Neuro-Ophtho Examination Flashcards

1
Q

Optic Nerve - CN II
- exiting location
- axons stem from what cells
- function

A
  • exits @ optic disc / optic foramen
  • axons stem from the retinal ganglion cells
  • function = to carry electrical signals from the retina to the brain (for vision)
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2
Q

Where do CNs III, IV and VI exit from and what are their functions?

A
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3
Q

Which CN helps you to look up, towards your nose, down, to centralize the pupils via conteracting the dorsal oblique, and to lift the upper eyelid?

A

CN III - Occulomotor

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4
Q

Which CN counteracts the ventral oblique?

Helps centralize pupil

A

CN IV - Trochlear

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5
Q

Deficit in what CN?

A

Occulomotor (III)

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6
Q

Deficit in what CN?

A

Trochlear (IV)

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7
Q

Which CN “sucks” the eye inwards passively, moving the third eyelid?

A

CN VI (Abducens)

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8
Q

Deficit in what CN?

A

Abducens (VI)

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9
Q

Where do each of the Trigeminal branches exit at?

A

Ophthalmic (V1 / VO) = oribtal fissure
Maxillary (V2 / VMax) = round foramen thru rostral alar canal
Mandibular (V3 / VMan) = oval foramen

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10
Q

Functions of each of the trigeminal branches?

A
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11
Q

Functions and exiting location of CN VII (Facial Nerve)?

A
  • Innervation to orbicularis oculi mm. & the orbicularis ori m.
  • parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal glands and 3rd eyelid glands
  • exits @ stylomastoid foramen
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12
Q

Function and exiting location of CN VIII (vestibulococchlear)?

A
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13
Q

CN X function with regards to the oculocardiac reflex and the importance of its monitoring during surgeries like enucleations?

A

CN VIII mediates the efferent parasympathetic signaling to the oculocardiac reflex. Manipulations to the eye and/or increases in IOP can lead to this reflex, resulting in sudden bradycardia.

DURING SX If this reflex is left unrecognized / untreated, the patient can develop hypotension 2º to bradycardia, which can be detrimental

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14
Q

Ocular clinical manifestations of facial nerve deficits?

A

Neurogenic KCS (dry eyes) with xeromycteria (dry nose)

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15
Q

What factors can cause inconsistencies in testing the menace response?

A

Age, stoic animals, pain (ocular or systemic), cats

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16
Q

What tests assess vision?

A

Menace, cotton ball, maze

17
Q

What tests assess sensation?

A

Palpebral, corneal

18
Q

What test assesses movement?

A

Oculcephalic reflex

19
Q

What does the Dazzle Reflex test?

A

Blink and globe retraction via a bright light

20
Q

In species with double crossover (rostral axons decussate @ optic chiasm & again @ pretectal nucleus in midbrain), what type of response occurs in the PLR?

A

Direct & consensual (ipsilateral and contralateral pupil constriction)

direct is of greater magnitude than consensual

Domestic species: double crossover is NOT 50:50

21
Q

In species with 100% crossover (birds), what type of response is produced in PLR?

A

Direct ONLY! No consensual PLR

22
Q

Afferent lesions manifesting as abnormal PLR?

A
23
Q

Efferent lesions manifesting as abnormal PLR?

A
24
Q

End-Organ Lesions (Iris) manifesting as abnormal PLR?

A
25
Q

Identify the top & bottom afferent lesions

A

Top: image is thru the pupil. Lesion = retinal detachment (notice ballooning of the vessel)
Bottom: optic neuritis (optic nerve is “fuzzy” and edematous)

26
Q

Identify the end-organ lesion

A

Iris atrophy

27
Q

If PLR is absent with a cataracts patient, what is the actual inciting cause of the absent PLR?

A

retinal detachment and retinal degeneration

28
Q

If PLR is absent in a SARDS (sudden acquired retinal degeneration syndrome) patient, what is the actual inciting cause of the absent PLR?

A

Glaucoma and optic neuritis

29
Q

If PLR is absent in patient with central blindness, what is the actual inciting cause of the absent PLR?

A

multi-focal disease

30
Q

Describe the Marcus Gunn pupil // a positive swinging flashlight test

A

Swinging Flashlight Test

Normal eye: consensual pupillary constriction occurs (when light shone onto contralateral / non-diseased eye)

Diseased eye (unilateral retinal detachment or unilateral optic neuritis): consensual pupillary constriction occurs, but absent direct pupillary constriction occurs // immediate pupil dilation occurs (when light is shone directly onto diseased eye) = positive swinging flashlight test

Used to detect pre-chiasm optic nerve lesions, or unilateral (asymmetrical) retinal diseases

31
Q

What are the 4 classic signs of Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  1. Enopthalmos (sunken eyes)
  2. Ptosis (upper-eyelid drooping)
  3. Protrusion of 3rd eyelid
  4. Miosis
32
Q

What is Horner’s Syndrome?

A

Dysfunction of sympathetic innervation to the eyes & facial muscles

33
Q

How to confirm Horner’s Syndrome // localize the inciting lesion?

A

1 drop of 10% phenylephrine eye drop -> induces mydriasis in…
-** less than 20 minutes for 3rd-order lesions**
- 20-60 mintues for 2nd-order lesions
- 60-90 minutes for 1st-order lesions

It is helpful to consider that the sympathetic pathway is a three-neuron system, and as such Horner’s syndrome can be classified as first, second, or third order.

First-order Horner’s syndrome, or upper motor neuron Horner’s syndrome, may originate anywhere along the pathway from its origin in the hypothalamus through the lateral tectotegmentospinal system in the cervical spinal cord to its termination in the lateral gray column from T1-3. Typically, first-order Horner’s syndrome is accompanied by significant neurologic deficits and has reportedly been associated with neoplasia, trauma, infarctions, and meningoencephalomyelitis.

Second-order Horner’s syndrome (preganglionic) results from a lesion in the pathway beginning from T1-3, through the associated spinal roots and ramus communicans, and up the cranial thoracic and cervical parts of the sympathetic trunk. This trunk travels with the vagus nerve, forming the vagosympathetic trunk, located in the carotid sheath. Trauma, aggressive jugular venipuncture, bite wounds, mediastinal lymphoma, and brachial plexus avulsion have all reportedly been the cause of second-order Horner’s syndrome.28,63

Third-order Horner’s syndrome is most commonly recognized associated with otitis media and results from lesions rostral to the termination of the preganglionic axons in the cranial cervical ganglion, located at the level of the tympanic bulla.