Blood Physiology Flashcards
1
Q
4 general functions of blood:
A
- Vehicle of transport
- Regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
- Defense against toxins and pathogens
- Stabilization of body temperature
2
Q
Fluid medium of the blood/non-cellular part of the blood
A
Plasma
3
Q
Plasma minus clotting proteins; closer to water in composition
A
Serum
4
Q
Whole blood is __% plasma and __% formed elements
A
55% plasma, 45% formed elements
5
Q
Major component of plasma:
A
Water (90%) (plasma protein: 8%, inorganic salts 1%, lipids 0.5%, sugar 0.1%)
6
Q
Plasma protein which is an essentail component of the clotting system
A
Blood coagulation proteins
7
Q
Plasma protein which is the major contributor to osmotic pressure of plasma
A
Albumin
8
Q
Plasma globulin: proteases, antiproteases, transport proteins
A
Alpha globulin
9
Q
Plasma globulin: transferrin and other transport proteins
A
Beta globulin
10
Q
Plasma globulin: immunoglobulin
A
Gamma globulin
11
Q
Process of forming blood cells in the bone marrow
A
Hematopoiesis
12
Q
Site of blood cell formation beginning from 3rd week AOG
A
Yolk sac/aortic gonad mesonephros (AGM) region
13
Q
Site of blood cell formation from 3rd month AOG to birth
A
Liver (with minor contributions from spleen)
14
Q
Only source of blood cells postnatally; begins at 4th month AOG
A
Bone marrow
15
Q
Life period where all bone marrow are active
A
Birth to puberty
16
Q
Life period where only bone marrow of vertebra, ribs, sternum, skull, pelvis, proximal epiphyseal region of humerus active
A
Age 20 (remaining bone marrow: fatty, yellow, inactive)
17
Q
Post embryonic extramedullary hematopoiesis in full term infant
A
Always abnormal
18
Q
Functions of the red blood cells
A
Transports hemoglobin from lungs to tissues
Transports CO2 (bicarbonate ion) from tissue to lungs
Acts as an acid-base buffer (contains carbonic anhydrase)
19
Q
Normal biconcave disc shape of the RBC is due to:
A
Spectrin
20
Q
Deformability of the RBC that allows it to travel through narrow capillaries is a characteristic called:
A
Bag pliability (Normal RBC size: 6-8 micrometers)
21
Q
Protein inside the RBC that binds with oxygen
A
Hemoglobin
Males: 14 - 18 g/dL
Females: 12 - 18 g/dL
22
Q
Percent of cells in whole blood
A
Hematocrit
Males: 46 (40 - 54)
Females: 42 (37 - 47)
23
Q
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
Transport protein for O2
A
Hemoglobin
24
Q
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
Storage protein for O2
A
Myoglobin
25
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
| Binds with 4 O2
Hemoglobin
26
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
| Binds with 1 O2
Myoglobin
27
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
| Exhibits sigmoidal curve, positive cooperativity
Hemoglobin
28
Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:
| Exhibits hyperbolic curve
Myoglobin
29
Most common form of hemoglobin in adult human
Hemoglobin A (2 alpha and 2 beta)
30
Hemoglobin form with higher affinity for oxygen
Hemoglobin F (2 alpha and 2 gamma)
31
Hemoglobin form with higher affinity for 2,3 BPG
Hemoglobin A
32
Total iron in the body:
4-5 g (65% hemoglobin, 4% myoglobin)
33
Primary storage protein found in the liver
Ferritin
34
Transport protein of iron:
Transferrin
35
Secondary storage protein found outside the liver such as macrophages
Hemosiderin
36
Last RBC stage that has a nucleus
Orthochromatic erythroblast
37
Form of RBC released into the blood; no nucleus; needs 2 days to mature into mature RBCs
Reticulocyte
38
Hormone stimulating RBC production
Erythropoietin
39
Main stimulus for EPO production
Hypoxia
40
Effect of EPO will manifest after this many days
5 days
41
Time to convert reticulocytes to mature RBCs
1 - 2 days
42
Characteristics of mature RBCs
No nucleus, no mitochondria, no ER
43
Lifespan of adult RBCs
120 days
44
Lifespan of fetal RBCs
90 days
45
Intravascular destruction of old or damaged RBCs occurs here
Spleen
46
Extravascular destruction of RBCs is due to
Macrophages
47
Fate of Heme in destroyed RBC
Bilirubin
48
Nutrient essential for DNA synthesis
Vitamin B12, Folic acid
49
Megaloblastic anemia + neural deficits
Vitmain B12 deficiency
50
Megaloblastic anemia + neural tube disorders
Folic acid deficiency
51
Needed to absorb Vitamin B12
Intrinsic factor
52
Needed to absorb Iron in the duodenum
Vitamin C
53
Sources of vitamin B12
Meats
54
Sources of folic acid
Leafy vegetables: cauliflower, brocolli
55
Capability of the body to resist almost all types of organisms and toxins that tend to damage tissues and organs
Immunity
56
Innate or Acquired:
| Pre-existing (skin, mucous membranes, phagocytic cells, inflammatory mediators, complement system)
Innate
57
Innate or Acquired:
| Antibody mediated/lymphoid cells
Acquired
58
Innate or Acquired:
| Not acquired through contact with a non-self
Innate
59
Innate or Acquired:
| Occurs after exposure to an antigen
Acquired
60
Innate or Acquired:
| Non-specific
Innate
61
Innate or Acquired:
| Specific
Acquired
62
Innate or Acquired:
| Quick response
Innate
63
Innate or Acquired:
| Delayed response
Acquired
64
Innate or Acquired:
| 1st line of defense
Innate
65
Innate or Acquired:
| 2nd line of defense
Acquired
66
WBC: Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils
Granulocytes/PML/Myeloid cells
67
WBC: monocytes, lymphocytes
Agranulocytes
68
WBC: site of production of granulocytes, monocytes
Bone marrow
69
WBC: site of production of lymphocytes, plasma cells
LN, spleen, thymus, tonsils, Peyer's patches
70
WBC: lifespan of granulocytes
4-8 hours in the blood, 4-5 days in tissues (shortened during infection)
71
WBC: lifespan of monocytes
10-20 hours in the blood, several months in the tissues
72
WBC: lifespan of lymphocytes
weeks to months
73
Lifespan of platelets
7-10 days
74
Most common type of WBC
Neutrophils (62%)
| Lymphocytes: 30%, Monocytes 5.3%, Eosinophils 2.3%, Basophils 0.4%
75
Responsible for acute inflammatory response to tissue injury (degrade tissue components, destroy damaged tissue and kills bacteria)
Neutrophils
76
Prominent feature: highly lobulated nucleus
Neutrophils
77
Considered as weak phagocytes; for parasitic and allergic reactions; bilobed nucleus, stain bright red with eosin dye
Eosinophils
78
Released by mast cells and basophils which causes eosinophils to migrate to inflamed allergic tissue
Eosinophilic chemotactic factor
79
Least common type of WBC; produces histamine, heparin, bradykinin, serotonin; share functional similarities with mast cells; bilobed/trilobed nucleus
Basophils
80
Largest type of WBC; prominent feature: eccentrically placed nucleus
Monocytes (In tissue: macrophages)
81
Platelets are small, non-nucleated cells derived from:
Megakaryocytes
82
2nd most common type of WBC, smallest, involved in adaptive immunity
Lymphocytes
83
Round, densely stained nucleus with a pale basophilic, non-granular cytoplasm
Lymphocytes
84
Neutrophils are released as mature cells and can phagocytize ___ bacteria before dying
3 - 20 bacteria
85
Macrophages are release as immature cells and can phagocytize up to ___ bacteria, and can extrude these particles and survive after for months
up to 100 bacteria
86
Movement of neutrophils and macrophages towards a chemical signal
Chemotaxis
87
Movement out of the circulatory system and into the site of injury
Diapedesis
88
What is the requirement to say that diapedesis has occurred?
Invasion of the basement membrane
89
When tissue injury occurs, the first to react are the:
Mast cells - will release histamine causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
90
When tissue injury occurs, the 1st line of defense that present within minutes to identify and phagocytize the pathogen is:
Tissue macrophages
91
When tissue injury occurs, the 2nd line of defense which start migrating in response to inflammatory cytokines and cause phagocytosis is:
Neutrophils
92
When tissue injury occurs, the 3rd line of defense, which takes at least 8 hours for response to occur is:
Monocytes (blood monocytes (inactive) are converted to tissue macrophages (active))
93
When tissue injury occurs, the 4th line of defense, which takes 3-4 days is:
Increased monocytes and granulocytes production by bone marrow
94
Increase in monocyte and granulocyte production in response to tissue injury is mediated by:
TNF, IL-1, GM-CSF, M-CSF
95
Battlefiled of dead cells and pathogens
Pus
96
Caused by a special immune system that forms antibodies and/or activated lymphocytes that attack and destory the specific invading organism or toxin
Adaptive immunity
97
Gamma globulins called immunoglobulins which constitute 20% of plasma proteins, formed by plasma cells
Antibodies
98
The portion of the antibody which determines specificity to antigen
Variable portion
99
The portion of the antibody which determines other properties of antibodies
Constant portion
100
Divalent antibody, 75% of antibodies (most abundant); predominant antibody in secondary responses; smallest and the only one that can cross the placenta
IgG
101
Main immunoglobulin concerned with primary immune response; present on all uncommitted B cells; largest
IgM
102
Main immunoglobulin in secretions
secretory IgA
103
Antibody mediated allergies and hypersensitivity
IgE
104
Acts as an antigen receptor when present on the surface of certain B lymphocytes
IgD
105
Steps in the direct attack of antibody to the antigen
Agglutination (clumping)
Precipitation (insoluble antigen-antibody complex)
Neutralization (AB covers the toxic sites of the antigenic agent)
Lysis (rupture of the agent)
106
Indirect attack of antibodies is via the activation of:
Complement system
107
The complement system is responsible of 3 things:
Opsonization
Membrane attack complex
Stimulate inflammation
108
Which complement is responsible for opsonization?
