Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

what does the nervous system consist of?

A

brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

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2
Q

major sensory organs

A

eyes and ears

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3
Q

what is the nervous system divided into

A

cns and pns

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4
Q

pns consists of what

A

12 cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and the autonomic nervous system

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5
Q

basic cell of the nervous system

A

neuron

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6
Q

short, branch-like extensions on the cell body that carry impulses to the cell body from other cells

A

dendrites

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7
Q

controls the function of the neuron

A

cell body

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8
Q

single, long projection that carries impulses away from the cell body

A

axon

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9
Q

white fatty substance that protects the axon

A

myelin sheath

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10
Q

nerves with a myelin sheath

A

myelinated (white nerve fibers)

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11
Q

nerves w/o myelin sheaths

A

unmyelinated (gray nerve fibers)

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12
Q

impulses move from one neuron to another across a ____

A

synapse

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13
Q

a chemical ____ such as acetylcholine either helps or stops the impulse from crossing the synapse

A

neurotransmitter

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14
Q

_____ neurons carry impulses from the skin and muscles to the CNS

A

sensory (afferent)

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15
Q

____ neurons carry impulses from the CNS to the muscles for contraction or glands for secretion

A

motor (efferent)

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16
Q

what is the control center of the nervous system

A

brain

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17
Q

what is the brain protected by

A

bony skull and membranes

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18
Q

the outer layer of the meninges

A

dura mater

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19
Q

the middle layer of the meninges

A

arachnoid

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20
Q

the inner layer of the meninges (directly attached to the brain)

A

pia mater

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21
Q

where are arterial blood vessels located

A

epidural space (b/t skull and dura mater)

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22
Q

where is csf found

A

Subarachnoid space (b/t arachnoid and pia mater)

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23
Q

4 major regions of the brain

A

cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum

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24
Q

largest area of the brain that is separated into the right and left hemispheres

A

cerebrum

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25
Q

deep grooves in the cerebrum

A

fissures

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26
Q

what connects the hemispheres and allows for communication

A

corpus callosum

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27
Q

left hemi is responsible for what

A

speech, problem solving, reasoning, and calculations

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28
Q

right hemi is responsible for what

A

visual-spatial info, art, music, and surrounding physical environment

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29
Q

the ____ contains gray matter, while the rest of the cerebrum is made up of white matter

A

cerebral cortex

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30
Q

each hemi is divided into 4 lobes

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

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31
Q

____ contains the thalamus and hypothalamus

A

diencephalon

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32
Q

what does the hypothalamus regulate

A

temp, fluid balance, thirst, appetite, emotions, and the sleep-wake cycle

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33
Q

what does the brain stem consist of

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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34
Q

___ is the center for auditory and visual reflexes

A

midbrain

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35
Q

___ controls respiration

A

pons

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36
Q

___ controls hr, bp, resp, coughing, swallowing, and vomiting

A

medulla oblongata

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37
Q

___ is connected to the brain stem and has two hemispheres, and coordinates involuntary muscle activity and fine motor movements as well as balance and posture

A

cerebellum

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38
Q

a clear, colorless liquid that protects the brain and spinal cord from trauma. It also provides a place for nutrient exchange an waste removal

A

csf (cerebrospinal fluid)

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39
Q

daily production of csf (mL)

A

125-150 mL

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40
Q

what is in csf

A

high glucose, few wbc, and no rbc

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41
Q

how much blood does the brain get per/min

A

750mL/min (20% od cardiac output)

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42
Q

what is the brain’s only source of energy

A

glucose (cannot store O2 or glucose, so needs constant supply)

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43
Q

two arterial systems that supply the brain

A

internal carotid (cerebrum) and vertebral arteries (cerebellum and brainstem)

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44
Q

the major arterial supplies of the brain are connected by smaller arteries forming a ring called ____

A

circle of Willis (alternative routes when artery is blocked)

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45
Q

cerebral veins drain venous blood into the ____

A

jugular veins

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46
Q

composed of astrocytes that are joined by tight junctions which decreases permeability so that harmful substances in the blood cannot enter the brain

A

blood-brain barrier

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47
Q

what can pass through the bbb

A

lipids, glucose, some amino acids, CO2, O2, and water

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48
Q

what cannot pass the bbb

A

urea, creatinine, some toxins, and most antibiotics

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49
Q

where does the spinal cord exit the skull

A

foramen magnum

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50
Q

what protects the spinal cord

A

vertebral column

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51
Q

vertebral column consists of what

A

C 7, T 12, L 5, S 5, 4 fused coccyx

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52
Q

the ventral horn consists of ___ neurons

A

motor

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53
Q

the dorsal horn consists of ___ neurons

A

sensory

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54
Q

the lateral horn consists of ___ neurons

A

sympathetic

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55
Q

____ matter forms ascending and descending pathways known as spinal tracts

A

white

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56
Q

these carry messages to and from the brain: ascending sensory pathways and descending motor pathways

A

spinal tracts

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57
Q

the pns is divided into ____ and ____

A

sensory and autonomic nervous systems

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58
Q

connects the skin and muscles to the cns

A

sensory ns

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59
Q

controls visceral organs and some glands

A

autonomic ns

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60
Q

31 pairs of spinal nerves

A

C8, T12, L5, S5

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61
Q

sensory fibers are in the ___ root

A

dorsal

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62
Q

motor fibers are in the ___ root

A

ventral

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63
Q

an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is called

A

dermatome (useful for locating pain and neurologic lesions)

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64
Q

which cranial nerves just control sensory function

A

I, II, VIII

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65
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves

A

12

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66
Q

a part of the PNS that is responsible for maintaining the body’s internal homeostasis

A

ANS

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67
Q

the ANS regulates what

A

respiration, HR, digestion, urinary excretion, body temp, and sexual function

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68
Q

two divisions of the ANS

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

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69
Q

prepares for the body to handle stress “fight or flight”

A

sns

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70
Q

operates during non-stressful events to conserve the body’s energy “rest and digest”

A

psns

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71
Q

pneumonic for the cranial nerves and their function

A

oh oh oh to touch and feel very good vagina ah ha

some say marry money but my brother says big brains matter more

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72
Q

protect the eyeballs

A

eyelids and eyelashes

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73
Q

thin mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid

A

conjunctiva

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74
Q

secretes and drains tears to cleanse and moisten the eye’s surface

A

lacrimal apparatus

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75
Q

tears are produced by what

A

lacrimal gland

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76
Q

where do tears drain

A

lacrimal ducts (then into nose)

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77
Q

when the cornea is touched the eyelids blink and tears are secreted

A

corneal reflex

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78
Q

colored part of the eye, regulates light entering the eye by controlling the size of the pupil

A

iris

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79
Q

a transparent structure behind the pupil that can change shape to focus light onto the retina

A

lens

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80
Q

vascular layer of the eyeball

A

choroid

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81
Q

the innermost lining of the eyeball and contains millions of light receptors called rods and cones

A

retina

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82
Q

light sensitive and allows us to see in dim light

A

rods

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83
Q

allow us to see color and provide a sharper image

A

cones

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84
Q

the area where light passing through the pupil and lens focuses on the retina

A

macula

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85
Q

the center of the macula that allows for detailed color vision

A

fovea centralis

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86
Q

the optic nerve enters the eye at

A

optic disk

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87
Q

the eye has two interior cavities

A

posterior and anterior cavity

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88
Q

posterior cavity behind the lens contains clear gelatinous ___

A

vitreous body

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89
Q

anterior cavity is divided further into ___ and ____

A

anterior (b/t cornea and iris) and posterior (b/t iris and lens) chamber

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90
Q

the anterior cavity is filled with ___

A

aqueous humor (constantly formed and drained to maintain relative pressure within the eye)

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91
Q

___ at the junction of the sclera and the cornea (limbus) allows aqueous humor to flow b/t the anterior and posterior chambers

A

canal of Schlemm

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92
Q

to change the point of focus from far to near, the lens changes shape, the pupil constricts, and the eyes converge

A

accommodation

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93
Q

where do the optic and the cranial nerves meet

A

optic chiasma

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94
Q

impulses generated in the retina travel to the ____ in the occipital lobe of the brain

A

visual cortex

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95
Q

the visual fields of each eye overlap considerably and each eye sees a slightly different view allowing for ___

A

depth perception

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96
Q

2 primary functions of the ear

A

hearing and maintaining balance

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97
Q

3 areas of the ear

A

external, middle, and inner

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98
Q

glands in the auditory canal secrete what

A

cerumen (traps debris, protecting the tympanic membrane)

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99
Q

the auditory ossicles (bones) in the middle ear

A

malleus, incus, stapes

100
Q

middle ear is filled with air and opens into the ___, which connects it with the nasopharynx (increased likelihood for middle ear infections)

A

eustachian tube (help equalize pressure with atmospheric pressure)

101
Q

3 regions of the labyrinth (inner ear)

A

vestibule, semilunar canals, cochlea

102
Q

receptors in the ___ respond to changes in gravity and head position, helping maintain balance

A

vestibule

103
Q

the cochlea contains the ____, the receptor for hearing

A

organ of Corti (sensory hair cells)

104
Q

ringing in the ears

A

tinnitus

105
Q

drooping of the eyelids

A

ptosis

106
Q

involuntary eye movement

A

nystagmus

107
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

108
Q

decreased muscle tone

A

flaccidity

109
Q

increased muscle tone

A

spasticity

110
Q

lack of coordination or unbalanced gait

A

ataxia

111
Q

what chart to assess distant vision with

A

Snellen

112
Q

what chart to assess near vision with

A

Rosenbaum

113
Q

what tests to test hearing

A

whisper, Rinne (place on bone then move to front of ear), Weber (on top of head and should be heard equally)

114
Q

the lens becomes less elastic with aging, affecting near vision

A

presbyopia

115
Q

eyelid muscles lose tone, causing the lower lid to turn out

A

ectropion

116
Q

eyelid margin may turn inward causing lashes to irritate the eye

A

entropion

117
Q

older people cannot hear ____ frequency sounds due to the degeneration in the cochlea or loss of small hairs in the ears

A

high

118
Q

csf contains ___ mg/dL of glucose

A

50-70 mg/dL

119
Q

inability to express or receive and understand speech as a result of brain damage

A

aphasia

120
Q

2 categories of CVA (stroke)

A

ischemic and hemorrhagic

121
Q

if the brain experiences ____ for more than 10min, irreversible brain damage occurs

A

anoxia (lack of O2 to the brain)

122
Q

minimally perfused cells whose survival depends on timely return of adequate circulation

A

penumbra

123
Q

smaller blood vessels develop to supply blood to areas with reduced blood flow

A

collateral circulation

124
Q

cannot identify familiar objects

A

agnosia

125
Q

in a CVA there is usually a ___ deficit

A

contralateral (opposite side)

126
Q

weakness on one half of the body

A

hemiparesis

127
Q

paralysis of one half of the body

A

hemiplegia

128
Q

if Broca’s area is damaged someone may have ___

A

expressive aphasia

129
Q

if Wernicke’s area is damaged someone may have ___

A

receptive aphasia

130
Q

difficulty speaking caused by paralysis of the muscles that control speech

A

dysarthria

131
Q

seeing double

A

diplopia

132
Q

awareness of body’s position

A

proprioception

133
Q

loss of vision in half of the eye

A

homonymous hemianopia

134
Q

inability to carry out a familiar routine/coordinate a movement

A

apraxia

135
Q

identifies the size and location of a CVA

A

CT scan

136
Q

what is the earliest sign of IICP

A

change in LOC

137
Q

what standardized chart assesses LOC

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

138
Q

3 categories of the GCS

A

eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

139
Q

min and max score of GCS

A

min 3 and max 15

140
Q

when is the patient in a coma and unable to maintain their own airway on the GCS

A

8 (at 8 intibate)

141
Q

inflammation of the eyelid, may be caused by an infection or dermatitis. Eyelid is irritated and itchy, margins are red, crusted, and scaly

A

blepharitis

142
Q

infection of the sebaceous glands of the eyelid, usually caused by staph (red and painful)

A

hordeolum (stye)

143
Q

painless cyst or nodule of the eyelid

A

chalazion

144
Q

inflammation of the conjunctiva, usually caused by bacteria or virus (staph or adenovirus). Spread by direct contact

A

conjunctivitis (pink eye)

145
Q

scratch on the cornea

A

corneal abrasion

146
Q

what eye injury is often caused by sports

A

blunt eye trauma

147
Q

what test can help identify the presence of foreign bodies and abrasions

A

fluorescein stain

148
Q

nearsightedness

A

myopia

149
Q

farsightedness

A

hyperopia

150
Q

irregularities in the curvature of the cornea and lens. Light rays are imperfectly focused on the retina

A

astigmatism

151
Q

clouding of the lens of the eye that impairs vision

A

cataract

152
Q

what is a cataract that only affects a portion of the lens

A

immature

153
Q

cataract that affects the entire lens

A

mature

154
Q

what reflex is lost with cataracts

A

red reflex

155
Q

how are cataracts corrected

A

surgery with implantation of an intraocular lens

156
Q

disease characterized by increased intraocular pressure and gradual loss of vision

A

glaucoma

157
Q

what vision is lost first in glaucoma

A

peripheral

158
Q

what is aqueous humor produced by

A

ciliary body

159
Q

aqueous humor drainage through the trabecular meshwork and canal of schelmm is slowed, with a gradual increase in IOP

A

POAG (primary open angle glaucoma)

160
Q

the angle between the cornea and the iris closes, completely blocking drainage from aqueous humor from the eye, with an abrupt increase in IOP

A

angle-closure glaucoma

161
Q

which glaucoma is a medical emergency b/c w/o prompt treatment the affected eye will become blind

A

angle-closure glaucoma

162
Q

we want to avoid eye ___ in someone that has had episodes of angle-closure glaucoma

A

dilation

163
Q

what is the type of medication that dilates the eye and should be AVOIDED in pts with angle-closure glaucoma

A

mydriatic (this has a “d” and so does “d”ilate)

164
Q

what test measures IOP

A

tonometry (start screening at 40yrs)

165
Q

what osmotic diuretic is used in ACG

A

mannitol

166
Q

what medication constricts the pupil and is given to help open the angle in ACG

A

miOtic (they cOnstrict)

167
Q

in glaucoma ___ and ___ are also seen in an ophthalmology exam

A

fundus pallor and optic disk cupping (examine through funduscopy)

168
Q

name a miotic

A

pilocarpine

169
Q

name a mdriatic

A

atropine

170
Q

example of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (reduce aqueous humor production, lowing IOP)

A

acetazolamide

171
Q

what test measures the depth of the anterior chamber and helps differentiate b/t open and closed angled glaucoma

A

gonioscopy

172
Q

what test is used to identify if there is peripheral vision loss

A

visual field testing

173
Q

beta blockers can also be given to decrease IOP, what vital sign will we watch to see if there was systemic effects

A

BP

174
Q

swimmer’s ear

A

external otitis

175
Q

when a pt presents with a foreign body such as a bean, do not do what

A

irrigate (may cause the object to swell)

176
Q

what temp of water to use when irrigating the ear and why

A

body temp (too cold could induce seizure activity)

177
Q

inflammation or infection of the middle ear

A

otitis media

178
Q

the eustachian tube connects to what

A

nasopharynx (organisms can enter the ear through the nose and throat)

179
Q

when the eustachian tube is obstructed for a long time. Air in the middle ear is gradually absorbed, causing negative pressure in the middle ear

A

serous otitis media

180
Q

acute otitis media usually follows a ___

A

URI

181
Q

a sensation of whirling or movement when there is none, key symptom of inner ear disorders

A

vertigo

182
Q

anything that affects sound transmission from the external opening of the ear to the inner ear

A

conductive hearing loss

183
Q

disorders that affect the inner ear or the auditory pathways of the brain may cause

A

sensorineural hearing loss

184
Q

with aging, the hair cells of the cochlea degenerate, causing progressive hearing loss

A

presbycusis

185
Q

what consonants can people suffering from hear loss not understand

A

t, p, or s

186
Q

most common type of vascular headache (exact causes unknown)

A

migraine

187
Q

normal IOP

A

15-22 (orange 10-20)

188
Q

normal ICP

A

7-12 (orange 5-15)

189
Q

a brief disruption of brain function caused by abnormal electrical activity in the nerve cells of the brain

A

seizure

190
Q

involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation, which involves the entire body

A

convulsion

191
Q

seizures occurring in a chronic pattern

A

epilepsy (seizure disorder)

192
Q

a group of abnormal firing neurons that start a seizure

A

epileptogenic focus

193
Q

what can trigger seizure activity

A

hypoglycemia, high fever, hypoxia

194
Q

seizures are classified as ____ or ____

A

partial or generalized

195
Q

seizures that start in one area of the cerebral cortex

A

partial seizures

196
Q

uncontrolled jerking movements of a finger, hand, foot, leg, or the face

A

simple partial seizure

197
Q

when a simple partial seizure spreads to other body areas and is known as ____

A

Jacksonian march

198
Q

known as psychomotor seizures, usually begin in the temporal lobe and manifestations include automatisms

A

complex partial seizures

199
Q

repetitive non-purposeful actions (lip smacking, aimless walking, or picking at clothing

A

automatisms

200
Q

a warning sign that something is going to happen

A

aura

201
Q

seizures that involve both hemispheres of the brain and result in loss of consciousness

A

generalized seizures

202
Q

characterized by a brief change in consciousness such as a blank stare (more frequent in chlidren)

A

absence seizures

203
Q

can develop suddenly and is the most common type of seizure with risk for potential injury

A

tonic-clonic seizures

204
Q

what is the typical pattern for tonic-clonic seizures

A

aura, tonic phase, clonic phase, postictal phase

205
Q

muscles are rigid with the arms and legs extended and jaw clenched. Pupils become fixed and dilated. Breathing stops and cyanosis develops

A

tonic contractions

206
Q

movements are jerky as the muscles alternately relax and contract. The eyes roll back; tongue and cheek biting, as well as frothing from the mouth. Urinary and bowel incontinence are common

A

clonic contractions

207
Q

post seizure the patient is unconscious for up to 30min

A

postictal

208
Q

a continuous period of tonic-clonic seizures usually lasting 5min or more in which the patient does not regain consciousness life threatening medical emergency

A

status epilepticus

209
Q

what test can determine the type of seizure and locate the seizure focus

A

EEG (electroencephalogram)

210
Q

what class of drug is given to quickly stop status epilepticus

A

Benzodiazepines (antidote: flumazenil)

211
Q

meds for seizures

A

clonazepam
carbamazepine (4-12)
gabapentin
phenobarbital (15-40)
phenytoin (10-20)
valproic acid

212
Q

a flexion posturing

A

decorticate (into the core)

213
Q

an extension posturing

A

decerebrate

214
Q

rescue med for migraines

A

ketorolac

215
Q

form of vascular headache that typically begins 2 to 3 hours after the person falls asleep. Usually the same side of the head is involved each time

A

cluster headache

216
Q

headache that often results from prolonged muscle contraction of the head and neck, due to abnormal posture (viselike feeling)

A

tension headache

217
Q

a slow progressive neurodegenerative movement disorder, resulting from a loss of dopamine

A

Parkinson disease (PD)

218
Q

an inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

dopamine

219
Q

an excitatory neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

220
Q

3 cardinal signs of PD

A

tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia

221
Q

slowed voluntary movements and speech

A

bradykinesia

222
Q

the classic tremor in PD that occurs with the thumb and fingers

A

pill rolling

223
Q

muscle rigidity makes active and passive movement difficult, the extremity may move but it does so in a jerky movement called ____

A

cogwheel rigidity

224
Q

a ___ scan may show decreased levels of levodopa (precursor to dopamine)

A

PET

225
Q

most common procedure for PD

A

deep brain stimulation (DBS)

226
Q

two other procedures done in PD that destroy certain areas in the brain to decrease tremors

A

thalamotomy and pallidotomy

227
Q

progressive, inherited neurologic disease and involves a lack of neurotransmitter GABA (which causes acetylcholine lvls to drop and dopamine lvls to rise)

A

Huntington disease (HD)

228
Q

what 3 things does HD affects

A

personality, intellectual function, and movement

229
Q

constant, jerky, uncontrolled movements of the body that is a characteristic manifestation of HD

A

chorea

230
Q

death from HD is usually due to what

A

aspiration pneumonia

231
Q

an acute, progressive inflammation of the peripheral nervous system and often follows a recent viral or bacterial infection

A

guillain-barre syndrome (GBS)

232
Q

where do the manifestations of GBS

A

in the lower extremities

233
Q

what are the cataracts that occur from aging

A

senile cataracts

234
Q

Sense of smell

A

I, olfactory

235
Q

Vision

A

II, optic

236
Q

Eye movements
Extraocular muscles
Pupillary control (pupillary constriction)

A

III, oculomotor

237
Q

Down and inward movement of eye

A

IV, trochlear

238
Q

Sensations of face, scalp, and teeth
Chewing movements

A

V, trigeminal

239
Q

Outward movement of eye

A

VI, abducens

240
Q

Sense of taste on anterior two-thirds of tongue
Contraction of muscles of facial expression

A

VII, facial

241
Q

Hearing
Sense of balance (equilibrium)

A

VIII, vestibulocochlear

242
Q

Sensations of throat, taste, swallowing movements, gag reflex
Sense of taste on posterior one third of tongue
Secretion of saliva

A

IX, glossopharyngeal

243
Q

Sensations of throat, larynx, and thoracic and abdominal organs
Swallowing
Voice production
Slowing of heartbeat
Acceleration of peristalsis

A

X, vagus

244
Q

Shoulder movements (trapezius muscle)
Turning movements of head (sternocleidomastoid muscles)

A

XI, accessory

245
Q

Tongue movements

A

XII, hypoglossal