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PEAT/NPTE > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What gives taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

facial n (CN 7)

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2
Q

What gives taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue

A

Glossopharyngeal n (CN 9)

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3
Q

If Oculomotor n (CN 3) is down then what will occur

A
  • inability to elevate eye
  • inability to depress eye
  • inability to adduct eye
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4
Q

If Trochlear n (CN 4) is down then what will occur

A

inability to depress and adduct the eye

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5
Q

What muscle does the trochlear n (CN 4) innervate

A

superior oblique

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6
Q

What will occur if the Trigeminal n (CN 5) is down

A
  • loss of facial sensation
  • loss of jaw reflex
  • jaw deviation toward side of lesion
  • loss of corneal reflex
  • loss of masseter and temporalis contraction with active jaw closing
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7
Q

What will occur if the Abducens n (CN 6) is down

A

adduction of the eye (due to loss of ability to abduct the eye)

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8
Q

What will occur if the Facial N (CN 7) is down

A
  • loss of taste to ant 2/3 of tongue

- loss of facial expressions

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9
Q

Gag reflex will be impacted by what nerve being down

A

Glosspharyngeal (CN 9) or Vagus n (CN 10)

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10
Q

Uvular deviation AWAY from lesion will be seen by what CN being down

A

CN 10: Vagus N

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11
Q

Inability to protrude tongue and lateral deviation of tongue TOWARDS the lesion will be seen with what CN being down

A

CN 12: Hypoglossal

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12
Q

Which two cranial nerves will have CL deviation (away from side of lesion) when down

A
  • Facial (CN 7)

- Vagus (CN 10)

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13
Q

Which two cranial nerves will have IL deviation (towards side of lesion) when down

A
  • Trigeminal (CN 5)

- Hypoglossal (CN 12)

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14
Q

Lack of awareness of the body structure or relationship of body parts

A

Somatoagnosia

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15
Q

Severe condition lack of awareness of one’s paralyssi

A

Anosagnosia

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16
Q

Cannot recognize objects presented

A

Visual agnosia

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17
Q

No idea of how to perform an action (no concept of what to do)

A

Ideational apraxia

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18
Q

Can only perform a task automatically and cannot perform it on demand

A

Ideomotor apraxia

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19
Q

Clinical findings with Spinal Accessory nerve (CN 11) injury

A
  • Decr cervical lordosis
  • Downwardly rotated scap
  • Lateral winging of scapula
  • Neck, shoulder, medial scapular pain
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20
Q

What innervates the supraspinatus, infrapsinatus

A

Suprascapular N (C5-C6)

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21
Q

What nerve levels are impacted with Erb’s palsy

A

C5-C6

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22
Q

What will be seen with suprascapular nerve injury

A
  • Dull ache in lateral shoulder
  • Atrophy/weakness with supraspinatus and infraspinatus
  • Incr scapular elevation with arm elevation
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23
Q

What does the Musculocuteaneous nerve (C5-C6) innervate

A

Coracobrachialis, Brachialis, and Biceps brachii

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24
Q

What provides sensory input to lateral forearm

A

Musculocutaneous n (C5-C6)

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25
Q

What will be seen with injury to Musculocutaneous n (C5-C6)

A
  • Lateral arm sensory changes
  • Weakness/atrophy with elbow flexors
  • Diminished biceps reflex
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26
Q

What does tha axillary n (C5-C6) innervate

A
  • Teres Minor

- Deltoid

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27
Q

What will be seen with axillary n injury

A
  • Axillary pain
  • Deltoid area paresthesia
  • Atrophy of deltoid and teres minor
  • Elevation weakness
  • Abd weakness
  • ER weakness
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28
Q

What innervates serratus

A

Long thoracic n (C5-C7)

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29
Q

What would cause medial winging of scapula nerve wise

A

Injury to the long thoracic n

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30
Q

Crutch use would cause issues with what nerve

A

Radial N (C6-T1)

