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Physiology > Neuro Physiology > Flashcards

Neuro Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Glial cells: Which is more numerous: glial cells or neurons?

A

Glial cells (10:1 ratio)

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2
Q

Glial cells: produces CSF

A

Ependymal cells

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3
Q

Glial cells: macrophage of the brain

A

Microglia

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4
Q

Glial cells: regulates ECF ion levels, gives mechanical support; forms BBB

A

Astrocyte (nurse cells)

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5
Q

Glial cells: creates myelin in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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6
Q

Glial cells: creates myelin in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

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7
Q

Glial cells: brain tumors from non-mature neurons

A

Retinoblastoma, Neuroblastoma

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8
Q

Parts of a neuron: receiving portion for neurotransmitters of the neuron

A

Dendrites

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9
Q

Parts of a neuron: where action potential in a neuron actually starts

A

Axon hillock

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10
Q

Parts of a neuron: function of myelin sheath

A

Insulator

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11
Q

Parts of a neuron: Unmyelinated portion of the acon

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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12
Q

Parts of a neuron: branches of the axons

A

Neural fibril

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13
Q

Parts of a neuron: terminal portion of a neural fibril that contains NT-containing vesicles

A

Axon terminal/boutons/end-feet

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14
Q

Parts of a neuron: space between 2 neurons

A

Synapse

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15
Q

Differentiate anterograde and retrograde axonal transport

A

Anterograde: soma to axon terminal; Retrograde: axon terminal to soma

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16
Q

What do you call the death of the axon distal to the site of injury after an axon is transected?

A

Anterograde/Orthograde/Wallerian degeneration

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17
Q

What do you call the changes to the soma after an axon is transected?

A

Axonal reaction/Chromatolysis

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18
Q

Axonal regeneration occurs better in the CNS or PNS?

A

PNS

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19
Q

Where in the basal ganglia is acetylcholine secreted?

A

Nucleus Basalis of Meynert

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20
Q

What enzyme is used in the synthesis of acetylcholine?

A

Choline acetyltransferase

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21
Q

What enzyme is used in the degradation of acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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22
Q

What enzyme triggers sleep and is deficient is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Acetylcholine

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23
Q

Where is Dopamine mainly found?

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta & ventral tegmental area

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24
Q

What enzyme degrades Dopamine?

A

MAO in presynaptic nerve terminals, COMT in tissues including liver

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25
Q

What condition is caused by Dopamine deficiency?

A

Parkinson’s disease

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26
Q

What condition is caused by Dopamine excess?

A

Schizophrenia

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27
Q

Norepinephrine is secreted by:

A

locus ceruleus in the pons, and postganglionic neurons of sympathetic nervous system

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28
Q

Phenylalanine Derivatives

A

Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, L-Dopa, Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Thyroxine, Melanin

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29
Q

Tryptophan Derivatives

A

Tryptophan, MelaTOnin, Serotonin, Niacin

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30
Q

Serotonin is secreted mainly by:

A

Median raphe of the brain stem

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31
Q

Low levels of this substance causes clinical depression

A

Serotonin (also inhibits pain pathways in the spinal cord)

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32
Q

Substance responsible for long term behavior and memory

A

Nitric oxide (from Arginine)

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33
Q

What is the property of NO that differs from other neurotransmitters?

A

NO is not preformed and stored in vesicles. It is synthesized almost instantly as needed

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34
Q

Histamine is mainly located within the:

A

tuberomammilary nuecleus of the hypothalamus

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35
Q

What is the function of histamine?

A

Involved in control of arousal, sleep and circadian rhythm

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36
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitter usually found in spinal interneurons; increases chloride influx

A

Glycine

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37
Q

Number one inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain; comes from Glutamate; increases chloride influx or potassium efflux

A

GABA

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38
Q

Number one excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain; involved in fast pain

A

Glutamate

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39
Q

Inhibit neurons in the brain involved in the perception of pain

A

Opioid peptides (enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins)

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40
Q

Involved in slow pain transmission; in specific areas of the brain, primary sensory neurons, GI plexus neurons

A

Substance P

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41
Q

Basis for the resting membrance potential and action potential

A

Ion channels

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42
Q

potential difference that exist across the membrane; exhibited by almost all cells; refers to INTRAcellular charge

A

Resting Membrane Potential

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43
Q

3 things that contribute to the resting membrane potential

A
  1. Nernst potential for Na and K diffusion
  2. Na-K leak channels/ K leak channels
  3. Na-K-ATPase pump
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44
Q

What types of cells exhibit action potential?

A

Only excitable cells (neurons, muscles, cells)

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45
Q

Action Potential: each normal AP for a given cell type looks identical, depolarizes to the same potential and repolarizes to the same RMP

A

Stereotypical size and shape

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46
Q

Action Potential: AP at one cell causes depolarization of adjacent cells in a nondecremental manner

A

Propagating

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47
Q

Action Potential: If threshold is reached, a full-sized AP will be produced, otherwise, none at all

A

All-or-none

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48
Q

RMP & AP: make the membrane potential less negative

A

Depolarization

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49
Q

RMP & AP: make the membrane potential more negative

A

Hyperpolarization

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50
Q

RMP & AP: positive charges flowing into the cell

A

Inward current

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51
Q

RMP & AP: positive charges flowing out of the cell

A

Outward current

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52
Q

RMP & AP: MP in which AP is inevitable

A

Threshold

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53
Q

RMP & AP: portion of the AP where MP is positive

A

Overshoot

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54
Q

RMP & AP: portion of the AP where MP is less than RMP

A

Undershoot (hyperpolarizing afterpotential)

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55
Q

What causes depolarization?

A

Opening of the Na-activation gates ) causes sodium influx)

56
Q

What causes repolarization?

A

Closure of Na-inactivation gates (stops Na influx) and opening of potassium gate (potassium efflux)

57
Q

What causes the undershoot?

A

Na activation and inactivation gates are both closed, while potassium gate is still open, making the MP more negative and farther from the RMP.

58
Q

Examples of sodium channel blockers of neurons

A

Tetradotoxin (from pufferfish), Saxitoxin

59
Q

Example of potassium channel blocker of neurons

A

Tetraethylammonium (from pufferfish)

60
Q

True or False: Na and K channels are responsibile for all types of action potential.

A

False. Ca2+ channels in muscles.

61
Q

What stimulates nerve depolarization in the first place?

A

Mechanical disturbance, chemicals, electricity

62
Q

Time periods in an action potential during which a new stimulus cannot be readily elicited

A

Refractory periods

63
Q

Time period in an action potential during which an action potential cannot be elicited, no matter how large the stimulus

A

Absolute refractory period

64
Q

What is the ionic basis of absolute refractory period?

A

Inactivation gates of the Na channel are close when the MP is depolarized and remian closed until repolarization occurs; No AP can occur until the Na-inactivation gates open

65
Q

Begins at the end of the absolute refractory period and continues until the MP returns to the resting level; AP can be elicited only if a larger than usual inward current is provided.

A

Relative refractory period

66
Q

What is the ionic basis of relative refractory period?

A

During RRP, K conductance is elevated (prolonged opening of K channels); MP is closer to the K equilibrium and farther from threshold

67
Q

This happens when a cell is depolarized so slowly such that the threshold potential is passed without firing an action potential; critical number of open Na channels is not attained due to closure of inactivation gates; opening of K channels oppose depolarization

A

Accomodation

68
Q

In an excitable cell such as the heart muscle, what is the effect of hyperkalemia and hypokalemia respectively?

A

Hyperkalemia: depolarizes the heart (slows leakage of K+ to outside of the heart, making the cell more positive, RMP more positive, closer to threshold); cause VFib
Hypokalemia: hyperpolarizes the heart

69
Q

Synaptic inputs that depolarize the post synaptic cell

A

Excitatory post-synaptic potential

70
Q

Synaptic inputs that hyperpolarize the post synaptic cell

A

Inhibitory post-synaptic potential

71
Q

Two or more presynaptic inputs arrive at postsynaptic cell simultaneously

A

Spatial summation

72
Q

Two or more presynaptic inputs arrive at postsynaptic cell in rapid succession

A

Temporal summation

73
Q

Repeated stimulation causes response of postsynaptic cell to be greater than expected

A

Nerve facilitation

74
Q

Increased release of NT and increased sensitivity to the NT

A

Long term potentiation

75
Q

Repeated stimulation causes decreased response of postsynaptic cell

A

Synaptic fatigue

76
Q

In general type A nerve fiber compared to type c fibers are:

A

Thicker, more myelinated, faster

77
Q

Fiber type: for proprioception, somatic motor

A

Type A alpha

78
Q

Fiber type: for touch, pressure

A

Type A beta

79
Q

Fiber type: for motor to muscle spindle

A

Type A gamma

80
Q

Fiber type: for pain, cold, touch

A

Type A delta

81
Q

Fiber type: preganglionic autonomic fiber

A

Type B

82
Q

Fiber type: for pain, temperature, smell

A

Type C, dorsal root

83
Q

Fiber type: postganglionic sympathetic fiber

A

Type C, sympathetic

84
Q

Brain: vasomotor center, respiratory center (DRG,VRG), swallowing, coughing & vomiting center

A

Medulla

85
Q

Brain: micturition center, pneumotaxic, apneustic centers

A

Pons

86
Q

Brain: relay center for almost all sensations

A

Thalamus

87
Q

Brain: contributes to balance

A

Cerebellum

88
Q

Brain: connects the two brain hemispheres

A

Corpus callosum; anterior commisure

89
Q

Brain: motor, personality, calculation

A

Frontal lobe

90
Q

Brain: somatosensory cortex

A

Parietal lobe

91
Q

Brain: vision

A

Occipital lobe

92
Q

Brain: hearing, vestibular processing, recognition of faces, optic pathway (Meyer’s loop)

A

Temporal lobe

93
Q

Three categories of the cerebral cortex:

A

Primary area (initiation), Secondary area (interpretation), Association area (integration)

94
Q

Association area: for elaboration of thoughts, plan complex motor movements

A

Prefrontal association area

95
Q

Association area: plans and creates motor pattern for speech

A

Broca’s area

96
Q

Association area: behavior, emotions, motivation

A

Limbic association area

97
Q

Process of converting short term to long term memory

A

Consolidation

98
Q

An important pathway from the reward and punishment centers of the brain; lesions in this area will cause anterograde amnesia (loss of short term memory)

A

Hippocampus

99
Q

Role in memory search and reading out the memories; lesions in this are will cause retrograde amnesia (loss of pre-existing memories)

A

Thalamus

100
Q

Limbic System: produces mainly oxytocin

A

Paraventricular nuclei

101
Q

Limbic System: produces mainly vasopressin

A

Supraoptic nuclei

102
Q

Limbic System: satiety center

A

Ventromedial nuclei

103
Q

Limbic System: hunger center

A

Lateral nuclei

104
Q

Limbic System: sweating (heat release)

A

Anterior hypothalamus

105
Q

Limbic System: shivering (heat conversation)

A

Posterior hypothalamus

106
Q

Limbic System: reward center

A

Medial forebrain bundle

107
Q

Limbic System: punishment center

A

Central gray area around aqueduct of sylvius

108
Q

Limbic System: social inhibition

A

Amygdala

109
Q

Which is more powerful in creating new memories, punishment & fear, or pleasure & reward?

A

Punishment and fear

110
Q

Regulate activity of many physiological processes including HR, BP, body core temperature, and blood levels of hormones

A

Biological clock

111
Q

Master clock of all biological clocks in the human body; destruction causes loss of circadian functions

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

112
Q

Regulates circadian rhythms; secreted hormone melatonin

A

Pineal gland

113
Q

Melatonin is ____ during darkness, ____ by daylight, controlled by ______ nerve activity

A

Increased, inhibited, sympathetic

114
Q

EEG waves: awake, eyes closed (8-13 Hz)

A

Alpha waves

115
Q

EEG waves: awake, eyes open (13-30 Hz)

A

Beta waves

116
Q

EEG waves: brain disorders and degenerative brain states (4-7 Hz)

A

Theta waves

117
Q

EEG waves: deep sleep, organic brain disease, infants (0.5-4 Hz)

A

Delta waves

118
Q

Sleep is an active inhibitory process possibly caused by:

A

Secretion of Muramyl peptide

119
Q

EEG waves seen in Stage 1 slow-wave sleep

A

Alpha waves interspersed with Theta waves

120
Q

REM sleep is associated with active dreaming. It occurs every ___ of slow wave sleep. EEG waves seen are:

A

90 minutes, Beta waves

121
Q

EEG waves seen in Stage 2 slow-wave sleep

A

Theta waves interrupted by sleep spindles (12-14 Hz) and K complexes

122
Q

EEG waves seen in Stage 3 slow-wave sleep

A

Delta waves interrupted by sleep spindles

123
Q

EEG waves seen in Stage 4 slow-wave sleep

A

Delta waves alone

124
Q

Who among the following dream the most: newborns, young adults, elderly?

A

Newborns (50% REM sleep)

125
Q

Cerebral blood flow is highly autoregulated at BP between:

A

60 - 140 mmHg

126
Q

Which is more metabolic, gray matter or white matter?

A

Gray matter

127
Q

Brain is the most metabolic organ of the body. It is 2% of body mass but ___ of total metabolism

A

15%

128
Q

Primary source of energy of the brain

A

Glucose (but also uses ketone bodies)

129
Q

Total amount of CSF in the brain

A

150 mL (in the brain ventricles, subarachnoid space, subarachnoid cistern)

130
Q

Amount of CSF produces per day:

A

500 mL (70% choroid plexus, 30% brain)

131
Q

Main function of the CSF:

A

cushioning

132
Q

The Na-K-ATPase pump is found on which side of the choroid plexus?

A

Luminal side

133
Q

Which has more Na, CSF or blood?; Which has more protein, CSF or blood?

A

CSF (148 vs 136-145); Blood (6800 vs 15-45)

134
Q

3 components of the blood brain barrier:

A

Endothelial cells of cerebral capillaries, Astrocyte foot processes, Choroid plexus epithelium

135
Q

Areas without a blood brain barrier/ circumventricular organs:

A

some areas of the hypothalamus, pineal gland, area postrema (floor of 4th ventricle)

136
Q

Mediates release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

A

Cholinergic nicotinic receptors

137
Q

The zombie virus uses what kind of axonal transport

A

Retrograde axonal transport

Physiology (13 decks)

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