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Neuro I Flashcards

1
Q

function of the NS

A

controls and coordinates the body’s activities to maintain homeostasis

generation of sensory input to be processed

processing incoming data

generation of impulses that control voluntary and involuntary motor functions

storage of information

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2
Q

neurons

A

are the functional unit of the NS

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3
Q

cell body of neuron

A

main part of neuron, forms gray matter, center of the neuron

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4
Q

dendtites

A

recieve nerve impulses, branch like projections, carries impulses towards cell body

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5
Q

3 characteristics of a neuron

A

excitability

conductivity

influence

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6
Q

excitability

A

ability to generate an impulse

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7
Q

conductivity

A

ability to transmit an impulse within itself

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8
Q

influence

A

ability to influenec other neurons

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9
Q

axon

A

projects impulses away, found in myelin sheath

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10
Q

myelin sheath

A

speeds axon transmission, insulates & maintains white matter, nodes of Ranvier

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11
Q

axon with myelin sheath is myelinated or non myelinated

A

myelinated

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12
Q

multipolar neuron

A

multiple dendrites one axon

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13
Q

bipolar neuron

A

one dendrite, one axon

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14
Q

unipolar neuron

A

one process

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15
Q

lipid gives myelin what?

A

white color

insoluble in water-so need fat soluble Rx is needed to penatrate myelin sheath

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16
Q

classifications of neurons

A

structural-defined by the processes they have

functional-diretction of impulses conducted

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17
Q

sensory neurons

A

transmit nerve impulses toward CNS from peripheral sensory organs

Afferent-towards the brain (CNS)

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18
Q

motor neurons

A

transmit nerve impulses away from CNS to muscles, glands, organs

Efferent-away from CNS (brain)

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19
Q

Afferent

A

sensory neurons

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20
Q

Efferent

A

motor neurons

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21
Q

inter neurons

A

conduct impulses from one neuron to another

Sensory to motor or motor to sensory

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22
Q

two types of cells in the NS

A

neurons & neuroglia (glial) cells

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23
Q

Neuroglia cells

A

purpose: repair, support & protect neurons

more neuroglia than neurons

common source of primary tumors

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24
Q

types of neuroglia cells

A

astrocytes

ependymal cells

microglia

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25
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

produce the myelin sheath

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26
Q

astrocytes

A

found mostly in gray matter, Star of NS,

acumulate where neurons have been damaged

contribute to scar formation (gliosis)

feed neurons, from blood brain barrier

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27
Q

what forms the blood brain barrier

A

astrocytes

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28
Q

ependymal cells

A

aid in secretion and regulation of CSF

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29
Q

microglia

A

remove waste

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30
Q

can damaged nerves regrow

A

yes

in the CNS-it is limited

in the PNS- slow process

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31
Q

Nerve impulse conduction

A

travels by electrical transmission along axon and chemical transmission between neurons until it reaches its destination.

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32
Q

an electrical impulse is a result of what

A

K+ and Na+ ions moving in and out of the cells

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33
Q

Action potential

A

Our electrical impulses, has 3 states:

resting state

depolarization

repolarization

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34
Q

resting state of action potential

A

no impulse, increase of K+ within cell and decrease of Na+

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35
Q

depolarization

A

channels in cell membrance open & Na+ rushes in cell

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36
Q

repolarization

A

when the Na+ moves back out of cell and K+ moves back in cell

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37
Q

when the impulses reaches the end of the nerve fiber it is then transmitted across the junction between nerve cells at what?

A

the synapse

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38
Q

saltatory conduction

A

type of nerve conduction when nerve is myelinated

action potential jumps from one node of Raniver to the next, with saltatory conduction the Na+ and K+ ions only require to move in and out of cells at the Nodes of Tanvier

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39
Q

the synaptic transmission is compossed of what 4 components

A

presynaptic knob, synaptic cleft, neurotransmitter, and the receptor site

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40
Q

neurotransmitter

A

chemicals involved in the transmission of an impulse across the synapse

have excitatory or inhibitory

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41
Q

chemicals found in the neurotransmitters

A

acetylcholine

serotonin

norepinephrine

dopamine

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42
Q

name the two divisions of the nervous system

A

central and peripheral

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43
Q

the CNS consists of what

A

brain (cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum)

and spinal cord

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44
Q

brainstem consists of what

A

midbrain

pons

medulla

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45
Q

the peripheral nervous system consists of what

A

12 pairs cranial nerves

31 pairs spinal nerves

autonomic nervous system (sympathetic & parasympathetic)

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46
Q

what are the protective structures of the NS

A

cranium

-14 facial bones, 8 cranial bones

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47
Q

foramen magnum

A

large hole, largest hole in skull, where brainstem and spinal cord connect

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48
Q

scalp

A

outermost layer of protection, fibrous, freely moving

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49
Q

dura mater

A

outer layer, thickest, toughest

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50
Q

arachnoid

A

middle layer, thin, delecate, loosly encloses the brain

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51
Q

pia mater

A

innermost layer, thin, vascular, mesh like

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52
Q

meninges

A

3, protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord

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53
Q

epidural space

A

between skull & dura mater, above dura mater

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54
Q

subdural space

A

below dura, between dura & arachnoid

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55
Q

subarachnoid space

A

between arachnoid & pia mater, holds CSF

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56
Q

name the layers of the protective structures of the nervous system

A

skin

bone

epidural space

dura mater

subdural space

arachnoid membrane

subarachnoid space

pia mater

brain

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57
Q

falx cerebri

A

dural fold that separates the 2 cerebral hemisphers

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58
Q

tentorium cerebelli

A

double dura later fold between the cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum

allows for some expansion

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59
Q

supratentorial

A

surgery above the tentorium (cerebrum)

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60
Q

infratentorial

A

surgery below the tentorium

(cerebella)

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61
Q

CSF

A

cerebrospinal fluid

clear, colorless, odorless

fills ventricles and subarachnoid space of brain and spinal column

no RBC in CSF

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62
Q

what is the purpose of CSF

A

protects and cusions

shock absorber

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63
Q

what is CSF made of

A

H2O, protein, O2, CO2, Na, K, Cl, glucose

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64
Q

CSF flow

A

termed the 3rd circulation,

it is a closed system

absorbed by the arachnoid villi projections

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65
Q

the brain requires ____% of the bodys total oxygen and glucose requirements

A

25%

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66
Q

Venous drainage of the brain

A

exits via 2 vascular channels called dural sinuses which empty into the jugular veins

has NO valves, gravity is needed for drainage of blood

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67
Q

where does the arterial supply for the brain enter

A

foramen magnum

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68
Q

the anterior circulation is supplied by

A

the common carotid -external & internal carotid

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69
Q

the posterior circulation of the brain is supplied by

A

the R & L subclavian artery which branhes into R &L vertebral arteries then come together again to make the basiliar artery

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70
Q

circle of willis

A

allows blood to circulate from one hemisphere to another, acts as a safety valve, protects from occlusion or differential pressures, formed by the basilar artery and internal carotids

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71
Q

blood brain barrier

A

a pysicological barrier between blood capillaries and brain tissue, made of astrocytes and tight capilaries, protects brain from potential damaging agents, chemicals and toxins

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72
Q

what medications can get through the BBB

A

lipid souluable

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73
Q

3 divisions of the brain

A

cerebrum, brain stem, cerebellum

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74
Q

gyrus

A

convolution (folds) on the surface of the brain, increases surface area

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75
Q

fissure

A

deep seperations in the cerebral hemispheres

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76
Q

great longitudinal fissure

A

divides the cerebral hemispher into right and left

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77
Q

cerebrum

A

largest part of brain, contains nerve centers associated with sensory, motor and higher mental functions

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78
Q

cerebral cortex

A

outer layer of the brain, it is the gray matter, has billions of neuron cell bodies & dendrites

Made of cell bodies

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79
Q

2 hemispheresof the cerebrum

A

each hemisphere has 4 lobes

-frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

have corresponding cortex layer

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80
Q

the white matter of the brain is made up of?