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31
Q

Posterior interosseous nerve innervatees what and is a branch of what nerve

A

supintor

branch of radial n

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32
Q

Thenar wasting (ape hand) is seen with what nerve injury

A

Median n injury (C5-T1)

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33
Q

Inability to do the OK sign is weakness with what nerve

A

Anterior Interosseous n (branch of median)

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34
Q

What muscles and nerve does the OK sign (tip to tip) test

A

FPL and FDP

-Anterior Interosseous n

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35
Q

What nerve is injured if you attempt to make a fist and the first 3 fingers do not flex but the last 2 do flex

A

Median n

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36
Q

What neve is injured if at rest the last 2 fingers are flexed and the others are extended

A

Ulnar n

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37
Q

Froment’s sign tests what

A

Ulnar n

Adductor Pollicis

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38
Q

What innervates the adductor pollicis

A

Ulnar N

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39
Q

Inability to extend the PIP/DIP will be seen with a lesion to what nerve

A

Ulnar N

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40
Q

Hypothenar wasting seen with what nerve injury

A

Ulnar

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41
Q

Loss of key pinch grip is called what and means what muscle and nerve is down

A

Froment’s sign
Loss of Adductor Pollicis
Loss of ulnar n

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42
Q

What neerve levels of affected with Klumpke’s Palsy

A

C7-T1

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43
Q

What is Klumpke’s palsy also known as

A

claw hand

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44
Q

What is impacted in Klumpke’s palsy

A

loss of intrinsics of the hand

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45
Q

What is the differentiating factor between lateral epicondylitis and posterior interosseous nerve lesion

A
  • No sensory for posterior interosseous nerve lesion

- Lateral epicondylitis will have true sensory issues due to pain

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46
Q

What muscle will subsittue in the loss of musculocutaneous nerve

A

brachioradialis

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47
Q

What nerve innervates the supinator

A

radial

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48
Q

Ape hand = issue with what nerve

A

median

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49
Q

Weakness with elbow flex, wrist ext, and diminished brachioradialis reflex

A

C6 myotome

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50
Q

What nerve is the issue when there is weakness with shoulder abd and ER =

A

axillary n

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51
Q

No tip-to-tip piinch of 1st and 2nd fingers

A

anterior interosseous n syndrome

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52
Q

Weakness with elbow ext and diminished tricpes reflex

A

C7 or radial n

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53
Q

If the L4/L5 disk is herniated which nerve root is more likely to be impacted

A

L5

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54
Q

What is a compensation for weak quads

A

Forward trunk lean

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55
Q

What does the Femoral n (L2-L4) innervate

A
  • Illiopsoas
  • Sartorius
  • Pectineus
  • Quads

Sensory: to medial thigh, medial knee, proximal leg

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56
Q

What will be seen with injury to femoral n

A
  • knee buckling
  • knee ext weakness
  • anterior knee pain
  • sensory loss medial aspect of leg
  • forward trunk lean (compensatory for weak quads)
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57
Q

Saphenous n is a branch of what nerve and where does it supply sensation to

A

Femoral n

sensory to medial calf

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58
Q

Sural n is a branch of what nerve and where does it supply sensation to

A

tibial n

sensory to lateral calf

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59
Q

What will be seen if obturator n is injured

A
  • Loss of hip ER

- Loss of hip add

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60
Q

What innervates gluteus medius, glut min, and TFL (deep muscles)

A

Superior glueteal n (L4-S1)

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61
Q

What innervates glut max

A

-Inferior gluteal n (L5-S2)

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62
Q

What will be seen with inferior gluteal n (L5-S2) injury

A

posterior trunk lean at IC

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63
Q

What will be seen with superior gluteal (L4-S1) n injury

A

Trendelenburg

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64
Q

What innervates TA

A

deep peroneal n

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65
Q

What provides sensory input to first webspace of foot

A

deep peroneal n

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66
Q

foot slap will be seen with injury to what nerve

A

deep peroneal

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67
Q

What provides input to fibularis longus, fibularis brevis

A

superficial peroneal n

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68
Q

What provides input to gastroc/soleus, popliteus, tibilais posterior, flexor digitorum longus, and flexor hallucis longus

A

Tibial n (L4-S3)

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69
Q

What provides sensation to dorsum of foot

A

superficial peroneal n

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70
Q

what will be seen with tarsal tunnel syndrome

A

weak foot intrinsics

full active ROM but may have pain with foot pronation

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71
Q

Weak toe flex and lateral foot paresthesia

A

tibial n

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72
Q

What nerve is impacted if someone has weak eversion

A

superficial peroneal n

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73
Q

Weak DF and sensory loss over first webspace of foot

A

deep peroneal n

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74
Q

1+ patellar tendon reflex, weak hip flex, loss of sensation on medial malleolus

A

femoral n

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75
Q

Occurs during first trimester during utero; fibrosis of muscles; caused by poor movements in early development

A

Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congentia (AMC)

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76
Q

What is the cause of Bell’s palsy

A

autoimmune

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77
Q

Is full recovery likely for cauda equina syndrome

A

No

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78
Q

Caused by non-closure of neural tube by 28th day of gestation

A

Spina Bifida

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79
Q

What is TOS caused by

A
  • Enlarged first rib
  • Tight SCM, scalenes
  • Tumor
  • Pregnancy
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80
Q

SCIs above what level can lead to AD

A

T6 or higher can be prone to AD

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81
Q

What will be seen with Brown Sequard lesion

A
  • CL pain and temp loss
  • IL motor loss
  • IL loss of fine touch/proprioception
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82
Q

What will be seen with central cord syndrome

A

UE more affected than LE

Distal more affected than proximal

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83
Q

MOI for central cord injury

A

forced hyperextension

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84
Q

MOI for anterior cord injury

A

flexion or vascular

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85
Q

What will be seen with anterior cord syndrome

A

BL loss of motor

BL loss of pain and temp

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86
Q

What type of bladder seen with a lesion to S2-S4 above conus medullaris (L1)

A

spastic/hyperreflexive

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87
Q

What type of bladder seen with a lesion to S2-S4 below the conus medullaris (L1)

A

flaccid/areflexive bladder

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88
Q

_____ or less on Glasgow coma scale = coma

A

8 or less

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89
Q

What are the 3 categories on the Glasgow coma scale

A
  1. ) Eye opening response
  2. ) Best verbal response
  3. ) Best motor response
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90
Q

UE Flexion Synergy pattern

A
  • Scapular Retraction and elevation
  • Shoulder abduction
  • Shoulder ER
  • Forearm supination
  • Wrist flexion
  • Finger flexion
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91
Q

UE Extension synergy pattern

A
  • Scapular protraction
  • Shoulder adduction
  • Shoulder IR
  • Elbow Ext
  • Forearm pronation
  • Wrist flexion
  • Finger flexion
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92
Q

LE Flexion synergy pattern

A
  • Hip flexion
  • Hip ER
  • Knee flexion
  • Ankle DF
  • Ankle Inv
  • Toe DF
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93
Q

LE Extension synergy pattern

A
  • Hip extension
  • Hip adduction
  • Hip IR
  • Knee ext
  • Ankle PF
  • Ankle Inv
  • Toe PF
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94
Q

When would be best for someone with MS to have PT

A

mornings…..due to fatigue in afternoons

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95
Q

What position will someone’s UE be in if they have Erb’s palsy (C5-C6 brachial plexus injury)

A

“Waiter’s tip”

  • Scapular depression
  • Shoulder ADD
  • Shoulder IR
  • Elbow extension
  • Forearm pronation
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96
Q

Supplies the entire medial of the medulla, including the anterior part of the spinal cord

A

Anterior spinal artery

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97
Q

supplies the cerebellum

A

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

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98
Q

Reflex grade:

No response

A

0

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99
Q

Reflex grade:

Diminished response; may or may not be abnormal

A

1+

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100
Q

Reflex grade:

Normal

A

2+

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101
Q

Reflex grade:

Brisk/exagerrated; may or may not be normal

A

3+

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102
Q

Reflex grade:

hyperactivie; always abnormal

A

4+

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103
Q

What level does biceps tendon reflex test

A

C5-C6

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104
Q

What level does brachioradialis tendon reflex test

A

C5-C6

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105
Q

What level does Triceps tendon reflext test

A

C6-C7

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106
Q

What level does patellar tendon reflex test

A

L3-L4

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107
Q

What level does Achilles tendon reflex test

A

S1-S2

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108
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C1

A

Top of skull, N/a

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109
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C2

A

Forehead, N/a

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110
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C3

A

Neck, breathing

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111
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C4

A

Shoulder, shoulder shrug

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112
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C5

A

Radial styloid process, Deltoid

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113
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C6

A

Tip of thumb, Biceps or wrist ext

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114
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C7

A

Tip of middle finger, Triceps or wrist flex

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115
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

C8

A

Tip of pinky, thumb ext

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116
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

T1

A

Medial forearm, interossei

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117
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

T2

A

Subclavicle/armpit area, n/a

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118
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

T4

A

Nipple line

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119
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

T10

A

Belly button, n/a

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120
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

T12

A

ASIS

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121
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

L1

A

Upper groin, n/a

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122
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

L2

A

Anterior thigh, illiopsoas (h flex)

123
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

L3

A

Knees/medial thigh, quad (knee ext

124
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

L4

A

Medial lower leg, anterior tibilais

125
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

L5

A

Anterior tibial region, extensor hallucis longus (toe ext)

126
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

S1

A

Lateral foot, gastroc (plantar flex)

127
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

S2

A

Posterior thigh, hamstrings

128
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

S3

A

Buttocks, n/a

129
Q

Dermatome/Myotome:

S4

A

rectum/anal area, bladder/ rectum

130
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:

No response; unresponsive to any stimuli

A

1

131
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Generatlized response; Inconsistent response, non-purposeful, non-specific, few response, and used the same response regardless of stimuli

A

2

132
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Localized response; specific response, but inconsistent responses are directly related to the stimulus, may follow commands

A

3

133
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Confused-agitated; heighted state of activity, behavior is bizzare, non-purposeful, uncoorperative, incoherent, lacks STM/LTM

A

4

134
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Confused-inappropriate; responds to simple commands, unable to learn new info, gross attention but easily distracted, impaired memory

A

5

135
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Confused-appropriate; behavior is goal-directed, but dependent on external input/direction, follows simple commands, responses are appropriate to the siutation, past memories have more depth and detail than recent memory, shows carryover for releared tasks

A

6

136
Q

Are past or more recent memory better remmember from TBI ppl

A

past

137
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Automatic; goes thru daily routine in automatic or robot like manner, able to integreate socail activities, shows carryover for new learning

A

7

138
Q

RLA level of cognitive functioning:
Purposeful; able to recall and integrate past and recent events, is aware of and responsvie to environment, shows carrover for new learning, no supervision necessary once activities are learned

A

8

139
Q

How old?

Decreased flexion, momentary head elevation with minimal forearm support, tracks a
moving object, head usually to one side, reciprocal and symmetrical kicking, positive support and
primary walking reflexes in supported standing, neonatal reaching, alter, brightening expression.

A

1 mo

140
Q

How old?

Head elevation to 45° in prone, in prone on elbows with elbows behind shoulders, head
bobs in supported sitting, responses to friendly handling

A

2 mo

141
Q

How old?

Prone on elbows, weight bearing on forearms, elbows in line with shoulders, head
elevated to 9o°, coos and chuckles, optical and labyrinthine head-righting present.

A

3 mo

142
Q

How old?

Rolls prone to side, supine to side, sits with support, no head lag in pull to sit, ulnarpalmar grasp, laughs out loud

A

4 mo

143
Q

How old?

Rolls from prone to supine, weight shifts from one forearm to the other in prone, head
control in supported sitting

A

5 mo

144
Q

How old?

Prone on hands, with elbows extended, weight shifts from hand to hand, rolls supine to
prone, independent sitting, pulls to stand, bouncing.

A

6 mo

145
Q

How old?

Can maintain quadruped, pivots on belly, moves body in circle while prone, trunk
rotation in sitting, recognizes tone of voices, may show fear of strangers.

A

7 mo

146
Q

How old?

Belly crawls, quadruped creeping, side-sitting, pulls to stand through kneeling,
cruises sideways, can stand alone, radial palmar, can transfer objects from one hand to the other

A

8-9 mo

147
Q

How old?

Begins to walk unassisted, begins self-feeding, neat pincer grasp, can release,
searches for hidden toys, suspicious of strangers, plays patty cake and peekaboo, imitates

A

10-15 mo

148
Q

How old?

Ascends stairs step to pattern, running more coordinated, jumps off bottom step,
plays make believe

A

20 mo

149
Q

How old?

Runs well, can go upstairs foot over foot, active, restless, tantrums.

A

2 years

150
Q

How old?

Rides tricycle, stands on one foot briefly, jumps with 2 feet, understands sharing

A

3 years

151
Q

How old?

Hops on 1 foot several times, stands on tiptoes, throws ball overhand, relates to friends

A

4 years

152
Q

How old?

Skips, kicks ball well, dresses self

A

5 years

153
Q

What cranial nerves are down if the Corneal reflex is impaired

A

CN 5 and CN 7

154
Q

What cranial nerves are down if the Gag reflex is impaired

A

CN 9 and CN 10

155
Q

practicing a single motor task over and over

A

Blocked practice

156
Q

practice of varied motor skills in which the performer is required to make rapid
modifications of the skill in order to match the demands of the task

A

variable practice

157
Q

practice of a group or class of motor skills in random order

A

random practice

158
Q

What to do in cognitive stage of learning

A

Feedback after every trial, knowledge of
performance and results, practice in stresscontrolled environment, distributed practice or
blocked practice

159
Q

What to do in the associated stage of learning

A

provide variable feedback
and after errors, assist self-evaluation, encourage
consistency, variable practice, progress towards
changing environment

160
Q

What to do in the autonomous stage of learning

A

Decision making skills apparent, occasional
feedback when errors present, massed practice,
vary environment

161
Q

relatively continuous practice in which the amount of rest time is small (rest time
less than practice time

A

massed practice

162
Q

Practice in which the rest time is relatively large

A

Distributed practice

163
Q

What nerve root innervates deltoid

A

C5

164
Q

What nerve root innervates trapezius and leavtor scapulae

A

C4

165
Q

What nerve root innervates biceps

A

C6

166
Q

What nerve root innervates the tricpes

A

C7

167
Q

What nerve root innervates the thumb extensors

A

C8

168
Q

What nerve root innervates the intrinsics of the hand

A

T1

169
Q

Total cut of the axon. Surgical intervention will be needed to get recovery

A

Neutotmesis

170
Q

Tranient block caused by stretch or pressure. No wallerian degenration

A

Neuopraxia

171
Q

Nerve preserved, but axons damaged. Wallerian degneration

A

Axontmesis

172
Q

What innervates the SCM

A

CN 11

173
Q

What nerve roots does the suprascapular nerve come from

A

C5-C6

174
Q

What innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus

A

Suprascapular n (C5-C6

175
Q

What will be seen with a suprascapular n (C5-C6) injury

A

Dull ache lateral shoulder
Atrophy/weakness supraspinatus & infraspinatus
Increased scapula elevation during arm elevation

176
Q

What nerve roots does the musculocutaneous nerve come from

A

C5-C6

177
Q

What innervates the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and the brachialis

A

Musculocutaneous n (C5-C6)

178
Q

What will be seen with a musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C6) injury

A

Lateral arm sensory changes
Weakness/atrophy biceps, brachialis, coracobrachialis
Diminished biceps reflex

179
Q

What provides sensation to the lateral arm

A

Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C6)

180
Q

What nerve roots does the axillary nerve come from

A

C5-C6

181
Q

What innervates the teres minor and deltoid

A

Axillary n (C5-C6)

182
Q

What will be seen with an axillary nerve (C5-C6) injury

A

Axillary pain
Deltoid area paresthesia
Atrophy deltoid & teres minor
Elevation weakness

183
Q

What nerve roots does the long thoracic nerve come from

A

C5-C7

184
Q

What innervates serratus anterior

A

Long thoracic nerve (C5-C7)

185
Q

What will be seen with a long thoracic nerve injury (C5-C7)

A

Weak scapular protraction
Weak upward rotation of scapula
Winging of medial scapula

186
Q

Where does the axillary nerve (C5-C6) provide sensory innervation

A

Proximal lateral arm

187
Q

What will be seen with a radial nerve (C6-T1) injury

A 
Triceps weakness
Extensors of forearm weakness
Webspace sensory loss, dorsal hand/forearm
sensory loss
Crutch Use (radial groove of humerus)
Midshaft humeral fracture
188
Q

Where does the Radial nerve (C6-T1) provide sensory innervation

A

Dorsal arm, dorsal forearm, dorsal hand, 1st interosseous space (webspace) thumb.

189
Q

What provides innervation to pronoter teres

A

Median nerve (C5-T1)

190
Q

What two muscles are used to make the OK sign

A

Flexor pollicis longus

Flexor digitorum profundus

191
Q

What nerve is the issue if you are attempting to make a fist and the first three digits do not flex

A

Median nerve (C5-T1)

192
Q

What will be seen with an ulnar n (C8-T1) injuryrve

A 
Ulnar claw
Inability to extend PIP & DIP (lumbricals)
Inability to abduct fingers (interossei)
Inability to adduct thumb (AP)
Weakness with ulnar deviation (FCU)
Hypothenar wasting
Loss of sensation of 4-5th fingers
193
Q

What nerve innervates the adductor pollicis

A

Ulnar N (C8-T1)

194
Q

What will be seen if the last 2 finger and flexed at the PIP/DIP (due to loss of the 3rd and 4th lumbricals)

also hyperextneded at MCP

A

Ulnar nerve issue (ulnar claw)

195
Q

Pronator teres entrapment is also known as what

A

anterior interosseous syndrome

196
Q

What nerve injury is likely to present with incorrect use of the axillary bar on crutches

A

Radial nerve (C5-T1)

197
Q

Saphenous nerve (sensory n) is a branch of what nerve

A

Femoral n

198
Q

A forward trunk lean is a comepnsation for what

A

weak quads

199
Q

Femoral n comes from what nerve root levels

A

L2-L4

200
Q

Where does saphenous n provide sensation to

A

Medial leg

201
Q

Where does the sural n provide sensation to

A

Lateral leg

202
Q

What innervates the Iliopsoas, sartorius, pectineus, and quads

A

Femoral n (L2-L4)

203
Q

What will be seen with a femoral n (L2-L4) injury

A 
Knee buckling
Knee extension weakness
Anterior knee pain
Sensory loss medial aspect of leg below knee
Forward trunk lean during
204
Q

What nerve root does the Obturator n come from

A

L2-L4

205
Q

What will be seen with an obturator nerve injury

A

Loss of ER and adduction at the hip

206
Q

What does the Obturator n (L2-L4) innervate

A

Addcutor longus
Gracilis
Adductor Magnus
Obturator externus

207
Q

What nerve innervates the Glutues medius, gluteus minimus, and TFL

A

Superior gluteal n (L4-S1)

208
Q

What nerve inneravtes the Glutues max

A

Inferior gluteal n (L5-S2)

209
Q

What innervates the 1st webspace of foot

A

Deep peroneal n

210
Q

What innervates Tibialis anterior, Extensor digitorum longus, Extensor hallucis longus

A

Deep peroneal n

211
Q

What innervates Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis

A

Superficial peroneal n

212
Q

What provides senation to lower leg and dorsum of foot

A

Superficial peroneal n

213
Q

Foot slap will be seen with injury to what nerve

A

Deep peroneal

214
Q

How long should rooting and sucking reflexes be present

A

Birth to 3 months

215
Q

What is the Moro Reflex

A

Baby’s head is dropped suddenly backwards from a sititng position:

Response: Child abducts and extend
arms, then quickly adducts
arms and flexes

216
Q

How long should the Moro Reflex be present

A

Birth to 6 months

217
Q

What is traction response

A

when you take the wrist of baby and lift them into sitting from supine

baby should flex elbow and elevate shoulders

218
Q

What is flexor withdrawal?

A

Pinprick or pinch sole of foot

Baby should withdrawl the leg

219
Q

How long is palmar grasp present

A

4 months

220
Q

What is palmar grasp

A

Place index finger into infant’s hand from the ulnar side

Infant should flex around examiner’s fingers

221
Q

How long is plantar grasp present

A

8 months

222
Q

What is plantar grasp

A

Examiner places pressure on plantar aspect of foot just below toes

Baby should flex toes

223
Q

What is crossed extension

A

When one side is pinched the opposite leg extenends to compensate for the flexion of the leg that was pricked

224
Q

How long is crossed extension present

A

4 mo

225
Q

What is the Galant response

A

Stroking the paravertebrals from thoracic to lumbar region causes child to laterally flex trunk towards stimulus

226
Q

How long is spontaneous stepping present

A

2 mo

227
Q

What is Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (ATNR)

A

When head is turned to one side……child extends arm on the looking side and flexes arm on the back of the head side

“fencing” position

228
Q

How long is ATNR present

A

4 mo

229
Q

What is the Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex (STNR)

A

Passively flex and then extend infant’s head over your thigh while they are iin prone

  1. Infant’s head flexes: arm flex and legs extend
  2. Infant’s head extends: arm extend and legs flex
230
Q

How long is STNR present

A

6 mo

231
Q

What is labyrinthine head righting

A

Infant blind folded and their head is moved around in various directions

Baby’s head orients to vertical

232
Q

What is Landau

A

Holding baby in the air
Should see baby extend the head, then trunk, then hip

“superman”

233
Q

When does protective extension begin for a child

A 
5 mo (forward)
7 mo (sideways)
9 mo (backwards)
234
Q

1 cause of Autonomic dysreflexia

A

Catheter compression

235
Q

Will full or part of the face be paralyzed with Bell’s palsy

A

full face

236
Q

Is motor affected with Bell’s palsy

A

Yes

237
Q

Are the lower or upper facial muscles more impacted by stroke palsy

A

lower facial muscles more affected by stroke

238
Q

What is the cause of Bell’s palsy

A

Virus

239
Q 
Weakness/paralysis 
of the mms 
innervated by the 
motor nuclei of the 
lower brainstem, 
affecting the muscles 
of the face, tongue, 
larynx, and pharynx
A

Bulbar palsy

240
Q

MOI for central cord syndrome

A

compression due to hyperexension of C-spine

241
Q

What body structures are impacted with Huntington’s dz

A

Atrophy of basal ganglia and cerebral cortex

242
Q

Will facial pain be seen with Bell’s palsy or Trigeminal Neuralgia or both

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

243
Q

Is the jaw and corneal reflexes are absent then what is the issue

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

244
Q

What muscle will be weak with Bell’s palsy

A

Frontalis

245
Q

What muscles will be weak with Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Temporalis and Masseter

246
Q

What makes Trigeminal Neuralgia worse

A

Cold

247
Q

What makes Bell’s Palsy worse

A

use of muscles

248
Q

Loss of motor function & pain / temperature below level of the lesion,
caused by hyperflexion injuries or ischemic damage

