Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Anatomy and Histology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Histology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of tissues are made of Type I collagen?

A

Dermis, bone, tendons, ligaments, dentin, cornea, blood vessels, and scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of tissues are made of Type II collagen?

A

Cartilage, vitreous humor, nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of tissues are made of Type III collagen?

A

Skin, lungs, intestines, blood vessels, bone marrow, lymphatics, and granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of tissues are made of Type IV collagen?

A

Basement membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What hypothalamic nucleus controls circadian rhythm and regulation/pineal gland function?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What hypothalamic nucleus controls secretion of ADH (in part), CRH, TRH, and oxytocin (in part)?

A

Paraventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the opposing roles of the ventromedial and lateral hypothalamic nuclei?

A 
Ventromedial = Satiety
Lateral = Hunger

(think early vs late alphabet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the opposing roles of the anterior and posterior hypothalamic nuclei?

A 
Anterior = heat dissipation
Posterior = conservation

Think “junk in the posterior trunk keeps you warm”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the hypothalamic Arcuate nucleus do?

A

Secretes dopamine (inhibits prolactin), GH, GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cell-types does IL-2 stimulate?

A

Helper T cells (proliferation and differentiation), Monocyte activation, NK cells, T cells, B cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for motor planning and coordination of _______ side.

How does a lesion present?

A

Ipsilateral

Dysdiadochokinesia
Limb dysmetria
Intention tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patients who kneel a lot/work on their knees are at risk for what?

A

Prepatellar bursitis. “Aka housemaids knee”

Pain and decreased range of motion with active movement and no pain with passive movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the anserine bursa?

A

Medial side of knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Compression of the LOWER trunk of the brachial plexus in the SCALENE triangle bordered by the anterior and middle scalene muscles and the first rib.

Sx include upper extremity numbness, tingling, and weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Treacher-Collins syndrome? How does it present?

A

Genetic disorder resulting in the abnormal development in the first and second pharyngeal arches:

Craniofacial abnormalities (mandibular, maxillary, zygomatic bon hypoplasia) results in airway abnormalities and feeding difficulties. Absent or abnormal ossicles (incus, malleus, stapes) leading to profound conductive hearing loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PAH is ________ and is thus used to calculate _______.

A

Filtered AND secreted. RPF

Filtration is free and at a constant fraction. Secretion is a carrier-mediated process and thus can be saturated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is cut in an episiotomy?

A

Perineal body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a benign/inconsequential form of fructose intolerance?

A

Fructokinase deficiency aka Essential fructosuria

fructose -> F1P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chylomicrons eventually bump into HDLs when they reach the bloodstream. What receptors do they express then?

A

Apo B48 still
Apo C
Apo E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As chylomicrons drop their TAGs off at adipocytes using lipoprotein lipase, what receptor drops off?

A

Apo C

Apo B48 and Apo E persist on the chylomicron remnant

21
Q

When VLDL leaves the liver cells, what does it contain? What receptor is on its surface?

A

TAGs and CHOLESTEROL (NOT cholesterol esters)

Apo B100 on cell surface

22
Q

What does LCAT do and how?

A

Converts cholesterol to cholesterol ESTER inside HDL
(cholesterol esters are then trapped inside lipoprotein and isn’t free to move through membranes)

This interaction is activated via pickup of LCAT by HDL via docking of the Apo A receptor

23
Q

What is LDL composed of? What receptors are on its surface?

A

Cholesterol esters ONLY
with a SINGLE copy of Apo B100

Comes from an IDL that has lost the TAGs and Apo E

24
Q

What are Ladd’s fibrous bands? What pathology are they seen in?

A

In midgut malrotation, teh cecum ends up in the RLQ instead of LLQ.
Fibrous bands that connect the retroperitoneum in the RLQ to the right colon/cecum.

They can pass over the second part of the duodenum causing obstruction and thus biliary emesis within the first few days of life.

It may also present as a midgut volvulus on the SMA which will compromise intestinal perfusion and may lead to life-threatening necrosis.

25
Q

Where does cutaneous lymph from the umbilicus down drain? What are the exceptions and the surprising inclusions?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes

**exceptions: NOT glans penis nor posterior calf

**inclusions: external genitalia and anus below the dentate line

26
Q

What is a common lesion/sequelae to the arterial system from a high speed MVA?

A

Blunt aortic injuries due to sudden deceleration causes extreme stretching and torsional forces often at the aortic isthmus which is tethered by the ligamentum arteriosum -> this can cause aortic rupture and widened mediastinum on CXR.

27
Q

What is the allantois/urachus and what are associated pathologies?

A

At 3 weeks gestation the yolk sac forms a protrusion that extends into the urogenital sinus which gives rise to the bladder.

The allantois becomes the urachus, a duct between the bladder and the yolk sac. If the urachus to close leaves a connection between the umbilicus and the bladder causing skin irritation and possible urine discharge.

If just the distal part of the urachus fails to close, a urachal sinus results with periumbilical tenderness and purulent umbilical discharge.

If just the central portion fails to obliterate, you get a urachal cyst.

28
Q

What is the mnemonic for the 3 places where the trigeminal nerve (CN V) exit the skull? Identify what regions they innervate.

A

Standing Room Only

Foramen Spinosum - V1 - ophthalmic region
Formanen Rotundum - V2 - Maxillary
Foramen Spinosum - V3 - Mandibular

29
Q

What structures exit through the Superior Orbital Fissure?

A

CN III, CN IV, V1, VI, ophthalmic vein, sympathetic fibers

30
Q

What structures pass through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein

31
Q

What are histologic findings of granulomas?

A

Epitheloid macrophages and multinucleated giant cells

32
Q

What are the immune cell types of granuloma formation?

A

IL-12 secretion induces TH1 differentiation -> TH1 produce IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha helping to kill ingested bacteria and recruit additional monocytes and macrophages.

33
Q

The _____ ventricle composes the majority of the anterior portion of the heart.

A

Right

34
Q

Fish bones and other food can get stuck in the piriform recess lateral to the larynx. This can damage the internal laryngeal nerve, a branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, CN X, ultimately damaging the afferent limb of the ______ reflex.

A

Internal laryngeal
Superior laryngeal
CN X
Cough reflex

35
Q

Taste from the base of the tongue (posterior 1/3) comes from the ______ nerve.

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve

36
Q

Taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue comes from the ______ nerve.

A

Facial (VII) nerve.

37
Q

Gag reflex:
Afferent = CN __
Efferent = CN __

A 
Afferent = IX
Efferent = X
38
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of cranial nerve ______.

A

X

39
Q

Cells with decreased green fluorescence on DHR flow cytometry indicate what deficiency/disease?

A

NADPH oxidase deficiency; Chronic granulomatous disease

40
Q

Saddle anesthesia and loss of anocutaneous reflex are indicative of ________ syndrome and are associate with damage to nerve roots ___ - ___.

A

Cauda equina syndrome

S2-S4 (i.e. pudendal nerve)

41
Q

What artery is damaged from a mid shaft humerus break?

A

Deep radial artery

42
Q

The pancreas is predominantly retroperitoneal except for the ____ which is why the pain radiates to the back in pancreatitis

A

TAIL

43
Q

Tennis elbow = lateral epicondylitis = problems with wrist ________

A

extension

44
Q

What is the only abdominal organ derived from mesoderm?

A

Spleen

note kidney is also a mesoderm organ but it is retroperitoneal!

45
Q

Which CNS cells are curiously derived from mesoderm?

A

Oligodendrocytes

46
Q

The umbilical arteries regress into the ?

A

medial umbilical ligaments

47
Q

The allantois/urachus regress into the ?

A

Median umbilical ligament

48
Q

Which rotator cuff externally rotates the shoulder (i.e. pitching injury)?

A

Infraspinatus

49
Q

What is NF-kb?

A

Transcription factor that induces transcription of TNF-alpha and other inflammatory agents.

Inhaled fluticasone (corticosteroid) in asthmatics inhibits it.

Boards (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions