Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Pros and cons of eye ointments
Pros and cons of eye drops

A

Ointments:
Pros: Harder to apply
Cons: Lubricant, long lasting

Drops:
Pros: Easy to apply
Cons; Short duration, minimal lubriaction

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2
Q

What is the main first line treatment for minor ocular surface infections like conjunctivitis

A

Fusidic acid

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3
Q

Spectrum of fusidic acid

A

Narrow spectrum, mostly gram +ives

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4
Q

Use of Chloramphenicol

A

Broad spectrum AB used for Prophylaxis for ulcers and ocular surgery, bacterial conjunctivitis
(good for ulcers)

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5
Q

What 2 topical antibiotics are good treatments for melting/infected ulcers

A

Onfloxacin and ciprofloxacin

Gentamicin

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6
Q

Topical and systemic antibiotics for Feline chlaamydia conjunctivitis

A

Topical: Chlortetracycline (Ophtocycline)
Systemic: Doxycycline (Also mycoplasma)

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7
Q

What ocular condition can the systemic antibiotic Clindamycin treat

A

Toxoplasma gondii-induced uveitis in cats and dogs (treats bacteria and Protozoa)

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8
Q

What is the first line treatment for KCS and Pannus

A

Ciclosporin

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9
Q

What other drug is given to treat melting ulcers (with antibiotics)

A

Anti-collagenases;
Serum or stromease (new)

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10
Q

Drug of choice for acute primary glaucoma

A

Prostaglandin analogues (Latanoprost/travoprost)

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11
Q

3 mydriatics and their uses

A

Phenylephrine = diagnose horners
Tropicamide = diagnostic purposes
Atropine = treats anterior uveitis (long duration) (also in corneal ulcers when reflex AU can occur)

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12
Q

When should steroids never be used

A

Corneal ulcer cases

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13
Q

Is primary infectious conjunctivitis common in cats and dogs?

A

Cats = common
dogs = rare

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14
Q

Triad of pain signs

A

Blepharospasm
Photophobia
Increased lacrimation

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15
Q

When can follicular hyperplasia occur

A

Chronic conjunctivitis

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16
Q

common treatment for conjunctivitis

A

Fusidic acid
or Chloramphenicol

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17
Q

4 adnexal diseases that can lead to conjunctivitis

A

entropion
ectropion
eyelid mass
cilia disorders

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18
Q

Common cause of KCS

A

Immune-mediated destruction of lacrimal + nictitans gland in young to middle aged dogs

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19
Q

Signs of KCS

A

Bilateral (except neurogenic)
- Recurrent conjunctivitis
- Tacky, mucoid discharge
- Reduced vision

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20
Q

dx of KCS

A

Schirmer tear test

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21
Q

2 infectious causes of conjunctivitis in cats

A

Chlamydophila felis and FHV

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22
Q

signs of Chlamydophila felis

A
  • Unilateral conjunctivitis (bilateral after couple days
  • chemosis
  • no corneal signs
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23
Q

signs of FHV (Kittens V adults)

A

Kittens: Bilateral conjunctivitis, URT signs, +/- corneal ulceration

Adults: Unilateral discharge, mild conjunctivitis, hx of URT signs, other ocular sings (inc cornea)

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24
Q

Antibiotic of choice for feline chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

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25
Q

Diagnostic test for corneal ulcers

A

Fluorescein stain
may also see reduced palpebral and corneal reflex

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26
Q

Difference in appearance of the corneal ulcer types

A

Superficial: Sharp borders
Stromal: Visible crater. Floors and walls stained
Descementocoele: Black base of ulcer with green walls
Perforated: rank
Melting; Gelatinous discharge, melting edges, grim

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27
Q

3 drugs to treat a corneal ulcer

A
  • Prevent secondary infection with chloramphenicol drops
  • Analgesia (NSAIDs)
  • Treat reflex uveitis (one drop of atropine)

Recheck in 3/5 days

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28
Q

signs of corneal ulcers

A

triad of pain
conjunctival hyperaemia
discharge
reflex uveitis !!

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29
Q

what are SCCEDs

A
  • Spontaneous chronic corneal epithelial defect
  • Seen in Boxers lots
  • Superficial ulcer of middle-aged dogs
  • Epithelial loss ONLY
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30
Q

Appearance of SCCEDS with Fluorescein dye

A

see lip of epithelium that can’t adhere to storm
indistinct, irregular border

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31
Q

Treatment of SCCEDs

A

Need to disrupt basement membrane
Debridement +/- keratotomy (needle) or keratectomy (diamond burr)

NB keratotomy Contra-indicated in all other types of ulcers!

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32
Q

How to distinguish cataracts from nuclear sclerosis (normal ageing)

A

Distant direct
Tapetal reflex = not a cataract

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33
Q

Signs of anterior uveitis

A

Pain
Miosis
Dull eyes
Reduced IOP
Corneal oedema (Blue eye)

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34
Q

Tx of anterior uveitis

A

Usually secondary to something (immune-mediated, infectious, metabolic, neoplastic)
Treat underlying cause
- Anti-inflammatories
- Topical atropine

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35
Q

What is gPRA

A

Generalised progressive retinal atrophy (gPRA)
Inherited photoreceptor atrophy in pedigree dogs
- Bilateral symmetrical degeneration
- Gradual vision loss (night first)
- Secondary cataracts

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36
Q

what is Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration (SARDs)

A

Middle-aged to older
- Acute vision loss (few days – weeks)

37
Q

Signs of gPRA on distant direct

A

Thin retina = tapetum is more reflective
pale optic dsic

38
Q

Signs of SARDs

A

Dilated pupils (mydriasis) and absent PLs
Fundus can be normal in early stages

39
Q

Signs of Horner’s syndrome

A

Damage to SNS
Miosis, third eyelid protrusion, ptosis, enophthalmos

40
Q

What nerve is effected if there is an absent palpebral and corneal reflex

A

Trigeminal
supplies sensation

41
Q

What nerve is effected if there is anisicoria

A

Damage to the ocular motor nerve

42
Q

what is Chronic superficial keratitis (CSK) aka pannus

A

Cellular infiltrate into cornea
See vascularisation
Non painful

43
Q

What is feline Eosinophilic keratitis

A

“Cottage cheese deposits”: white to pale pink elevated spots on cornea – may coalesce into a raised plaque
Links to FHV-1

44
Q

What is feline Corneal sequestrum

A
  • Varies from amber corneal discolouration to dark brown plaque
  • Usually unilateral
  • Cause unknown

Maybe predisposed by chronic irritation (brachys, entropion, grid keratotomy)

45
Q

Distinctive sign of a retrobulbar abscess

A

Pain on opening the mouth

46
Q

Diagnostic test for acute glaucoma

A

Tonometry
Will detect a high IOP

47
Q

signs of acute glaucoma

A

very painful
vision loss (No PLR or dazzle)
Fixed, dilated pupil
can be secondary to anterior lens luxation

48
Q

Signs of anterior lens luxation

A

very painful
secondary glaucoma
Corneal oedema (blue (take photo with flash if cloudy to see)

49
Q

Breeds predisposed to anterior lens luxation and glaucoma
And management

A

Terrier’s for both
Also purebred heredity for glaucoma

Both conditions are bilateral so if one eye effected => other will be in future

50
Q

What are the pupils doing in anterior uveitis V anterior lens luxation

A

AV: Miosis
ALL: Mydriasis

51
Q

When to do Schirmer tear tes

A

ALWAYS first (even before you shine light in)

52
Q

what indicates eye Swabs or scrapes -

A

Conjunctival = cats with Chlamydia or FHV
Corneal = suspected melting ulcers, neoplasia)

53
Q

Distinctive sign of an FCE

A

Painless
Asymmetrical paresis/monoparesis

54
Q

First sign of IVDD

A

Spinal Pain
Acute paresis of limbs

55
Q

What neuro-like signs can neospora cause

A

Infectious myotis
Progressive stiffness and rigid hindlimbs that can’t be flexed

56
Q

Signs of a neurological FIP infection

A

Rapidly progressive non-ambulatory paresis (mostly para-paresis)
incoordination (most intense in posterior)

57
Q

Signalment for Spinal luxation (atlanto-axial subluxation)

A

young toy breeds

58
Q

Signs of Spinal luxation (atlanto-axial subluxation)

A
  • Sudden onset of cervical pain and non-ambulatory paresis
  • Reluctance to move neck
  • All limbs voluntary movement and reflexes
59
Q

Signalment for Steroid responsive meningitis arteritis

A

Young dogs with severe neck pain!!! top ddx
Beagles

60
Q

Signs and signalment of myelitis of unknown aetiology (MUO)

A

Signs: Various neurological signs +/- pain, neck pain, pyrexia

Small breed dogs of any age

61
Q

Signs of Discospondylitis

A

pain
pyrexia
systemic illness

62
Q

dx and tx of Discospondylitis

A

May see destruction on radiographs
Treat with broad-spectrum antibiotics like AM-C

63
Q

Is cervical spondylopathy compressive or concussive?

A
  • Compressive lesion (discs, joints, bone, soft tissue)
  • Large breeds
64
Q

what clostridial diseases can show neurological signs

A
  • Botulism = flaccid weakness
  • Tetanus = rigid paralysis
65
Q

Presenting signs of syringomyelia

A

A CKCS in pain (not off legs)

66
Q

Lesion localisation for seizures only

A

Forebrain

67
Q

What aetiology are multi-focal cases of seizures typically (seizures + vestibular signs for example)

A

Inflammatory or neoplastic

68
Q

How to narrow down the three categories of seizure differentials

A

Functional (idiopathic) = elimination
Structural (neoplasia, MUO, truma, vascular) = Advanced imaging
Metabolic = bloods

69
Q

age of onset of idiopathic epilepsy

A

6 months to 1 year

70
Q

signs of idiopathic epilepsy

A
  • Seizures
  • Sudden onset
  • Normal between episodes
  • No neurological abnormalities
  • Often seizure when resting/sleeping
71
Q

What drugs are licensed for the treatment of idiopathic epilepsy

A

Phenobarbitone and Imepitoin

72
Q

Difference in clinical signs between IE and MUO/SRMA

A

Dullness and ataxia between seizures (IE normal)
Other neuro signs (not in IE)

73
Q

Why should you be cautious when doing the diagnostic test for MUO/SRMA when they have had seizures

A

Need to CSF sample
Dullness often due to increased intracranial pressure
=> could herniate

74
Q

What can be measured in blood if you lose control of seizures

A

Phenobarbitone levels

75
Q

What protozoa can cause seizures? Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Toxoplasmosis and Neospora
Dx: PCR on CSF
Tx: Clindamycin (+/- TMPS) with pyrimethamine

76
Q

What 3 metabolic disease can cause seizures?

A
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Hypoglycaemia
77
Q

Signs of seizures due to toxicity

A

Rapid onset
Cluster seizures often

78
Q

What is Paroxysmal dyskinesia

A
  • Abnormal movement
  • Seizure-like activity not from cerebral cortex but basal ganglia
79
Q

Status epileptic protocol

A

Rectal diazepam
IV diazepam ==> IV phenobarbital ==> IV propofol (at anti-convulsant dose not anaesthetic dose)

80
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy home treatment protocol

A

Phenobarbitone or Imepitoin
If not working try other drug
If still not working can add K+ Bromide, or Levetiracetam

81
Q

How to distinguish peripheral vestibular disease from central

A

Peripheral = Horizontal nystagmus, head tilt, ataxia, circling ONLY
(may have some facial paralysis if middle ear)

Central = other neurological signs (like abnormal mentation, vertical nystagmus, cerebellar signs)

82
Q

How to further investigate central vestibular disease

A

Brain trauma, haemmorage, neoplasia, inflammatory (MUO)
So CSF and advanced imaging

83
Q

common causes of peripheral vestibular disease

A

otitis media/interna
middle ear tumour
polyps

84
Q

How to reach idiopathic vestibular disease dx

A

Peripheral investigation normal + no neurological signs + non progressive = IE

85
Q

What nerve would be involved in unilateral facial asymmetry from (Temporal and masseter atrophy)

A

Trigeminal

86
Q

Signs of Trigeminal neuropathy/neuritis

A

Idiopathic inflammation so bilateral
dropped jaw
sudden onset of dysfunction
normal muscles

87
Q

Signs of a trigeminal nerve sheath tumour

A

Unilateral and progressive muscle atrophy

88
Q

Signs of masticatory myositis

A

Dog can’t open jaw
Very painful

89
Q

Signs of Brucellosis

A

Reluctance to sit and climb stairs
normal proprioception