A

axons

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81
Q

frontal lobe of the brain

A

contralateral (left controls right, right controls left)

function: ig motor movements, memory, higher cognitive function (problem solving), judgement, broca’s area

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82
Q

Broca’s area is responsible for

A

expressive speech-ability to form words

damage to this area can cause stuttering, expressive aphasia

can be impaired by trauma or alcohol

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83
Q

cerbral dominacny for 90% of persons is which lobe

A

left frontal lobe

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84
Q

parietal lobe

A

primary sensory area

interprets sensory thought-touch, position

body awareness

spatial awareness-ability to comprehen out position in relation to our enviornment (so we are not clumsy)

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85
Q

temporal lobes

A

auditory reception-hear and interpret sound

Wernicke’s area-reception of speech, ability to understand written & spoken language

receptive aphagia

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86
Q

Wernicke’s area of the brain

A

temporal lobe

helps with ability to understand writeen and spoken language

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87
Q

damage to the temporal lobe can cause

A
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88
Q

occipital lobe

A

primary receptive area for vision and visual association

damage to this area will cause to not understand what is seen

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89
Q

basal ganglia

A

base/clump of neurons

deep in the hemispheres

responsible for execution, initiation, completion of voluntary movement and autonomic movements (blinking)

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90
Q

diencephalons

A

area of the brain just above brainstem

includes thalamus, hypothalamus

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91
Q

thalamus

A

major relay station for all sensations

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92
Q

hypothalamus

A

regulates autonomic nervous system

effects temperature, fluid balance, reproduction, metabolism, and hunger

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93
Q

limbic system

A

effects feeding and sexual behaviors and emotional responses

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94
Q

brain stem

A

connects spinal cord with cerebrum and cerebellum

contains ascending and descending pathways for impulses to go to and from the brain

attachment for crainal cerves III-XII

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95
Q

brainstems 3 main structures

A

midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongota

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96
Q

what is the medulla oblongata

A

primary rhythm center, responsible for RR, HR, BP cardiac function

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97
Q

Reticular formation

RAS

A

special neurons that control the sleep-wake cycle

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98
Q

reticular activating system controls what

A

attention span, conciousness, damage could cause issues with LOC

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99
Q

cerebellum

A

located in posterior fossa, above brainstem, below the occipital lope

responsible for fine motor moements, balance, truckal stability

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100
Q

spinal cord

A

continuious with the brain stem, mass of nervous fibers, extends from C1-L1

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101
Q

what is the spinal cord protected by

A

meninges (dura mater, arachnoid & pia mater)

and vertebrae

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102
Q

gray matter in the spinal cord

A

anterior/ventral-wider arms of the H

where primary motor neurons are located, hold motor tracks

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103
Q

the white matter is made up of what?

what does it do?

A

myelinated nerve tracks, carry messages between the brain and the perioheral muscles

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104
Q

Sensory

A

afferent messages ascending tracks, messages to the brain

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105
Q

motor

A

efferent messages, descending tracks, messages go down or away from the brain

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106
Q

ascending tracts of the spinal cord do what

A

carry sensory input to the brain from the periphery

such as touch, pressure, vibration, and kinesthesia

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107
Q

spinocerebelalr tracts effects what

A

muscle tension and body positon

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108
Q

nothalamic tracts effects what

A

temperature and pain

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109
Q

descending tracts in the spinal cord do what

A

carry motor messages

110
Q

corticospinal

A

descending tract, cortex of frontal lobe & crosses at the medulla

its responsible for voluntary motor function

111
Q

lesions in the upper motor neuron cause what

A

weakness, paralysis, hyperflezia, spastic muscle tone

112
Q

lesions in the lower motor neuron cause what

A

weakness, paralysis, decrease muscle tone (flacid), hyporeflexia

113
Q

do reflexes have cerebral input

A

NO

114
Q

monosynaptic reflex steps

A
  • receptor organ:arrival of stimulus& activiation of receptor
  • sensory neuron: activation of sensory neuron
  • information processed in spinal cord
  • motor neuron: activation of motor neuron
115
Q

peripheral nervous system includes what structures

A

all neuronal structures that lie outside of the CNS

  • crainal nerves
  • spinal nerves
  • autonomic nervous system
116
Q

which crainal nerves start at the brain stem

A

III-XII

117
Q

Cranial Nerve I

A

Olfactory

  • smell
  • sensory
118
Q

Oh, Oh, Oh To Touch And Feel A Guys Vein And Hotdog

A
  • Olfactory
  • Optic
  • Oculomotor
  • Trochlear
  • Trigeminal
  • Abduncens
  • Facial
  • Acoustic
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • Vagus
  • Accessory (spinal)
  • Hypoglossal
119
Q

Crainal nerve II

A

Optic

  • sensory
  • vision

Snellen chart

120
Q

Crainal nerve III

A
  • oculomotor
  • motor
  • eye movement, eye lid, pupil constriction
121
Q

What crainal nerves are tested together

A

III, IV, VI

&

IX & X

122
Q

crainal nerve IV

A

Trochlear

  • motor
  • eye movement
123
Q

Crainal nerve V

A

Trigeminal

  • sensory & motor
  • facial sensation, chewing, corneal reflex
124
Q

crainal nerve VI

A

Abducens

  • motor
  • eye movement
125
Q

crainal nerve VII

A

Facial

-sensory & motor

taste & facial expressions

126
Q

crainal nerve VIII

A

acoustic

  • sensory
  • heaing and equilibruim
127
Q

Crainal nerve IX

A

Glossopharyngeal

  • sensory and motor
  • taste on posterior part of tounge, swallow & gag
128
Q

Crainal nerve X

A

Vagus

-smooth muscle of palate, pharynx and layrnyx, controls parasympathetic NS

129
Q

Crainal nerve XI

A

Accessory (spinal)

  • motor
  • muscles of neck
130
Q

Crainal nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal

  • Motor
  • Toungue movement
131
Q
A
132
Q

how many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs

133
Q

the dorsal root is the attachment for what

A

sensory fibers

134
Q

the ventral root is the attachment for what

A

the motor fibers

135
Q

dermatomes

A

area of skin that issupplied by sensory fibers of sensory root

136
Q

myotome

A
137
Q

cauda equina

A

horse tail, where the nerves come off

138
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

effects involuntary function of caridac, smooth muscle, and glands

139
Q

2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic NS

140
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

Fight of Flight

causes casoconstriction of blood vessels,

increase BP< RR< HR

originates at T1-L2 (Thoraciolumbar division)

141
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest and digest

conserves and stores bodys energy stores

decreases BP, HR, RR increases parastalsis

orginates in brain stem and sacral (craniosacral)

142
Q

nursing assessment of the conscious patient contains an assessment of what?

A

mental status

LOC

crainal nerves

motor and sensory function

cerebellar function

reflexes

143
Q

what kind of subjective data would you gather from a conscious patient

A

chief complaint (open ended ?’s)

medical history

any exposures to toxins, chemicals, etc..

learning disabilities?

recent and remote Hx

speech

nutritional/elimination

activity/sleep pattern

cognition

144
Q

who will do an in depth assessment of speech

A

speech pathologist/therapist

145
Q

expressive aphasia may show damage to what area of the brain

A

Brocha’s (frontal lobe)

know what they want to say but they are unable to express or say

146
Q

receptive aphasia may show damamge to what area of the brain

A

Wheinki’s area (temporal lobe)

can form words but not cordinated

147
Q

Romberg’s test

A

feet together, arms at sides, eyes open then closed to show position sense and equilibrium

(swaying = +Rombergs)

148
Q

cerebrallar function tests are used to show what

A

balance and coordination

  • finger to exaimers finger
  • walk heel to toe
  • touch finger to nose
  • Romberg’s test
149
Q

incontinence with back pain shows possible damage to what crainal nerve

A

Vagus

-X

150
Q

what objective dada would you get with a conscious patient

A

mental state

crainal nerve functions

motor function

verebellar function

sensory function

reflex function

151
Q

abnormalities with motor function

A

atrophy

contractures

tremors

twitching

hypertonia

hypotonia/flaccidity

152
Q

2 point discrimination

A

2 points of an instrument on the same area

can they feel both

153
Q

stereognosis

A

ability to ID a common object with just feel

154
Q

astereognosis

A

inability to ID a common object with just feel

155
Q

graphesthesia

A

ability to ID #’s and letters by feel when they are drawn on a body part with a finger

156
Q

babinski

A

when stoke lateral aspect of foot

if you have fanning of toes = + Babinski

157
Q

geriatric changes with nervous system are

A

loss of neurons (decrease in brain weight)

decrease in efficiency with regulating temperature

decrease blood flow

decrease of CSF (cushing and nurishment)

loss of myeling (decrease reaction time)

muscle atrophy

dinimished sense

slow reflexes

sleep patterns alter

158
Q

full conscious

A

alert, oriented, follows commands, answers ?’s

159
Q

confusion

A

disoriented to time and place

160
Q

lethargy

A

oriented but slow speech, mental process and motor activity

161
Q

obtundation

A

difficult to arose requires constant stimulus to answer ?’s and floow commands

162
Q

stupor

A

vigorous stimulation and doesnt follow commands

163
Q

coma

A

sleep like state, doesnt respond to stimulus

164
Q

glascow coma scale

A

calculate neuro status

15=fully intact

7=a level of coma

3 or less = deep coma/death

165
Q

decortication

A

abnormal flexion response

towards cored

damage above brain stem

166
Q

decerebration

A

abnormal extension response

brainstem disfunction

167
Q

what crainal nerves are checked in a unconscious patient

A

III (oculomotor)

V (trigeminal)

IX & X (gag reflex)

168
Q

pupil changes of slow or absent can indicate what

A

increase of crainal pressure or cerebral herniation

169
Q

oculocephalic reflex

A

unconsious pt only

eyes are held open, head is turned side to side,

if the eyes move with the head = ABNORMAL

170
Q

oculovestibular reflex

A

administer cool fluid into the pts ear, if the eyes deciate to side of the injection that is NORMAL

171
Q

In the NIH stoke scale you want the over all # to be what

A

lower the better

172
Q

Xray will indicate what

A

evaluate skull and vertebrae for abnormalities, fx, calcifications..etc

173
Q

cerebral angiography

A

contrast medium into femoral artery

*flushing or warm feeling

visualize intracranial and extracrainal blood bessels

for occlusion, patency, narrowing, stenosis, abnormal bleed

*assess for bleeding, PT must lay flat, check 6 p’s, increase fluids to flush dye out

174
Q

CT Scan

A

cross sectional view of head and brain

bone=white

CSF=black

brain=gray

ID changes in tissue density, abnormal size, shape and location of structures, edema, infarction, growth, clots, bleeding, skull fx

Lay motionless for 15-20 minutes, murmur noise

175
Q

MRI

A

NO RADIATION (use magnets)

clearer imagesof soft tissues

sharp detailed cross sections of brain,

LOUD, @ 1 hour, wear headphones

176
Q

MRA

A

type of MRI to check blood flow and abnormalities, small vessels may be difficult to view

177
Q

myelogram

A

visulize spinal column and subarachnoid space using a contrast medium (lumbar puncture)

not done frequently

178
Q

CSF analysis

A

obtain by lumbar puncture

check for RBC

below L3

have transient pain (pain/twitching down leg)

179
Q

manometer

A

used during lumbar puncture

measures pressure of CSF

pt is asked to extend thier legs

180
Q

EEG (electroencephalopgraphy)

A

electordes are placed on scalp with paste mixture

shows electrical activity of brain

-seizures, sleep disorders, parkinsons, etc

181
Q

why should you eat prior to a EEG

A

because low glucose can alter the brain patterns

182
Q

EMG (electromyography)

A

needle electrodes are plcaed in muscle to measure nerve conduction

muscle at rest = no electrical activity

pt will have pain

183
Q

evoked potentials

A

measures the electrical signals along nerve pathways

measure amount of time it takes a impulse to move through pathway

  • visual
  • auditoy
  • somatosensory (electric shock)
184
Q

PET

A

3D image of brain function

given a chemical substance that is inhaled

blood flow, brain metabolism

185
Q

carotid duplex

A

blood flow velosity in carotid artery, looks for blockages or occlusions

186
Q

transcrainal doppler

A

image flow velocity of intracrainal blood vessels (temporal/occipital area)

187
Q
A
188
Q

inner ear does what

A

sends into to brain (hearing & equilibrium)

189
Q

auricle

A

is the outer part of the ear

AKA pinna

made of cartliage, collevts and transmits sound waves and sends them to tympanic membrane

190
Q

external auditory canal is lined with what

A

fine hairs, sebacous glands and ceruminous glands

191
Q

cerumen

A

ear wax

protective helps provent debris from entering the ear

192
Q

tympanic membrane

A

eardrum

concave shape, shiny, pearly gray translucent

sound waves conducted by the tympanic membrane then the ossicles

193
Q

ossicles

A

malleus, incus, stapes

194
Q

what is the middle ear connected to

A

nasal pharnx by the eustacian tube

195
Q

eustachian tube

A

helps to equalize pressure between outter and inner ear

to open you must yawn or swallow

196
Q

inner ear contains

A

vestubule, cochlea, semicircular canals, membranous labyrinth, bony labyrinth

197
Q

membranous labyrinth

A

holds semicircular canals, and orgin of cortie

surrounded by endolymph fluid

198
Q

endolymph fluid

A

allows structures to float to prevent damage if have head injury

199
Q

vestibule

A

separets cochlea from semicircular canals

entrance to inner ear

communicates between cochlea and semicircular canals

200
Q

semicircular canals

A

sensory organs that help with equilibrium

if have excess of fluid in these canals have balance issues

201
Q

cochlea

A

snail shape

within is the orgin of cortie

202
Q

organ of corti

A

lined with tiny hair cells, when they are stimulated they transmit a electrical impulse of acustical nerve

203
Q

transmission of sound is measured in what

A

dB and Htz

204
Q

bone conduction bypasses what

A

external and middle ear

205
Q

your equilibrium is controlled by what

A

vestibule amd semicircular canals

206
Q

dynamic equilibrium

A

ability to remain stable with movement

207
Q

static equilbrium

A

orientation to body to ground so we can maintain our posture

208
Q

nystagmus

A

abnormal fine eye twitching

report if blurry vision or fluttering feeling

209
Q

vertigo

A

sensation that you are spinning in space or moving

vertigo will contimue while you lay down, where dizziness will go away

210
Q

hibituation

A

you should continue the activity in small incriments to acculmate yourself and it will eventually get better

211
Q

what disease if a pregnant women has can affect the babies hearing

A

rubella

212
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

problem with sound wave condiction

-hardening of ossicles

213
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

problem with inner ear

cochlea, hair cells, nerve (acustic)

214
Q

Presbycusis

A

hearing loss associated with aging

215
Q

ear changes in the elderly

A
  • eardrum thickens, decrease ability to produce sound waves
  • in hair and cerumen
  • califying of ossicles
  • damage to hair cells over time
216
Q

tinnitus

A

ringing of the ears

217
Q

Rinne Test

A

vibrating fork is placed on patients mastoid bone then when they no longer hear sound the fork is moved to front of pinna

218
Q

positive Rinne test

A

air conduction time is greater than bone conduction

219
Q

Weber test

A

stem of an activated tuning fork is placed on the center of the skull

220
Q

conductive hearing loss in weber test

A

sound will lateralize to the poor ear

221
Q

sensorineural hearing loss in the weber test

A

sound will lateralize to the good ear

222
Q

audiometry

A

sound proof room, sounds vary in frequency and intensity

single most important test for evaluating hearing

223
Q

electrostagmography

A

irrigate the ear and watch for eye movement

224
Q

otologist

A

MD, Dx ear problems, perform surgery

225
Q

otolaryngologist (ENT)

A

perform surgery

226
Q

audiologist

A

eval & Tx ear disorders

not an MD

227
Q

for ear drops how do you palce pt

A

lay on unaffected side, pull ear up and back on aduld, down and back on kid

228
Q

how should you place a pt for ear irrigation

A

pt should lean towards you

229
Q

orbit of eye

A

bones, protective socket for eyeball

230
Q

palpebral conjunctiva

A

eyelid, mucous membrane that lines eyelid

231
Q

what is the purpose of the conjunctiva

A

secretes mucous and oil, keeps cornea moist clear and free of infection

232
Q

function of lacrimal system

A

allows tears to flow from outer to inner eye

233
Q

puncta

A

tiny openings in the lids that let tears drain into lacrimal duct, nose

234
Q

pathway for vision is

A

light passes through cornea, pupil, posterior cavity, focused on retnia and then the optic nerve

235
Q

ciliary muscles help with what

A

help to change the shape of the lens for focusing (accomadation)

236
Q

what controls the constriction and dilation of the iris

A

sphincter and dilator iris muscles

237
Q

sclera

A

toughest, thickest, outer layer

helps maintain shape and protects

white part of the eye

can be blue in children and yellow in african americans and the elderly

238
Q

cornea

A

transparent and avascular

initial means of refraction = crude focus

239
Q

iris

A

colored part of the eye highly vascular

240
Q

choroid

A

below sclera

supplies blood to retinal layer

241
Q

lens

A

directly behind pupil

biconvex

bends light rays to focus on retina

242
Q

retina

A

made up of neurons, inner most layer

if it is damaged you have vision loss

converts image to a form that the brain can understand and process into vision

243
Q

rod vs cone

A

rod-receptors for dim light

cones-color receptors

244
Q

macula

A

area of retina responsible for central vision

free of blood vessels bc has concentraded cones

245
Q

fovea centalis

A

center of macula

most sensitive area

sharpest visual acuity

246
Q

optic disc

A

depression the optic nerve exits at the optic disk also where we get blood flow

247
Q

anterior chamber

A

from cornea ro lense

248
Q

posterior chamber

A

from iris to lense

249
Q

light ray that enters the eye will travel through…

A

cornea

aqueous humor

pupil

lens

vitrous humor

retina

optic disc, nerve

optic chiasm

occipital lobes

250
Q

pseudopedrin can do what to the eyes

A

dilate the pupils

251
Q

longterm corticosteriods can put a pt at risk for what

A

glacoma and catarects

252
Q

ptosis

A

drooping of eyelid

253
Q

anisocoria

A

unequal pupil size

254
Q

exopthalmos

A

bulging of eye

255
Q

enopthalmos

A

sunken apperance of the eye

256
Q

snellen chart

A

20 feet from chart and read the smallest letters, at least 50% of the letters must be correct

257
Q

OD

A

right eye

258
Q

OS

A

left eye

259
Q

OU

A

both eyes

260
Q

Jaegar chart

A

near vision

hold about 14 inches away

261
Q

refractometry

A

multiple lenses used with snellen chart

262
Q

opthamoscope

A

dark room, dilate eyeevaluating optic disk, retina and macula

263
Q

absence of red reflex

A

abnormal

looking for a reflection of light off retina

264
Q

intraoccular pressure

A

mearsured with puff of air

normal is 10-21 mHg

265
Q

Ishihara test

A

dosts are arranaged in a simple pattern to test for color blindness

266
Q

ophthalmologist

A

MD who provides total care, surgery etc

267
Q

optometrist

A

dont perform eye surgery

268
Q

optician

A

grinds and fits lenses according to a Rx

269
Q

arcus senilis

A

milky white or yellow ring aound iris

due to cholestrol deposits

270
Q

eye medications need to be spread out for how long

A

in between multiple eye medications 5-10 minutes

271
Q

ointments

A

stay on longer

thicker

but can cause blurry vision

272
Q
A

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