Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Holoprosencephaly develops from a defect in the ____encephalon via ____ gene patterning.

A

Prosencephalon

SHH signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can maternal Type I diabetes affect the baby’s brain?

A

Can cause anencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an Arnold-Chiari malformation?

A

Cerebellar herniation through the foramen magnum

I = just the tonsils
II = tonsils + vermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a Dandy Walker malformation?

A

Agenesis of cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) treated?

A
  1. Discontinue causative agent (anti-psychotic)

2. Dantrolene (a direct-acting skeletal muscle relaxant that works by inhibiting Ca release in the SR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alanine and glutamine are important for transporting _________ throughout the body. Specifically alanine is used in the glucose-alanine cycle to remove excess amounts of this substance in the liver.

Alanine then goes on the be used as a carbon skeleton for gluconeogenesis.

A

Nitrogen

Alanine -> transaminated to form pyruvate -> alpha-KG then takes amino group in TCA cycle -> glutamate formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acute dystonic reactions (spasmofic torticollis) is an extrapyramidal symptom due to recent initiation of what medication?

A

Antipsychotics

Work via D2 dopaminergic inhibitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The most common cause of retinitis in HIV-positive patients is ____ infection. How is it treated?

A

CMV

Treat with ganciclovir

Occurs when the CD4 count is <50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flow of CSF:

A

Generated by the pia matter capillaries/ependymal cells ->
Lateral ventricles -> interventricular foramina of Monro ->
Third ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct ->
Fourth ventricle -> 2 lateral foramina of Luschka OR midline foramen of Magendie -> end in subarachnoid space where CSF enters the venous circulation via the arachnoid villi/granulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Trochlear nerve damage causes what functional difficulties?

A

Difficulty going down stairs and reading

due to vertical diplopia most obvious when the affected eye looks down and toward the nose
Impairment of downgaze when the eye is adducted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What direction does the eye move with a CN III oculomotor nerve damage/palsy?

A

Down and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the clinical findings of Von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A

Capillary hemangioblastomas in the retina and/or cerebellum
Congenital cysts and/or neoplasms in the kidney, liver, or pancreas.
At increased risk for (bilateral) renal cell carcinoma

Inheritance = autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Damage to the brainstem _______ the level of red nucleus (midbrain tegmentum, pons) causes DECEREBRATE (EXTENSOR) posturing.

A

At or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most of the nervous system is derived from neuroectoderm, which important thing in the brain is derived from mesoderm?

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immune destruction of schwann cells in Guillain Bare is caused by molecular ______.

A

Mimicry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acoustic neuroma aka _______ Schwannoma

A

Vestibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Merkel disc vs. Ruffini endings?

A 
Merkel = static touch and position
Ruffini = sustained pressure and stretch (slow adapting)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which nerve coating is the hardest to penetrate?

A

Perineurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter associated with REM sleep?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the root/origin of the phrenic nerve?

A

C3-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What brain structure is particularly sensitive to hypoxia?

A

Hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment for subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In addition to worst headache of my life, what other symptoms might you see in a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Photophobia and nuchal rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hoarseness is a pretty specific clue that you are dealing with ?

A

Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome - lesion in PICA

Other sx:

Contralateral nystagmus
No gag reflex
Ipsilateral Horner
Ipsilateral loss of pain and temp on face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ipsilateral paralysis of tongue
Contralateral hemiparesis
and contralateral loss of proprioception/sensation

A

Medial medullary syndrome - lesion in anterior spinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
Ipsilateral facial paralysis
Reduced lacrimation and salivation
Absent corneal reflex
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature in body IPSILATERAL loss of pain and temperature in face
Ipsilateral ataxia
A

AICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Loss of vision

Hemianopsia with macular sparing

A

PCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Locked in syndrome vessel?

A

Basilar artery

Only blinking is spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Impaired verbal repetition = damage to?

A

Arcuate fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What -seemingly unrelated- diseases predisposes to berry aneurysms?

A

APCKD - adult polycystic kidney disease
Ehlers Danlos
Marfan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What drugs are used to PROPHYLACTICALLY treat migraines?

A

Propranolol
Tricyclic antidepressants
Calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which headache can be associated with Horner syndrome?

A

Cluster headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Parkinson’s = ______ tremor

A

Resting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MS = ________ tremor

A

Intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are Lewy bodies composed?

A

Alpha-synuclein inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Huntington’s = defect in the _____ (part of the _____)

A

Caudate nucleus

Part of the striatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Huntington = Chromosome ___

A

4

38
Q

Friedrich’s Ataxia = Chromosome ___

A

9

39
Q

What is the route of transmission of polio?

A

Fecal-oral

40
Q

What is the difference between use of atropine and pralidoxime for the treatment of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine acts centrally and reverses cholinergic effects on MUSCARINIC receptors only (i.e. DUMBELS mnemonic)

Atropine therefore does not treat muscle paralysis…Pralidoxime reactivates cholinesterase and thus degrades excess ACh affecting both musarinic AND nicotinic effects.

41
Q

Uncal herniation most often affects the ____lateral CN ____.

A

Ipsilateral

CN III -> oculomotor nerve palsy and fixed DILATED pupil

42
Q

Baclofen, a GABA-B agonist is an effective monotherapy used to treat ______ which is seen in _____ and ____.

A

Spasticity seen both brain and spinal cord disease (e.g. MS)

43
Q

In Wilson disease, ceruloplasmin levels will be ___.

A

LOW!

Urinary copper excretion will be high and copper content in liver will be high

44
Q

How do you detect Wilson Disease other than frank copper levels?

A

Slit-lamp testing to view Kayser-Fleischer rings

45
Q

Serotonin = _____ nucleus

A

Raphe

46
Q

Corneal reflex = ____ branch of CN ____. and motor = ________

A

Sensory: Nasociliary branch of V1
Motor: Temporal branch of VII

Both enter through the superior orbital fissure

47
Q

What drug is given to treat Wilson Disease?

A

D-Penicillamine

48
Q

What drug is given to treat Hereditary Hemochromatosis?

A

Deferoxamine

49
Q

Explain Conversion disorder vs Somatic symptom disorder

A

Conversion disorder is a type of somatic symptom disorder neurologic symptom incompatible with any known neurologic disease; often acute onset/associated with stress.

Pure somatic symptom disorder is characterized more by excessive and persistent health anxiety and preoccupation with multiple somatic symptoms but they do not have the loss of function incompatible with recognized neurological illness.

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of phenytoin?

A

Inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing in the cortex by reducing the ability of sodium channels to recover from inactivation.

51
Q

Pie in the sky = _______ region tumor.

A

Temporal

52
Q

What effect do fluorinated anesthetics have on the brain?

A

CNS depression

Increased cerebral blood flow/ICP due to decreased vascular resistance in the brain

53
Q

Narcolepsy is associated with low levels of what neuropeptides int eh CSF?

A

Hypocretin-1 (orexin A) and Hypocretin-2 (orexin B)

54
Q

The decrease in acetylcholine levels in Alzheimers is caused by a deficiency of what?

A

Choline acetyltransferase most notably in the basal nucleus of Meynert (which participates in memory and cognition)

55
Q

Months to years after brain infarction, the necrotic area appears as a cystic cavity surrounded by:

A

A wall composed of dense fibers formed by astrocytic processes (glial scar)

56
Q

Ewing sarcoma is associated with what translocation?

A

t(11;22)

57
Q

Tetanus toxin blocks release of inhibitory neurons _____ and _____ to cause muscle spasm and tetany.

A

Glycine and GABA

58
Q

Locus ceruleus = _____ synthesis

A

Norepinephrine

59
Q

The etiology of lacunar infarcts is most often: ____ and ____ rather than embolism from carotid atherosclerosis or valvular disease because those are typically larger and often thus cortical infarcts.

A

Lipohyalinosis and microatheroma formation

60
Q

Vertical axis nystagmus = _______ vertigo

A

Central

You can also have horizontal nystagmus
Peripheral vertigo is only horizontal

61
Q

Despite what the name implies, cholestatomas are composed of ______.

A

Keratin/squamous cell debris

62
Q

Uncal herniation aka _________ herniation

A

Transtentorial

63
Q

In addition to motor output to the face, what other nerve functions run with CN VII?

A
  1. Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual salivary glands
  2. Special afferent taste to anterior 2/3 tongue
  3. Somatic afferents from the pinna and external auditory canal
64
Q

High plantar arch AND foot drop and problems with foot drop = what disease?

A

Charcot Marie Tooth

May also see kyphoscoliosis

65
Q

High plantar arch AND hypertrophic cardiomyopathy = what disease?

A

Friedrich’s Ataxia

66
Q

Flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages are caused by what common condition? What are other ophtho findings in this condition?

A

HTN

AV nicking
Arterial wall thickening
Cotton wool spots

67
Q

Wrist and finger extension = _____ nerve

A

Radial

68
Q

Lacunar stroke/hemiballism/subthalamic nucleus damage

A

.

69
Q

What is (and what is another name for it) pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

Elevated intracranial hypertension in the absence of ventricular enlargement on imaging. Typically presents in young, obese women with headache, papilledema and possible vision loss due to optic neuropathy.

70
Q

Sharp stabbing pains in extremities + sensory loss = ?

A

Tertiary syphilis/tabes dorsalis

Stabbing pains known as “lancinating pains”
May also see Argyll-Roberts pupils

71
Q

Chronic glaucoma = slow onset loss of ______ vision.

A

Peripheral

72
Q

Epinephrine is _____ in acute glaucoma, but the _____ treatment in chronic glaucoma.

A

Contraindicated in acute glaucoma

Common treatment for chronic glaucoma

73
Q

Acute onset encephalitis with temporal lobe edema = what infection?

A

HSV 1

Can be dx with a “viral pattern” on CSF tap:

Lymphocytes
Increased protein
erythrocytes

74
Q

What is the major cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhages in adults >60?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (beta amyloid deposition similar to the amyloid seen in Alzheimers)

often are recurrent and affect the occipital and parietal lobes

75
Q

In anesthetic drugs, how can you remember if a drug is an ester or an amide?

A

Amides have 2 i’s in the name

76
Q

tx for essential tremor:

A

beta blocker (propranolol)

77
Q

Donepezil is a palliative tx for what?

A

Alzheimer’s

78
Q

What nerve root is the patellar reflex?

A

L4

79
Q

What nerve root is the achilles reflex?

A

S1

80
Q

Vertigo AND hearing loss/tinnitus = _______ caused by _______

A

Meniere’s Disease

Increased volume of endolymph

81
Q

Internal capsule injury = pure _____ weakness

A

motor

82
Q

Homonymous hemianopia with macula sparing = ____ infarct.

A

PCA

The striate cortex receives information from the ipsilateral LGN (with contralateral visual field information)

83
Q

Muscle wasting
Frontal balding
Cataracts
Presents between ages 20-40

=??

A

Myotonic dystrophy

AD, trinucleotide repeat

84
Q

What is the pathogenesis of HIV-associated dementia?

A

Inflammatory activation of microglial cells

85
Q

Parinaud syndrome = damage to the dorsal midbrain causing what classic finding?

A

Limitation of upward gaze

Often caused by a pineal mass causing compression and thus may present with papilledema, headache, and vomiting cause by hydrocephalus.

86
Q

What is the #1 side effect of SSRIs (and also the #1 cause for non-adherence)?

A

Sexual dysfunction

87
Q

Which anesthetic class is associated with hepatocellular damage and liver toxicity?

A

Halogenated inhaled anesthetics

e.g. halothane, enflurane, isoflurane, sevoflurane

88
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of second generation antipsychotics (e.g. olanzapine and clozapine, etc)

A

Metabolic adverse effects.

Patients should be monitored for weight gain, waist circumference, bp, fasting glucose, and lipid profile.

89
Q

Why are thiazide diuretics contraindicated in patients receiving lithium?

A

Thiazide diuretics will cause minor salt wasting/hyponatremia (that’s their job) and to compensate the kidneys will try to take it back/absorb more cations (and thus more lithium -> lithium toxicity)

90
Q

How do you treat drug-induced Parkinsonism?

A

Benztropine, a centrally acting antimuscarinic

91
Q

Left-sided frontal lobe lesions cause ______.

Right-sided frontal lobe lesions cause ______.

A 
Left = apathy and depression
Right = disinhibited behavior

Boards (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions