Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

YEAR 3 NICE > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

what drugs are antiemetics used mainly in the management of chemo related nausea

A

5- HT 3 antagonists eg ondansetron and palonsetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what arteries are Brocas area and wernickes area supplied by

A

brocas- superior divison of the left middle cerebral artery
wernicks - inferior division of the left middle cerebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

wernickes area is in what lobe

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is a connection between the wernickes and brocas area

A

arcuate fasiculus (conduction aphasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

global aphasia affects all 3 areas examples being

A

brocas, wernickes and arcuate fasiculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is poor in conduction aphasia

A

repitition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what describes the downward displacemtns or herniation of the cerebella tonsils through the foramen magnum

A

arnold chairi malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what part of the cerebellum causes gait ataxia

A

cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what part of the cerebellum causes finger to nose ataxia

A

cerebellar hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

autonomic dysreflexia occurs if have spinal cord injury above what level

A

T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

autonomic dysrefelxia most commonly triggered by

A

faecal impaction or urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how does autonomic dysreflexia present

A

extreme hypertension, flushing and sweating above the level of the cord lesiomn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

bells palsy is more common in

A

pregnant woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in bells palsy what other signs may the patient notice

A

post auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what supplies the tip of the fingers on the back of the hand of thumb, index and middle finger

A

medial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what brachial plexus injury can cause a winged scapula and what can cause loss of instrinsic hand muscles

A

winged scapula - erb duchenne
hand muscles - klumpkes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mx of brain abscess

A

srugery - to debride and IV antibitocs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the syndrome in the dominant parietal lobe that has - inabiloity to read, calculate, finger agnosia and right left disorientation

A

gerstmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what area forms the speech before sending it to brocas area

A

wernickes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 main facts about the temporal lobe

A

wernickes, hearing, and diffuclty recognising faces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

wernickes and korsakoff syndrome can affect what area

A

mammilary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

huntingtons chorea affects what part of the brain

A

striatum (caudate nucleus) of the basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common cancer to metastases to the brain is

A

lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5 cancers that most commonly metastasise to the brian

A

skbbl
skin
kidney
breast
bowel
lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the most common primary tumour in adults

A

glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

glioblastoma multiforme is associated with what

A

vasogenic oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what has pleomorphic tumour cells

A

glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

second most common primary brain tumour in adults

A

meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what tumour has spindle cells and calcified psammoma bodies

A

meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common primary brain tumour in children

A

pilocytic astrocytoma (rosenthal fibres -corkscrew eosinophilic bundle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

brain tumour associated with von hippel lindau

A

haemangioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what tumour is derived from the remnants of Rathke pouch

A

craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

carbamazepine is a first line in what kind of seizures

A

partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

binds to sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what cells in the choroid plexus produce csf

A

ependymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

csf is reabsorbed where

A

arachnoid granulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

most common herediatry peripheral neuropathy

A

charcot marie tooth disease - may be a history of frequently sprained ankles, foot drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cluster headches are more common in

A

men and smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what can tigger an attack of a cluster headache

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

clusters of cluster headahces typically last

A

4-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the investigation of choice in cluster headahces

A

MRI with gadolinium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

best scan for brain tumours

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

loss of blink (AFFERENT), mastication muscles and jaw jerk is what cranial nerve

A

trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

loss of blink is what 2 cranial nerves

A

trigeminal (afferent)
facial (efferent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

loss of taste is what cranial nerve

A

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

loss of gag reflex is what 2 nerves

A

glossopharynheal (afferent)
vagus (efferent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

jaw jerk is esspecial what CN

A

V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

pupillary nerve reflex involves what cranial nervs

A

optic and occulomtor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

corneal reflex involves what cranial nervs

A

V1 and facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

hoffmans sign relates to

A

degenerative cervical myelopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is hoffmans sign

A

postivie sign is -flicking one finger of the patients hand results in twitching of the other fingers on the same hand in response to the flick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the gold standard test for degenerative cervical myelopathy

A

MRI of the cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

only treatment for degenerative cervical myelopathy

A

decompressive surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

big toe and dorsum of foot is what dermatome a

A

L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

inguinal ligament is what dermatome

A

L1- L for ligament and 1 for 1inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

first seizure how long can they not drive for

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

if got epilsepsy need to be seizure free for how long

A

12 motnhs

58
Q

if have stroke or TIA need to have how long off driving

A

1month

59
Q

responsible for most cases of encephalitis

A

HSV 1

60
Q

what should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis

A

IV aciclovir

61
Q

around 30% of patietns with — have epilepsy

A

cerebral pasly

62
Q

alcohol withdrawl leads to what

A

decreased inhibition of GABA

63
Q

patietns are often given what following cessation of drinking alcohol to reduce the risk of seizures

A

benzos

64
Q

consciosness is lost immediately in what kind of seizures

A

generalised

65
Q

investigation patient will have after first seizure

A

EEG ( electronencephalogram) and MRI

66
Q

when to start antiepileptic meds

A

following second epileptic seizure

67
Q

breastfeeding is geenrally considered safe if on antiepileptics with exception being the

A

barbiturates

68
Q

some side effects of sodium valpraote

A

weight gain and alopecia

69
Q

what epileptic med you need to watch out for stevens johnson syndrome

A

lamotrogine

70
Q

what are often termed rescue medication for seizures

A

benzos such as diazepam

71
Q

an aura is typically a

A

rising epigastric sensation

72
Q

female treatment of tonic clonic seizures

A

lamotrogine or levetiracetam

73
Q

first line for everyone for focal seizures

A

lamotrogine or levetiracetam

74
Q

first line for everyone for a focal seizure

A

lamotrogine or levetiracetam

75
Q

essential tremor has what inheritance

A

autosomal domiantn

76
Q

what tremor is worse when arms are outstrethced

A

essential tremor

77
Q

after extradural haemorrhage can get what hernaition causeing dialted pupil

A

uncal

78
Q

biconvex

A

extradural

79
Q

what haemorrhage is limited by the suture lines of the skull

A

extradural

80
Q

what is the definitive treatment of extradural

A

craniotomy and evacuation

81
Q

what is suggestive of L5 radiculopathy

A

weakness of hip abduction

82
Q

mx of common peroneal nerve injury

A

conservative managemt

83
Q

GAA repeat

A

friedrichs ataxia

84
Q

how is friedrichs ataxia unusual in that it is a trinucleotide repeat disorder

A

it does not demonstrate anticipation

85
Q

gait ataxia and what are the most common presenting feeatures of friedrichs ataxia

A

kyphoscoliosis

86
Q

most common cause fo death in friedrichs ataxia

A

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

87
Q

guillian barre is classicaly triggered by

A

campylobacter jejuni

88
Q

investigation in guillian barre

A

lumbar puncture to see rise in protein with a normal white cell count

89
Q

herepes simplex encephalitis tends to affect what lobes of the brain

A

temporal

90
Q

csf in encephalitis shows

A

lymphocytosis and elevated protein

91
Q

big thing that affects prognosis of encephalitis

A

how quickly aciclovir is started

92
Q

huntingtons disease has what inheritance

A

autsomal dominant

93
Q

trinucelotide repeat disorder of CAG

A

huntingtosn

94
Q

antibiotic that is a rf for IIH

A

tetracyclines

95
Q

why is topiramate good in IIH

A

inhibits carbonic anhydrase and causes weight loss

96
Q

what has impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion
horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the contralateral side

A

internuclear opthalmoplegia

97
Q

where is the lesion in internuclear opthalmoplegia

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus

98
Q

what is gold standard for intracranial venous thrombosis

A

MRI venography

99
Q

what symptoms are more common in myasthenia gravis as opposed to lambert eaton syndrome

A

opthalmoplegia and ptosis

100
Q

lamotrogine mechanism of action

A

sodium channel blcoker

101
Q

posterior inferior cerebella artery syndrome affects what contralteraly

A

limb sensory loss

102
Q

what drug can cause reddish discolouration of urine upon standing

A

levodopa

103
Q

levodopa ussually has reduced effectiveness after how long

A

2 years

104
Q

managemetn of medication overuse headache

A

should stop algesics or triptans abruptly even though it may initially worsen the headache. however opiod analgesics should be gradually withdrawn

105
Q

most comon complication of meningitis is

A

sensorineural hering loss

106
Q

in children migraine attacks is more commonly

A

bilateral and Gi disturbances are more promient

107
Q

5HT agonists are used in the acute treatment and 5HT ANTagonists are used in prophylaxis for what

A

migraine

108
Q

firsst line for acute migraine

A

oral triptan and NSAID, oral triptan and paracetemol

109
Q

3 options for prophylaxis of a migraine

A

propanolol, topiramate and amitryptiline

110
Q

what migraine prophylaxis should be avoided in women of child bearing age

A

topiramate

111
Q

what is first line for migraine during pregancy

A

paracetemol

112
Q

why is combined oral contraceptive pill contraindicated in migraine

A

increased risk of stroke

113
Q

what is the most common presentation of ALS

A

asymetric limb weakness

114
Q

watsting of what muscels is common in MND

A

hand muscles adn tibilais anterior

115
Q

MND does not affect what muscels

A

external ocular muscles

116
Q

nerve conduction studeis in MND will show

A

normal motor conduction - so can exclude a neuropathy

117
Q

what is usually performed in suspected MND to exlude cervical cord compression and myelopathy

A

MRI

118
Q

prolongs life in ALS

A

riluzole

119
Q

what MND has UMN signs only

A

primary lateral sclerosis

120
Q

what MND has LMN signs only, affects distal muscles before proximal and carries best prognosis

A

progressive muscular atrophy

121
Q

MND that has the worst prognosis

A

progressive bulbar palsy

122
Q

what MS typically occurs afetr relapsing remitting

A

secondary progressive

123
Q

what disorders are generally seen in secondary progressive MS

A

gait and bladder disorders

124
Q

Uhthoff’s phenomenon: worsening of vision following rise in body temperature - occurs in??

A

MS

125
Q

lhermittes syndrome is paraestheis in limbs on neck flexion is seen in what

A

MS

126
Q

high signal T2 lesions
periventricular plaques
Dawson fingers: often seen on FLAIR images - hyperintense lesions penpendicular to the corpus callosum
seeen in what

A

MS

127
Q

csf can show oligoclonal bands in CSf and

A

increased synthesis of igG

128
Q

first line drug for preventing relapse in MS

A

natalizumab or ocrelizumab

129
Q

medication that can be sued for fatigue in MS

A

amantadine

130
Q

the other first line for spasticity

A

gabapentin

131
Q

features of multiple system atrophy

A

parkinsonism, autonmic stuff and cerebellar signs

132
Q

myasthenia gravis is asscociated with what

A

thymomas

133
Q

invesigations for myasthenia gravis

A

electromyography is highly sensitive and CT thorax to exclude thymoma

134
Q

first line management for myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine

135
Q

management of myasthenic crisis

A

plasmaphereiss

136
Q

drugs that can exacerbate myasthenia gravis one example

A

beta blcokers

137
Q

narcolepsy is associated with – , a protein which is responsinle for controlling apeteite and sleep patterns

A

hypocretin

138
Q

investigation for narcolepsy

A

multiple sleep latency EEG

139
Q

neurlopetic malignnat syndrome can occur with atypcial antipsychotics but also with

A

levodopa usually when the drug is stopped or dose reduced

140
Q

bromocriptine adn dantrolene may be used for

A

neuroleptic malignant sydnroem

YEAR 3 NICE (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions