Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What muscles can change the stiffness of the ossicular chain?

A

Stapedius and tensor tympani.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 4 cerebellar nuclei.

A
  1. Dentate.
  2. Emboliform.
  3. Globose.
  4. Fastigial.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where is the primary motor cortex?

A

pre-central gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the cavities of the cochlea are filled with perilymph?

A

Scala vestibuli and scala tympani.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where does venous blood exit the cranium?

A

jugular foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

other name for primary motor cortex?

A

Brodmann’s Area 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what comes before the relative refractory period?

A

the absolute refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the anatomical divisions of the nervous system?

A

The CNS (brain and spinal cord) and the PNS (cranial nerves and spinal nerves).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • What does Cn2 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervates: retina.

- Function: vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define axonal transmission.

A

Transmitting information from A to B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves come from?

A

T1 -> L2 spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • What does Cn4 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervates: superior oblique.

- Functions: movement of eyeball.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the vestibular apparatus?

A
  1. Otolithic organs: utricle and saccule.

2. 3 Semi-circular canals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the I’MAuditory pathway.

A

Inferior colliculi -> inferior brachium -> medial geniculate body.
- Concerned with the reflex of looking towards a loud noise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

Spinal nerves from the lower spinal cord that hang obliquely downwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs of UMN weakness?

A
  • Increased muscle tone.
  • Hyper-reflexia.
  • Spasticity.
  • Minimal muscle atrophy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do the middle cerebellar peduncles convey?

A

They send information from the primary motor cortex about the motor plan to the cerebellum - corticopontocerebellar tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What tracts are known as the dorsomedial system?

A

DCML.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the action(s) of medial rectus on the eyeball?

A
  • Adduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do the two optic nerves meet?

A

At the optic chiasm. The images from the two eyes are fused here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

The nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord. It includes the cranial nerves (except 1 and 2) and the spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  • What does Cn1 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervates: olfactory epithelium.

- Function: olfaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What tracts are known as the ventrolateral/anterolateral system?

A

Spinothalamic tracts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  • What does Cn6 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervates: lateral rectus.

- Function: eye movement, abduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where do the fibres of the vestibulospinal tract decussate?

A

they dont

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What nerve fibres innervate golgi tendon organs?

A

Afferent type 1b sensory nerve fibres (inhibitory).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What week does the neural tube fuse?

A

Week 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the metencephalon form?

A
  • Cerebellum.

- Pons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of microglia?

A

They are the immune cells of the CNS - phagocytic and immune surveillance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What lies beneath the arachnoid mater?

A

The subarachnoid space containing CSF and arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where do the purkinje cell axons go to?

A

Most go to the dentate nucleus. They then pass into the superior cerebellar peduncle to decussate, and then travel to the thalamus and the red nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where does the external jugular vein receive blood from?

A

exterior of the cranium, deep parts of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What neurones innervate muscle spindles?

A

Gamma motor neurones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the characteristic features of MS?

A

MS comes and goes and its symptoms are exacerbated after having a shower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do the two vertebral arteries form?

A

The basilar artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the conus medullaris?

A

The tapered, lower end of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the telencephalon form?

A
  • The cerebral hemispheres.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A 30-year-old woman noticed that her face had become progressively droopier whilst putting her make-up on in the mornings. Weeks later she began to experience double vision, and found it progressively more tiring and difficult to chew all the food in her mouth when eating. What is the problem?

A

Myasthenia Gravis (characterised by progressive weakness and tiredness. Actions like chewing become much harder. It is a neuromuscular junction disease where the Ach receptors are blocked).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

where does the rubrospinal tract decussate?

A

medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is an endorphin?

A

A peptide with opiate like effects. They inhibit the release of substance P.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does the mesencehpalon form?

A
  • Midbrain.

- Colliculi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do somatic motor neurones differ from autonomic motor neurones?

A

Somatic motor neurone leaves the spinal cord and synapses straight onto the effector. Autonomic motor neurones have a pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic component and so synapse at the ganglia and then at the effector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

which tract carries pain sensation?

A

lateral spinothalamic tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

The medial aspect of the hemispheres and the corpus callosum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What sensations does the spinothalamic pathway convey?

A
  • Lateral spinothalamic - pain and temperature.

- Anterior spinothalamic - crude touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Briefly describe the pathway of afferent pain transmission.

A

Nociceptors, A delta and C fibres, synapse with secondary afferent neurones in the dorsal horn of the grey matter. Substance P is released. Interaction amongst afferent neurones and interneurones determines the activity of secondary neurones. The signal is carried via the spinothalamic tract to the thalamus. Third order neurones then ascend to the somatosensory cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the effect of stimulating opioid receptors?

A

It can reduce neuronal sensitivty and so reduce the pain sensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  • What are the functions of Cn9?
A
  • Sensory functions: general sensation, taste, chemo/baroreception.
  • Motor functions: Swallowing (larynx and pharynx are elevated).
  • Parasympathetic function: salivation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does the myelencephalon form?

A
  • Medulla oblangata.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What site does brain stimulation affect?

A

Sub-thalamic nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What sensations is the lateral spinothalamic tract responsible for?

A

Pain and temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Give 3 functions of the cranial meninges.

A
  1. Protects the brain and spinal cord form injury.
  2. Provides a framework for cerebral and cranial vasculature.
  3. Provides a space for the flow of CSF.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where is the falx cerebelli located?

A

Between the 2 lobes of the cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What sensation is the anterior spinothalamic tract responsible for?

A

Crude touch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with increased muscle tone, brisk reflexes and fasciculations. Which spinal tract is likely to be affected?

A

Corticospinal (UMN and LMN weakness).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Are there any synapses within the descending pathways?

A

No. At the termination of the descending tracts, the neurones synapse with a lower motor neurone. (All the neurones within the descending motor system are UMNs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the dermatome for the thumb?

A

C6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

function of the tectospinal tract?

A

controls head turning to visual stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the two types of deafness?

A
  1. Conductive - sound is blocked from getting through.

2. Sensory neural - the problems are with the nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the ventral stream?

A

The ‘what’ stream. It is thought to be involved in identification and recognition. It travels through the temporal lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

if damaged, cn1 will cause what

A

anosmia on the ipsilateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the potential of the scala media?

A

+80mV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Briefly describe the stretch reflex.

A

The muscle is stretched and intrafusal muscle fibres are stimulated -> sends afferent impulses along 1a neurones -> alpha motor neurone -> efferent impulses to extrafusal muscle fibres -> contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

where does the internal jugular vein receive blood from?

A

brain, superficial parts of the face and the neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the function of myelin?

A

Insulates and allows rapid conduction of action potentials along an axon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Describe the corticobulbar tracts.

A

Originate in the primary motor cortex, descends through corona radiata and internal capsule to the brainstem. The fibres terminate on motor nuclei of cranial nerves. They synapse with LMN’s which carry motor signals to the face and neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the 3 cavities of the cochlea?

A
  1. Scala vestibuli.
  2. Scala media.
  3. Scala tympani.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where do the vestibulospinal tracts originate and what are they responsible for?

A
  1. Originate from vestibular nucleus.
  2. Responsible for muscle tone and postural control.
    - Remains ipsilateral.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What embryonic part of the brain is the medulla oblangata formed from?

A

Myelencephalon of Rhombencephalon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

does CN1 have afferent, efferent or both components?

A

afferent (sensory only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which arteries supply about 80% of blood to the brain?

A

The internal carotid arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is voluntary motor control?

A

Goal directed (conscious) or habitual (unconscious/automatic). E.g. running, walking talking etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe A delta fibres.

A
  • Small nerve fibres but larger than C fibres.
  • Thinly myelinated.
  • They have a high activation threshold.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

The limbic system is involved with emotion, behaviour, long-term memory, olfaction and motivation. It is also thought to have a role in learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what innervates extrafusal muscle fibres?

A

alpha motor neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where in the thalamus do the DCML and spinothalamic tracts synapse?

A

In the ventral posterio-lateral division (VPL) of the nucleus of thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the action(s) of inferior rectus on the eyeball?

A
  • Depression.
  • Extorsion.
  • Adduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease; antibodies destroy Ach receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which lobes of the brain does the loop of optic radiation responsible for the lower visual field travel through?

A

Travels through the parietal lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Name 4 disorders associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

A
  1. Huntington’s disease.
  2. Parkinson’s disease.
  3. ADHD.
  4. OCD.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the function of the ossicles?

A

To transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

Precise control, fine adjustment and coordination of motor activity based on continual sensory feedback. The cerebellum decides HOW you do something. It computes motor error and adjusts commands and projects it back to the motor cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

where are golgi tendon organs situated?

A

at the junction of a skeletal muscle and a tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Approximately how much CSF do we have?

A

120ml.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What structures connect adjacent stereocilia?

A

Tip links.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what do extrafusal muscle fibres do?

A

contract muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What would be the affect of damage to the cerebellar vermis?

A

Balance problems due to loss of postural control. Difficulty in sitting and standing up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what does the reticulospinal tract do?

A

acts to facilitate or inhibit the activity of various descending tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the nasopharynx?

A

Maxillary branch of the trigeminal - Cn 5(b).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what do muscle spindles detect?

A

muscle relaxation and extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Name the 3 elements that make up the blood-brain barrier.

A
  1. Capillary endothelial cells.
  2. Basement membrane.
  3. Astrocytic end-feet.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  • What is the name of Cn2?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Optic.
  • Optic canal (ethmoid bone).
  • Sensory.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the functional divisions of the nervous system?

A

Somatic (voluntary control) and autonomic (involuntary control, further subdivided into sympathetic and parasympathetic).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

where does the tectospinal tract originate?

A

superior colliculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what innervates the skeletal muscle?

A

alpha motor neurones = extrafusal = skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

the middle one third of the spindle is associated with which sensory nerves?

A

type 1a afferent sensory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Name 4 ascending spinal pathways.

A
  1. DCML.
  2. Spinothalamic.
  3. Spinocerebellar.
  4. Spinoreticular.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What occular muscle does Cn 4 innervate?

A

Superior oblique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Mutation of what protein can result in duchenne?

A

Dystrophin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the sub-divisions of the prosencephalon?

A
  • Telencephalon.

- Diencephalon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What nerve provides general sensation to the outer ear?

A

Cn 10.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What do the superior cerebellar peduncles do?

A

They connect the midbrain and the cerebellum and carry mostly efferent fibres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Where are dural venous sinuses located?

A

In between the endosteal and meningeal layers of dura.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

how does cn1 enter the cranial cavity

A

via small holes in the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What would pouring ice cold water in the external auditory meatus cause?

A

Convection currents in the semi-circular canals which results in nystagmus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What do the semi-circular canals detect?

A

Angular acceleration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  • What is the name of Cn1?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Olfactory.
  • Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone.
  • Sensory.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

% of fibres in the lateral vs anterior corticospinal tracts?

A

85% lateral

15% anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Withdrawal reflex: what does reciprocal innervation of antagonistic muscles explain?

A

It explains why the contraction of one muscle induces the relaxation of the other; this permits the execution of smooth movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the role of the insula in pain recognition?

A

The insula contributes to the subjective perception of pain. It is where the degree of pain is judged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

A man is feeling very distressed as he woke up being unable to feel the right side of his face and his right arm and leg. What lobe is affected?

A

The parietal lobe (somatosensory cortex). Feel is the key word here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the action(s) of superior oblique on the eyeball?

A
  • Intorsion.
  • Depression.
  • Abduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what does the anterior corticospinal tract do?

A

controls muscles of the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Define pain.

A

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual tissue damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

where do the axons of lower motor neurones terminate?

A

on an effector/ muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What nerve innervates tensor tympani?

A

Cn 5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What nerve provides general sensation to the middle ear?

A

Cn 9.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What structures lie anteriorly to the cerebellum?

A

The pons and medulla. The 4th ventricle lies in between these and the cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Where are Cn 1 nuclei located?

A

Olfactory bulb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is a berry aneurysm?

A

A sac-like out pouching that will progressively enlarge until it ruptures resulting in haemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Where is the insula located?

A

Deep in the lateral sulcus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What occular muscles does the superior branch of Cn 3 innervate?

A
  • Levator palpebrae superioris.

- Superior rectus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What spinal nerves innervate the biceps reflex?

A

C5/6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

name the two types of lower motor neurone

A

alpha and gamma motor neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the helicotrema?

A

Where the scala vestibuli and scala media meet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what innervates the spindle muscle fibres?

A

gamma motor neurones = intrafusal = spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Where do cerebral veins drain into?

A

Into dural venous sinuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are the 3 structures that make up the organ of corti?

A
  1. Hair cells.
  2. Supporting cells.
  3. Auditory nerve fibres.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what does the vestibulospinal tract do?

A

controls muscles involved in balance and posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Where is a berry aneurysm likely to occur?

A

At branching points in the circle of willis, especially at the anterior communicating artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What do golgi tendon organs measure?

A

Mechanoreceptors that measure changes in tension of a muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is the response of golgi tendon organs if they detect a change in tension?

A

They inhibit alpha motor neurones to prevent muscle contraction if the force gets too great.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What would be the signs of a complete spinal cord lesion?

A
  • Weakness in all muscle groups below the lesion.
  • Complete sensory loss below lesion.
  • Spasticity and hyperreflexia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

which part of the muscle spindle is contractile?

A

the two ends are contractile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What do the inferior cerebellar peduncles convey?

A

Ipsilateral muscle proprioception, balance and vestibular inputs - vestibulocerebellar tract and dorsal spinocerebellar tract. Also fibres from inferior olivocerebellar tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the dorsal stream?

A

The ‘where’ stream. It is thought to determine the objects spatial location. It travels through the parietal lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What 3 bones make up the ossicular chain?

A

Malleus, incus and stapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Where do the optic tracts terminate?

A

Lateral geniculate body in the thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What descending pathways are described as extrapyramidal?

A

Vestibulospinal, rubrospinal, tectospinal, reticulospinal - responsible for involuntary and automatic control of all musculature, such as muscle tone, balance, posture and locomotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

where is CSF reabsorbed?

A

into the superior sagittal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What nerve innervates stapedius?

A

Cn 7.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

where do the fibres of the the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system decussate?

A

at the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the reason behind the signs of PD?

A

Not enough dopamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What would be the affect on the visual field if there was a complete lesion of the left optic nerve?

A

Total left eye blindness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Is the base or the apex of the basilar membrane more sensitive to high frequency sounds?

A

The base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

Within the spinal cord, 2-3 spinal segments above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerves come from?

A

Cn 3, 7, 9 and 10, S2 -> 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is the papez circuit?

A

A circuit that connects the main structures of the limbic system. It is involved in memory and emotions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the action(s) of lateral rectus on the eyeball?

A
  • Abduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Describe C fibres.

A
  • They are the smallest nerve fibres.
  • Unmyelinated and so have slow conduction speeds.
  • They have a high activation threshold meaning they detect selectively nociceptive stimuli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

How is the neuronal resting potential maintained?

A

3Na+ are pumped out of the cell for every 2K+ pumped in. This process requires ATP. There are many Na+/K+ transport pumps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What efferent signals do the superior cerebellar peduncles convey?

A

Efferent signals from the dentate nucleus that go to the red nucleus and thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Do the finger tips have lots of muscle fibres or few muscle fibres?

A

Few muscle fibres. This allows for greater movement resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

where are muscle spindles found?

A

in skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

where does the reticulospinal tract originate?

A

from cells found in the pons and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Define dermatome.

A

An area of skin with a sensory nerve supply from a single root of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Where is the straight sinus located?

A

In the midline of the tentorium cerebelli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the smallest bone in the human body?

A

The stapes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are the signs of parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Tremor.
  2. Bradykinesia.
  3. Rigidity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the function of the vestibular hair cells?

A

They detect changes in motion and position of the head by stereocilia transduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q
  • What is the name of Cn6?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Abducens.
  • Superior orbital fissure.
  • Motor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the origin and insertion of levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Origin: common tendinous ring.
Insertion: Upper eyelid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q
  • What is the name of Cn11?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Accessory.
  • Jugular foramen.
  • Motor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Name 3 locations where the dura mater folds inwards as dural reflections?

A
  1. Falx cerebri.
  2. Tentorium cerebelli.
  3. Falx cerebelli.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What neurones innervate muscle fibres.

A

Alpha motor neurones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What are the functions of rods in the eye?

A

Rods are important for peripheral vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

You are carrying out an eye examination on a patient who is looking at the tip of your nose. Behind you, on your left hand side, is a tall medical student. What would be the patients’ retinal representation of the image of this students’ face?

A

The retinal image is converted from right to left and reversed. The students face is now in left lower corner.

(Medical student is stood on your left but that is the patients right).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the dermatome for the big toe?

A

L5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What sinuses form the confluence of sinuses?

A

The straight sinus and the superior sagittal sinus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Where is the majority of CSF produced?

A

In the lateral ventricles (greatest amount of choroid plexus here`).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

A 40-year-old removal man felt immediate back pain and a popping sensation after lifting a heavy box. The next day he noticed he was tripping over his right foot as it was dragging along the floor. What is affected?

A

Lower motor neurones (he has a slipped disc. The LMN nerve roots coming out of the spinal cord have been damaged).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What does the diencephalon form?

A
  • Thalamus.

- Hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is involuntary motor control?

A

Eye movements, facial expressions, posture, diaphragm etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

The lateral surface of the hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

A patient is diagnosed with a lesion to Cn 3, how would the eye appear to the examiner?

A

‘down and out’ due to unopposed action of lateral rectus and superior oblique.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

how are fibres in the dorsal columns arranged?

A

topographically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Where is the tentorium cerebelli located?

A

The tentorium cerebelli is a thick fibrous roof lying over the posterior cranial fossa and the cerebellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Where is the 3rd ventricle formed in the embryo?

A

Diencephalon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What do neural crest cells develop into?

A

Schwann cells, pigment cells, adrenal medulla, dorsal root ganglia, Cn 5, 7, 9 and 10.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What sensations does the DCML pathway convey?

A

Fine touch, 2-point discrimination and proprioception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What do the middle cerebellar peduncles do?

A

They connect the pons and the cerebellum and they ‘tell’ the cerebellum about voluntary motor outputs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Which cranial nerve can be tested in the unconscious patient by observing pupillary constriction in response to light?

A

Optic - CN2.

183
Q

Neurones communicate via 2 types of synapses. What are they?

A
  1. Chemical - majority.

2. Electrical.

184
Q

What is the function of the vestibular system?

A

Balance and spatial orientation.

185
Q

Where are the dural venous sinuses located?

A

Between the endosteal layer of dura and the meningeal layer.

186
Q

What are the pluripotent stem cells that lie within the neural folds?

A

Neural crest cells.

187
Q
  • What is the name of Cn9?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Glossopharyngeal.
  • Jugular foramen.
  • Both: sensory and motor and parasympathetic.
188
Q

What is the entry/exit foramina for the labyrinthine artery?

A

Internal acoustic meatus.

189
Q

Where is the falx cerebri located?

A

It lies in the longitudinal fissure between the cerebral hemispheres.

190
Q

What are the signs of myasthenia gravis?

A

Weakness and tiredness. Actions like chewing become progressively much harder.

191
Q

What do the internal carotid arteries supply?

A

The anterior and middle parts of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.

192
Q

What are the 2 connective tissue sheets of dura mater?

A
  1. Endosteal layer - lines the cranium.

2. Meningeal layer.

193
Q

What afferent signals do the superior cerebellar peduncles convey?

A

Ipsilateral information on proprioception and balance from the ventral spinocerebellar tract.

194
Q

A man presents to the stroke unit being unable to move/feel his right arm, right sided facial drooping and slurred speech. Which artery has been affected?

A

Left middle cerebral artery.

195
Q

What neurotransmitter is in deficit in huntington’s disease?

A

GABA.

196
Q

Where are vestibular hair cells located?

A

In the utricle and saccule and in 3 ampullae at the base of the semi-circular canals.

197
Q

What structures are contained within the limbic system?

A

Hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, mammillary bodies, cingulate gyrus, anterior nuclei of thalamus, hypothalamus.

198
Q

what is the function of wernicke’s area?

A

comprehension of speech

199
Q

What is the action(s) of superior rectus on the eyeball?

A
  • Elevation.
  • Intorsion.
  • Adduction.
200
Q

what is the resting potential of the neurone mostly governed by?

A

permeability of the membrane to K+ ions

201
Q

What are the corticospinal tracts responsible for?

A

The control of voluntary muscles. Anterior - axial muscles. Lateral - limb muscles.

202
Q
  • What does Cn11 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervation: trapezius and sternocleidomastoid.

- Functions: movement of head and shoulders.

203
Q

What vein passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

Superior ophthalmic vein

204
Q

how are the fibres of the corticospinal tract organised?

A

somatotopically
lower limbs -lateral
upper limbs- medial

205
Q

In huntington’s disease what area of the basal ganglia and what neurotransmitter are affected?

A
  • Striatum (caudate nucleus).

- GABA.

206
Q

What occular muscle does Cn 6 innervate?

A

Lateral rectus.

207
Q

Briefly describe the withdrawal reflex.

A

The limb is withdrawn from noxious stimuli. Afferent fibres synapse on motor neurones in spinal cord. The response is ipsilateral flexion (same side as noxious stimuli) and contralateral extension.

208
Q

What region of the vertebral column has the least capacity for flexion?

A

The thoracic region; this is due to the presence of the ribcage.

209
Q

What would be the affect on the visual field if there was a complete lesion of the optic chiasm?

A

Bipolar hemianopia. (Left eye - left sided blindness, right eye - right sided blindness).

210
Q

the external jugular vein is formed by the juntion of which 2 veins?

A

posterior facial vein and posterior auricular vein

211
Q

how much of the blood to the cerebrum comes from the vertebral arteries (as a %)

A

5%

212
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Hemi-section of the spinal cord.

213
Q

What is a LMN?

A

A neurone that carries signals to effectors. The cell body is located in the brain stem or spinal cord.

214
Q

Is the CNS or the PNS protected by the blood-brain barrier?

A

The CNS.

215
Q

Is the base or the apex of the basilar membrane wider?

A

The apex.

216
Q

Which hair cells have 95% afferent nerve fibres?

A

Inner hair cell’s (OHC’s - efferent).

217
Q

Where does the vestibulocochlear nerve terminate

A

In the petrous part of the temporal bone

218
Q

What embryonic part of the brain is the pons formed from?

A

Metencephalon of Rhombencephalon.

219
Q

What type of pain are A delta fibres responsible for?

A

The sensation of a quick, sharp, localised pain; ‘first pain’.

220
Q

What type of pain are C fibres responsible for?

A

C fibres respond to high intensity stimuli. They are responsible for a slow, deep, spread-out pain; ‘second pain’.

221
Q

Where do the mossy fibres come from?

A

They come from the pons via the middle cerebellar peduncle.

222
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Failure of the neural tube to close in the spinal cord region.

223
Q
  • What does Cn3 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervates: medial, superior and inferior rectus muscles and inferior oblique and levator palpebrae superioris.
  • Motor function: movement of eyeball.
  • Parasympathetic function: constriction and accommodation.
224
Q

Tight junctions prevent the passage of fluid into the ventricles. Why is this important?

A

It means that the volume and composition of CSF can be closely controlled.

225
Q

Briefly describe the pathway of venous drainage starting at the great cerebral vein.

A

Great cerebral vein -> straight sinus -> transverse sinus -> sigmoid sinus -> internal jugular vein -> jugular vein -> brachiocephalic vein -> SVC.

226
Q

What is the stretch reflex?

A

A very simple, monosynaptic reflex. If a muscle is stretched it responds by contracting.

227
Q

What embryonic part of the brain is the midbrain formed from?

A

Mesencephalon.

228
Q

How many rows are there of:

a) Inner hair cells?
b) Outer hair cells?

A

a) 1 row of IHC’s.

b) 3 rows of OHC’s.

229
Q

What are the vertebral arteries a branch of?

A

The subclavian arteries.

230
Q

Describe how the brain maintains its blood flow in response to hypovolemia.

A

Cerebral autoregulation. Hypovolemia leads to a decrease in BP and so the cerebral arterioles dilate more so as to maintain blood flow.

231
Q

how long does the relative refractory period last?

A

5-10ms

232
Q

Damage to the anterolateral system will present with what symptoms?

A

Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

233
Q

Which cavity of the cochlea houses the organ of corti?

A

The scala media.

234
Q

Where does the substantial nigra project to?

A

The striatum.

235
Q

What are muscles spindles composed of?

A

Intrafusal fibres. (They are embedded in muscle - extrafusal fibres).

236
Q

How can opioids be used as analgesia?

A

They bind to inhibitory G-protein coupled receptors in the brain/spinal cord.

237
Q

where does the straight sinus receive blood from?

A

inferior sagittal sinus and great cerebral vein

238
Q

What is ependyma?

A

A thin-epithelial like structure lining the ventricles.

239
Q

Which part of the brain has a role in addiction?

A

The insular cortex.

240
Q

What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?

A

It protects the brain by preventing the passage of some substances from the circulation into the nervous tissue.

241
Q

which ascending tract carries touch and proprioception signals?

A

dorsal column-medial lemniscal system

242
Q

which kind of muscle fibres are muscle spindles made of?

A

intrafusal muscle fibres

243
Q

where does the pyramidal tract originate?

A

ventrolateral (motor) thalamic nucleus

244
Q
  • What is the name of Cn10?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Vagus.
  • Jugular foramen.
  • Both: sensory and motor and parasympathetic.
245
Q

What information do muscle spindles provide?

A

How much each muscle is stretched.

246
Q

Do the fibres decussate in the spinocerebellar tracts?

A

No! They go to the ipsilateral cerebellum.

247
Q

What are the internal carotid arteries branches of?

A

The common carotids. Arise from bifurcation at the same level as the upper border of the thyroid cartilage.

248
Q

What would be the affect on the visual field if there was a complete lesion of the right optic tract?

A

Left homonymous hemianopia. (Left side blindness of both eyes).

249
Q

which system is characterised by fast conduction velocities?

A

dorsal column-medial lemniscal system

250
Q

where is broca’s area

A

left frontal lobe (left inferior frontal gyrus)

251
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex?

A
  • Molecular (outermost).
  • Purkinje.
  • Granular.
252
Q

define motor unit

A

motor neurone and all the muscle motor units it innervates

253
Q
  • What are the functions of Cn10?
A
  • Sensory functions: general sensation.
  • Motor functions: speech and swallowing.
  • Parasympathetic functions: control over CV, respiratory and GI systems.
254
Q

What are the 2 components of a refractory period?

A

The absolute refractory period which is followed by the relative refractory period.

255
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries enter the skull?

A

Through the foramen magnum.

256
Q

Give 2 examples of fast neurotransmitters. Do fast neurotransmitters have short or long lasting effects?

A
  • Ach, GABA.

- Short lasting effects.

257
Q

what does the posterior communicating artery connect?

A

internal carotid and posterior cerebral arteries

258
Q

What does the ethmoidal artery supply?

A

Anterior part of the nasal cavity and the nose

259
Q
  • What does Cn12 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervation: intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue.
  • Function: movement of the tongue.
260
Q
  • What is the name of Cn4?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Trochlear.
  • Superior orbital fissure.
  • Motor.
261
Q

Where do the rubrospinal tracts originate and what are they responsible for?

A
  1. Originate from red nucleus.
  2. Responsible for assisting motor functions.
    - Contralateral.
262
Q

What does the great cerebral vein drain?

A

Deep brain structures.

263
Q

What can cause UMN weakness?

A

MS, brain tumour, stroke.

264
Q
  • What is the name of Cn5?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Trigeminal.
  • V(1)-superior orbital fissure. V(2)-foramen rotundum. V(3)-foramen ovale.
  • Both: sensory and motor.
265
Q

which kind of muscle fibres are skeletal muscles made of?

A

extrafusal muscle fibres

266
Q

Describe the corticospinal tracts.

A

Originate in the primary motor cortex, descends through corona radiata and internal capsule to the medullary pyramids. 90% decussates here and becomes the lateral corticospinal tract; the remaining 10% forms the anterior corticospinal tract. The anterior tract then decussates through the anterior white commissure. Both tracts terminate in the ventral horn.

267
Q

What are the lobes of the cerebellum hemispheres called?

A

The anterior and posterior lobes.

268
Q

What neurotransmitter do parasympathetic nerves use at organs?

A

Ach.

269
Q

Where does the facial nerve exit the skull? (Not enter)

A

Stylomastoid foramen

270
Q

What happens to the stereocilia when the basilar membrane vibrates?

A

They bend. This opens the hair cells’ ion channels and there is an increase in auditory nerve firing.

271
Q

What is the dermatome for the knee?

A

L3.

272
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

a) in an adult.
b) at birth.
c) in the embryo.

A

a) L2.
b) L3.
c) runs the entire length of the vertebral column.

273
Q
  • What are the functions of Cn7?
A
  • Sensory function: taste.
  • Motor function: facial movement and tension of ossicles.
  • Parasympathetic function: salivation and lacrimation.
274
Q

a stroke affecting the blood supply to the occipital lobe would result in what?

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopia

275
Q

What are the 2 inputs into the cerebellum?

A
  • Climbing fibres.

- Mossy fibres.

276
Q

What are the two types of stroke?

A
  1. Ischaemic.

2. Haemorrhagic (intracerebral or subarachnoid).

277
Q
  • What is the name of Cn12?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Hypoglossal.
  • Hypoglossal canal.
  • Motor.
278
Q

What neurotransmitter do sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves both use at ganglia?

A

Ach.

279
Q

What is the visual pigment in the eye?

A

Rhodopsin.

280
Q

which side of the spine do lower motor neurones leave?

A

anteriorly/ ventrally

281
Q

efferennt

A

signals carried away from the brain and spinal cord

282
Q

Why would ptosis (drooping of the eyelid) occur?

A

If there was a loss of innervation to levator palpebrae superioris.

283
Q

main centre involved in parkinson’s?

A

basal ganglia

284
Q

afferent

A

signals carried to the brain and spinal cord

285
Q
  • What does Cn9 innervate?
A
  • Sensory innervation: posterior 1/3 of tongue, middle ear, pharynx, carotid bodies.
  • Motor innervation: stylopharyngeus.
  • Parasympathetic innervation: parotid gland.
286
Q

Name 4 substances contained within the CSF.

A
  1. Protein.
  2. Urea.
  3. Glucose.
  4. Salts.
287
Q

What would be the affect on the visual field if there was a lesion of the parietal loop of the left optic radiation?

A

Right homonymous inferior quandrantanopia. (Right lower quadrant of both eyes affected).

288
Q

where are most neurotransmitters synthesised?

A

neurone cell bodies

289
Q

Which meningeal layers are highly vascularised?

A

The dura and pia mater. The arachnoid mater is avascular.

290
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

An accumulation of CSF in the ventricular system. Often due to a blockage in the cerebral aqueduct.

291
Q

A woman presents to the stroke unit being unable to move/feel her left leg/foot. Which artery has been affected?

A

Right anterior cerebral artery.

292
Q

What is the function of the round window?

A

It vibrates with opposite phase to vibrations entering the inner ear through the oval window. This moves the fluid in the cochlea which means that hair cells of the basilar membrane will be stimulated and that audition will occur.

293
Q

What are the 2 main arteries that supply blood to the brain?

A
  1. Vertebral arteries.

2. Internal carotid arteries.

294
Q

What are the 5 fundamental processes of neurotransmission?

A
  1. Manufacture.
  2. Storage.
  3. Release.
  4. Interaction with post-synaptic receptor.
  5. Inactivation.
295
Q

Describe the DCML pathway.

A

Fine sensation is detected by touch or proprioception receptors. Afferent signals are carried along 1st order neurones to the dorsal columns and up to the medulla where they synapse. 2nd order neurones decussate in the medulla and travel up to the thalamus where they synapse. 3rd order neurones then travel through the internal capsule to the somatosensory cortex.

296
Q

Briefly describe how dopamine is produced.

A

Tyrosine -> L-dopa -> dopamine.

297
Q

What is the action(s) of inferior oblique on the eyeball?

A
  • Extorsion.
  • Elevation.
  • Abduction.
298
Q

What are the signs of huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Chorea (jerky, involuntary movements).
  2. Dementia.
  3. Personality change.
299
Q

where are the cell bodies of lower motor neurones located?

A

ventral horn of the spinal cord

300
Q

What is the role of the cingulate gyrus in pain recognition?

A

It provides an emotional response to pain.

301
Q

Where are the lateral ventricles formed in the embryo?

A

Telencephalon.

302
Q

Where do the climbing fibres come from?

A

The come from the olivocerebellar nuclei via the inferior cerebellar peduncle.

303
Q

What is the function of dystrophin?

A

It provides structural stability to muscle cell membranes.

304
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the oropharynx?

A

Glossopharyngeal - Cn 9.

305
Q

What would be the affect of damage to the cerebellar hemispheres?

A

Ipsilateral impaired limb coordination.

306
Q

which arteries supply the cerebellum and what are they branches of?

A

superior cerebellar artery (SCA)- branch of basilar
anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA)- branch of basilar
posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)- branch of vertebral

307
Q

What does myasthenia gravis affect: LMN, UMN, neuromuscular junctions?

A

Neuromuscular junctions.

308
Q

A patient can understand what you’re saying but is unable to construct sentences in response. What part of the brain is affected?

A

Broca’s area in the dominant frontal lobe.

309
Q

Where would you insert an epidural needle?

A

Between the dura mater and vertebrae in order to inject anaesthesia.

310
Q

what causes the voltage gated Na+ channels to close?

A

they close after a particular time

311
Q

what is the rough threshold potential of a neuronal cell membrane?

A

-60mV

312
Q

Where is the somatosensory cortex located?

A

Post-central gyrus in parietal lobe.

313
Q

Define nociceptive pain.

A

Pain derived from actual damage to non-neural tissue, it is due to the activation of nociceptors.

314
Q

How do men and women differ in their response to pain?

A

Women report pain more readily but can tolerate more pain than men.

315
Q

What occular muscles does the inferior branch of Cn 3 innervate?

A
  • Medial rectus.
  • Inferior rectus.
  • Inferior oblique.
316
Q

which sensory fibres run from the golgi tendon organ to the spinal cord?

A

1b sensory fibres

317
Q

What is the entry/exit foramina for the superior ophthalmic vein?

A

Superior orbital fissure.

318
Q

What sinus does the great cerebral vein drain into?

A

The straight sinus.

319
Q

some cutaneous (skin) receptors are phasic and others are tonic. what do phasic and tonic mean?

A
phasic = able to adapt quickly
tonic = adapts slowly
320
Q

where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

at the level of the medullary pyramids

321
Q
  • What does Cn5 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Sensory innervation: face, scalp, cornea, nasal and oral cavities, anterior 2/3 of tongue, dura mater.
  • Motor innervation: muscles of mastication and tensor tympani.
  • Sensory function: general sensation.
  • Motor functions: open and close the mouth. Tenses tympanic membrane.
322
Q

what is the “less skilled” version of the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

rubrospinal tract

323
Q

what effect does afferent impulses from the golgi tendon organ have?

A

inhibition of the associated alpha motor neurones to regulate muscle tension at a normal range and protect the muscle from overload

324
Q

How do dural venous sinuses and veins outside the skull communicate?

A

Via emissary veins.

325
Q

What are the terminal branches of the internal carotid arteries?

A

The middle and anterior cerebral arteries.

326
Q

What are spinal reflexes?

A
  • Involuntary, physiological responses to stimuli e.g. withdrawing your hand when you touch something hot.
  • Unlearned and instinctive: unconditioned responses.
327
Q

What do the vertebral arteries supply?

A

The posterior cerebrum and the

contents of the posterior cranial fossa.

328
Q

What is the function of hair cells?

A

Through transduction they convert mechanical stimuli into electrochemical activity and they also have a role in amplification.

329
Q

where in the primary motor cortex are lower limbs and muscles of the face represented?

A

lower limbs - medially

muscles of the face - laterally

330
Q

what connects the internal carotid arteries to the posterior cerebral arteries?

A

posterior communicating artery

331
Q

What is the somatic nervous system?

A

A part of the peripheral nervous system that handles voluntary control of body movements.

332
Q

change in membrane potential due to an action potential?

A

-70mV to +30mV

333
Q

What supplies the upper spinal cord?

A

Anterior and posterior spinal arteries (branches of vertebral arteries)

334
Q

Define neuropathic pain.

A

Pain caused by a primary lesion or dysfunction of the nervous system.

335
Q

What are the 3 primary vesicles?

A
  • Prosencephalon (forebrain).
  • Mesencephalon (midbrain).
  • Rhombencephalon (hindbrain).
336
Q

What is the affect on movement in cerebellar injury?

A

Movements are slow and uncoordinated.

337
Q

What can be found in Meckel’s cave?

A

The ganglia of the three branches of the trigeminal nerve

338
Q

What is the clinical significance of emissary veins?

A

They represent a possible route for infection to spread into the cranial cavity.

339
Q

Which part of the brain is activated in acupuncture?

A

Cingulate gyrus.

340
Q

What is the loop of optic radiation responsible for the upper visual field called?

A

Meyer’s loop. It travels through the temporal lobes.

341
Q

Are C fibres myelinated or unmyelinated?

A

Unmyelinated.

342
Q

during repolarisation do voltage-gated K+ channels open or close?

A

K+ channels open

343
Q

a stroke in which lobe would cause memory loss?

A

temporal lobe

344
Q

what supplies the primary motor cortex?

A

middle cerebral artery supplies most of the primary motor cortex BUT the medial aspect (leg areas) are supplied by the anterior cerebral artery

345
Q

What structure connects the two cerebellar hemispheres?

A

The vermis.

346
Q

What sensation does the spinoreticular tract convey?

A

Deep/chronic pain.

347
Q

What neurotransmitter do sympathetic nerves use at organs?

A

Noradrenaline.

348
Q

Where would you insert a lumbar puncture needle?

A

At the L3/L4 level in the sub-arachnoid space in order to take CSF.

349
Q

what do intrafusal muscle fibres do?

A

body position, proprioception (perceiving location of body parts)

350
Q

Where are Cn 2 nuclei located?

A

Lateral geniculate body.

351
Q

What vitamins are needed to ensure the neural tube fuses.

A

B9 (folic acid) and B12.

352
Q

what supplies the basal ganglia?

A

lenticulo-striate arteries (branches of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries/ ACA & MCA)

353
Q

What are the functions of cones in the eye?

A

Cones are important for visual acuity and colour vision.

354
Q

Where do the extrapyramidal tracts originate?

A

The brainstem.

355
Q

What does the nasociliary nerve supply?

A

Parasympathetic fibres to the ciliary body

356
Q

How long does the refractory period last?

A

5-10ms.

357
Q

what is the resting potential of a neuronal cell membrane?

A

-70mV

358
Q

A woman presents to the stroke unit with complete right sided visual field loss. Which artery has been affected?

A

Left posterior cerebral artery.

359
Q

what does the anterior communicating artery connect?

A

the left and right cerebral arteries

360
Q

Give 4 treatments for pain.

A
  1. Analgesics.
  2. Acupuncture.
  3. Exercise.
  4. Hypnotherapy.
361
Q

what innervates intrafusal muscle fibres?

A

gamma motor neurones

362
Q

where does the majority of the blood supply to the cerebrum come from?

A

internal carotid artery (80%)

363
Q

What is the neuronal resting potential?

A

-70mV.

364
Q

What do the inferior cerebellar peduncles do?

A

They connect the medulla and the cerebellum and convey muscle proprioception and vestibular inputs.

365
Q

Where do the tectospinal tracts originate and what are they responsible for?

A
  1. Originate from tectum nuclei (superior and inferior colliculi).
  2. Responsible for head turning in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
366
Q

What is the direct pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

The direct pathway is for when we want to make movement. The motor cortex excites the striatum which inhibits the globus pallidus internal meaning the thalamus is no longer inhibited and can send excitatory signals to the motor cortex = MOVEMENT!

367
Q

when in the resting state, the plasma membrane of neuornes contains more of which OPEN channel: K+ or Na+?

A

more open K+ channels in resting state

368
Q

What does the middle meningeal artery supply?

A

Skull and dura mater

369
Q

What would be the signs of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  • Ipsilateral weakness and loss of motor function below the lesion.
  • Ipsilateral loss of proprioception, 2-point discrimination and fine touch.
  • Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation 2-3 spinal segments below the lesion.
370
Q

What is the only cranial nerve to emerge from the dorsal aspect of the brainstem?

A

Trochlear Cn 4.

371
Q

What structures make up the basal ganglia?

A
  • The striatum: putamen and caudate nucleus.
  • Globus pallidus: internal and external segments.
  • Subthalamic nucleus.
  • Substantia nigra.
372
Q

What are some symptoms of cerebellar injury?

A
  • Loss of coordination.
  • Inability to judge distances.
  • Intention tremor.
  • Staggering, wide based walking.
  • Weak muscles.
373
Q

What can cause LMN weakness?

A

Slipped disc, neuropathies.

374
Q

compare the speed of the afferent fibres in muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs

A

muscle spindles posses faster afferent fibres than golgi tendon organs

375
Q

What is the output from the cerebellum?

A

Purkinje cell axons.

376
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

A chemical synapse formed by the contact between a motor neurone and a muscle fibre.

377
Q

Give 4 features of pain.

A
  1. Pain is always subjective.
  2. It is a sensation.
  3. It is always unpleasant.
  4. It is an emotional experience.
378
Q

What is the scala media filled with?

A

Endolymph.

379
Q

What is the function of the outer ear?

A

It gathers sound energy and focuses it on the tympanic membrane; this vibrates the tympanic membrane. The outer ear also amplifies sound.

380
Q

What vessels lie in the cavernous sinus?

A
  • Cn 3, 4, 5(1), 5(2) and 6.

- Internal carotid artery.

381
Q

where are the cell bodies of skin receptor neurones?

A

dorsal root ganglion

382
Q

Where do the reticulospinal tracts originate and what are they responsible for?

A
  1. Originate from reticular formation.

2. Responsible for spinal reflexes.

383
Q

What are the 3 meningeal layers?

A
  1. Dura mater (outermost).
  2. Arachnoid mater.
  3. Pia mater (inner most).
384
Q

which kind of summation do tactile recepetors show?

A

temporal and spatial

385
Q
  • What is the name of Cn7?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Facial.
  • Internal acoustic meatus.
  • Both: sensory and motor and parasympathetic.
386
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum connect?

A

Connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.

387
Q

A 42-year-old female has presented with weakness in her left leg. She has been seen previously in your clinic two years ago for visual disturbance and sensory loss over the left forearm. These symptoms persisted for several weeks but then gradually resolved. Her symptoms are exacerbated following a shower. What is the problem?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (characterised by the fact it comes and goes. Exacerbated after a shower is also a key feature of this disease).

388
Q

Name 5 descending pathways.

A
  1. Corticospinal.
  2. Vestibulospinal.
  3. Rubrospinal.
  4. Tectospinal.
  5. Reticulospinal.
389
Q

Where is the superior orbital fissure

A

Between the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid bone

390
Q

What is the stria vascularis?

A

A structure involved in the active transport of K+ into the scala media.

391
Q

What is the reason behind the signs of HD?

A

Too much dopamine.

392
Q

Define motor unit.

A

A single alpha motor neurone and all the muscle fibres it innervates.

393
Q

What is an UMN?

A

A neurone that is located entirely in the CNS. Its cell body is located in the primary motor cortex.

394
Q

Why is the cavernous sinus of clinical importance?

A

If this sinus is infected Cn 3, 4, 5(1), 5(2) and 6 and the internal carotid artery could be affected.

395
Q

How does the cerebellum control coordination, precision and timing of movements?

A

It compares the brain’s intentions with actual actions and makes any necessary modifications.

396
Q

What structures are present on the IHC’s and OHC’s?

A

Stereocilia.

397
Q

which motor neurones innervate muscles directly?

A

lower motor neurones

398
Q

what does the lateral corticospinal tract do?

A

controls muscles involved in fine limb movement

399
Q

where is wernicke’s area?

A

left temporal lobe (left posterior superior temporal gyrus)

400
Q

what detects changes in muscle tension?

A

golgi tendon organ

401
Q
  • What is the name of Cn8?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Vestibulocochlear.
  • Internal acoustic meatus.
  • Sensory.
402
Q

Which dorsal column would an afferent signal from the lower limb use?

A

The gracile fasciculus (medial part of dorsal column). They then synapse at the gracile nucleus of the medulla.

403
Q

What are the sub-divisions of the rhombencephalon?

A
  • Metencephalon.

- Myelencephalon.

404
Q

What are the 2 components of an intervertebral disc?

A
  1. Nucleus pulposus.

2. Annulus fibrosus: concentric layers of collagen surrounding the nucleus pulposus.

405
Q

where do upper motor neurones originate?

A

motor region of the cerebral cortex or brainstem

406
Q

What is the Melzack Wall pain gate?

A

The idea that non-painful input can close the ‘gate’ to painful input and so prevent it from reaching the CNS. Non-noxious stimuli can prevent pain as the large fibres can override the small pain fibres. It is a physiological explanation for why ‘rubbing it better’ can help.

407
Q
  • What does Cn10 innervate?
A
  • Sensory innervation: pharynx, larynx, oesophagus, external ear, aortic bodies, thoracic and abdominal viscera.
  • Motor innervation: soft palate, larynx, pharynx.
  • Parasympathetic innervation: CV, respiratory and GI systems.
408
Q

What are the characteristic features of a cervical vertebra?

A
  • Small vertebral body.
  • Transverse foramen for vertebral arteries.
  • Bifurcation of spinous processes (except C7).
  • Triangular intervertebral foramen.
409
Q

When should the neural tube fuse?

A

By the end of the 4th week.

410
Q

Does function of a muscle affect how many muscle fibres there are?

A

Yes! The finger tips have few muscle fibres because they require greater movement resolution.

411
Q

What does the posterior cerebral artery supply?

A

The occipital lobe.

412
Q

What is the entry/exit foramina for the ophthalmic artery?

A

Optic canal.

413
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellar tracts?

A

They carry unconscious proprioceptive information to the ipsilateral cerebellum.

414
Q

is the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system ascending or descending?

A

ascending

415
Q

What spinal nerves innervate the ankle reflex?

A

S1/2.

416
Q

Stimulation of which part of the brain can result in profound analgesia?

A

PAG.

417
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

It is connected and configured to serve as a specialised action selection mechanism. It determines WHAT you do via a system of inhibition and disinhibition.

418
Q
  • What does Cn7 innervate?
A
  • Special sensory innervation: anterior 2/3 of tongue - taste.
  • Motor innervation: muscles of facial expression and stapedius.
  • Parasympathetic innervation: submandibular and sublingual and lacrimal glands.
419
Q

where are most of the axons of upper motor neurones?

A

lateral white matter of the spinal cord

420
Q

What vein do the dural venous sinuses drain into?

A

The internal jugular veins.

421
Q

Where do the internal carotid arteries enter the skull?

A

Through the carotid foramina.

422
Q

where is the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system?

A

in the dorsal (posterior) white matter of the spinal cord

423
Q

True or False; antibiotics can damage stereocilia.

A

True!

424
Q

what is the function of broca’s area?

A

production of speech

425
Q

What are the two fissures of the cerebellum called?

A
  • The primary fissure.

- The horizontal fissure.

426
Q
  • What is the name of Cn3?
  • Where does it exit the skull?
  • Sensory, motor or both?
A
  • Occulomotor.
  • Superior orbital fissure.
  • Motor and parasympathetic.
427
Q

What region of the vertebral column has the greatest capacity for rotation?

A

The thoracic region.

428
Q

What does the organ of corti sit on?

A

The basilar membrane.

429
Q

Which dorsal column would an afferent signal from the upper limb use?

A

The cuneate fasciculus (lateral part of dorsal column). They then synapse at the cuneate nucleus of the medulla.

430
Q

Give 3 types of glial cells in the CNS.

A
  1. Astrocytes.
  2. Oligodendrocytes.
  3. Microglia.
431
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngopharynx?

A

Vagus - Cn 10.

432
Q

Give 3 examples of neuromodulators. Do neuromodulators have short or long lasting effects?

A
  • Dopamine, serotonin, noradrenaline.

- Long lasting effects.

433
Q

An elderly patient presents with a stiff flexed arm, and a stiff extended leg (both on the left) which the patient finds difficult to bend. What is affected?

A

Upper motor neurone – this patient has had a stroke and so the UMN’s are affected.

434
Q

Define synaptic transmission.

A

Integration/processing of information.

435
Q

What would be the affect on the visual field if there was a lesion of the meyer’s (temporal) loop of the left optic radiation?

A

Right homonymous superior quadrantanopia. (Right upper quadrant of both eyes affected).

436
Q
  • What does Cn8 innervate?

- What are it’s functions?

A
  • Innervation: cochlea and vestibular apparatus.

- Functions: hearing and proprioception of head and balance.

437
Q

What are the signs of LMN weakness?

A
  • Decreased muscle tone.
  • Hypo-reflexia.
  • Flaccid.
  • Muscle atrophy.
  • Fasciculations.
438
Q

How do stapedius and tensor tympani change the stiffness of the ossicular chain?

A

They control the mobility of malleus and stapes and so protect the inner ear from loud noises.

439
Q

What artery passes through foramen spinosum?

A

The middle meningeal artery.

440
Q

What do the otolithic organs detect?

A
  • Linear acceleration.

- Changes in head position relative to gravity.

441
Q

what is the equivalent of a synaptic cleft at an electrical synapse?

A

gap junction

442
Q

A man has presented with a history of weakness in both of his hands, he is now unable to open jars. Both of his hands show wasting in the Thenar eminence. He has developed slurred speech and difficultly swallowing over the past 3 weeks. His tongue appears spastic and he is unable to protrude it. What is the disease?

A

Motor neurone disease - both UMN and LMN are affected.

443
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

A fibrous strand that proceeds downwards from the apex of the conus medullaris.

444
Q

How is the neural tube formed?

A

Notochord in mesoderm signals the ectoderm to form a thickened neural plate. Mitosis forms a neural groove. There are neural folds either side of the groove. These fuse at the midline forming the neural tube.

445
Q

What is the relative refractory period?

A

It follows the absolute refractory period and is a time during which a 2nd stimulus that is stronger than the first is needed to produce another AP.

446
Q

where does the rubrospinal tract originate?

A

the red nucleus

447
Q

Where is the 4th ventricle formed in the embryo?

A

Rhombencephalon.

448
Q

synaptic clefts are only found in which kind of synapses?

A

chemical synapses

449
Q

Describe the spinothalamic pathway.

A

Nociceptors or thermoreceptors detect pain, temperature or crude touch. 1st order neurones carrying these signals enter the spinal cord and ascend 2-3 spinal levels before synapsing in the dorsal horn of grey matter. 2nd order neurones decussate either through the anterior or lateral tracts and then travel up to the thalamus where they synapse. 3rd order neurones travel through the internal capsule to the primary somatosensory cortex.

450
Q

What structures makes up the lentiform nucleus?

A
  1. Putamen.

2. Globus pallidus.

451
Q

What is the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

The indirect pathway is for when we want to inhibit movement. The motor cortex excites the striatum which inhibits the globus pallidus external meaning the subthalamic nucleus is no longer inhibited. The globus pallidus internal is therefore excited and the thalamus inhibited = reduced movement!

452
Q

What descending pathways are described as pyramidal?

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts - responsible for voluntary control.

453
Q

Where is the largest aggregation of choroid plexus?

A

In the lateral ventricles.