapid eye movement be observed?
Right sided eye flick
201
What ways can nystagmus be tested?
``` Post-rotational nystagmus Caloric stimulation (cold/hot water) ```
202
If hot water is injected into outer ear, which way will nystagmus be observed?
Same side as ear injected
203
What is the mnemonic used to remember the side to which nystagmus occurs with cold/hot water?
COWS
204
What is kinetosis?
Motion sickness
205
What is labyrinthitis?
Infection of the vestibular system
206
What is Meniers disease caused by?
Increased endolymph resulting in increased pressure
207
What symptoms are observed with Menieres disease?
Nausea Tinnitus Vertigo Nystagmus

Neurology (16 decks)

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