C3b
109
Which complement is an anaphylatoxin (induces inflammation)?
C3a, C4a, C5a
110
Which complement is chemotactic to WBCs?
C5a
111
Which complement is part of the membrane attack complex?
C5b - C9
112
T-helper cells is also known as:
CD4 cells (bind to MHC2)
113
Cytotoxic T cells is also known as:
CD8 cells (bind to MHC1)
114
Most numerous of T cells, responsible for activation of the macrophage system
T-helper cells
115
Responsible for the direct attack, capable of killing microorganisms, create holes (perforins)
Cytotoxic T cell
116
Three types of cells that CD8 T cells target:
Virally infected cells
Cancer cells
Transplanted cells
117
Has a regulatory function by suppressing action of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells, limiting the ability of the immune system to attack a person's own body tissue
Suppressor T cells
118
Type of immunity induced after contact with foreign antigen which confers long term protection, but with slow onset of action
Active immunity
119
Type of immunity by administration of antibody in a vaccine, that allows prompt availability of large amount of antibodies, however may present with hypersensitivity reactions
Passive immunity
120
Antigen present in Type A blood
N-Acetyl-Galactosamine
121
Antigen present in Type B blood
Galactose
122
Antigen present in Type AB blood
N-acetyl galactosamine, galactose
123
Antigen present in Type O blood
None
124
Antigen present in Rh+ blood
D antigen
125
Determined by genotype from mother and father
Agglutinogens
126
Spontaneously acquired from food, bacteria, etc; produced at 2-8 months, maximum titer at 8-10 years
Agglutinins
127
Blood type O has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins
No agglutinogen, Anti A and Anti B agglutinin
128
Blood type A has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins
A agglutinogen, Anti B agglutinin
129
Blood type B has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins
B agglutinogen, Anti A agglutinin
130
Blood type AB has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins
A and B agglutinogen, no agglutinin
131
Blood type with clotting in an anti-A serum
Blood type A
132
Blood type with clotting in an anti-B serum
Blood type B
133
Blood type with clotting in both anti-A and anti-B serum
Blood type AB
134
Blood type with no clotting in both anti-A and anti-B serum
Blood type O
135
4 types of organ transplantation:
autograft
isograft/syngeneic graft (identical twin)
allograft (same species; most common)
xenograft (other species)
136
Mechanism to prevent blood loss whenever a vessel is severed or ruptured
Hemostasis
137
Sequence of events in hemostasis
Vascular constriction (endothelin-1)
Platelet plug formation
Blood coagulatoin
Resolution: formation of fibrous tissue, or dissolution of clot
138
2 mediators of platelet adhesion:
vWF, glycoprotein Ib
139
2 mediators of platelet aggregation:
Fibrinogen, glycoprotein IIb-IIIa
140
Cascade of chemical reaction in response to vessel damage/trauma to blood results in formation of:
Prothrombin activator
141
What is the action of prothrombin activator?
Converts prothrombin (Factor II) to thrombin
142
What is the action of thrombin?
Converts fibronogen (Factor I) to fibrin
143
What is the action of fibrin?
Acts as a net/meshwork: trap platelets, blood cells and plasma; adhere to damaged endothelium
144
Pathway activated due to trauma to vascular walls; faster
Extrinsic pathway
145
Pathway activated due to trauma to blood cells or exposure of blood to collagen; slower
Intrinsic pathway
146
Extrinsic pathway is initiated by:
```
Tissue factor (Factor III/Tissue thromboplastin)
Thrombin cause positive feedback via activation of Factor V
```
147
Intrinsic pathway is initiated by:
Factor XII and Platelets
148
Which clotting factors are common to both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway?
Factors X, V
149
What factor is also called the Stuart factor?
Factor X
150
What factor is also called the Hageman factor?
Factor XII
151
What factor is also called the Christmas factor?
Factor IX
152
What substance converts plasminogen to plasmin?
Tissue plasminogen activator
153
The most crucial even in wound healing
Hemostasis