A

Anterior cord syndrome

249
Q

Multiple contractures, joint dislocation, muscle atrophy, cylinder-shaped
limbs with no definition/tone

A

Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congentia

250
Q

Sweating, dilated pupils, bradycardia, hypertension, blurred vision, high
blood pressure

A

Autonomic Dyreflexia

251
Q

Asymmetrical drooping of eyelid & mouth, drooling, dry eyes, can’t close
eyelid due to weakness

A

Bell’s palsy

252
Q

Loss of ipsilateral vibratory/position sense & contralateral pain/temp

A

Brown Sequard Lesion

253
Q

Dysphagia, nasal regurgitations, slurred speech, choking, dysphonia,
dysarthria, dysphasia

A

Bulbar Palsy

254
Q

Area of brain affected by a lesion to the Anterior Cerebral Artery

A

Anterior frontal lobe,
Medial surface of frontal lobe
Medial surface of parietal lobe

255
Q

Features of an Anterior Cerebral Artery stroke

A

Contralateral loss of LE motor and sensory, loss
of bowel and bladder, aphasia, apraxia,
agraphia, akinetic mutism

256
Q

Will UE or LE be affected more by an ACA stroke

A

LE

257
Q

Will UE or LE be affected more by an MCA stroke

A

UE

258
Q

Area of brain affected by MCA

A

Cerebrum and Basal Ganglia

259
Q

Features of MCA stroke

A

Upper extremity more affected, contralateral
weakness and sensory loss of face, Wernicke’s
aphasia, apraxia, anosognosia, homonymous
hemianopsia

260
Q

Area of brain affected by PCA

A

Occpital lobe
Midbrain
Thalamus

261
Q

Features of PCA stroke

A

Contralateral hemiplegia, contralateral loss of

pain and temperature, prosopagnosia

262
Q

Features of Vertebral Basilar Artery stroke

A

Hemi-tetraplegia, dysphagia, dysarthria,
ataxia, loss of consciousness, Locked-In
syndrome

263
Q

What areas of the brain does the Vertebral Basilar artery supply

A

Cerebellum, Medulla, Pons

264
Q

Which side of the brain did the CVA occur on?

Speech, language impairments
Slow, cautious behavior
Difficulty expressing positive emotions
Difficulty with verbal cues/ commands
Difficulty planning a movement (apraxia)
A

Left

265
Q

Which side of the brain did the CVA occur on:

Visual perceptual impairments 
Quick, impulsive behavior
Poor judgment, can’t self-correct
Difficulty with perception of emotions (mostly 
negative emotions)
Difficulty with visual cues (non-verbal 
communication)
Difficulty sustaining a movement
A

Right side

266
Q

What drugs can Levodopa interact with

A

Drugs to treat depression

267
Q

What type or orthotic is commonly used for Spina Bifida

A

RGO

268
Q

Which canal is involved:

Torsional upbeating nystagmus in left ear down position

A

Left posterior canal BPPV

269
Q

Which canal is involved:

Torsional upbeating nystagumus in the right ear down position

A

Right posterior canal BPPV

270
Q

Upbeating torsional nystagmus =

A

posterior canal

271
Q

Downbeating torsionnal nystagmus =

A

anterior canal

272
Q

Right anterior canal is paried with ____posterior on the dix hallpike

A

left

273
Q

Left anterior canal is paired with the _____posterior canal on the dix hallpike

A

right

274
Q

Left dix hallpike will detect a _____posterior canal and a ______ anterior canal issue

A

Left posterior canal

Right anterior canal

275
Q

Right dix hallpike will detect a ____posterior canal and ____anterior canal issue

A

right posterior

left anterior

276
Q

Expose patient to non-painful stimuli
repeatedly to allow patient to adapt
to that stimuli so that it no longer
causes impairment

A

Habituation

277
Q

What is the goal of habituation

A

Decr sensitive to noxious stimuli

278
Q

Visual cues are needed if patient has a stroke on what side

A

Left

279
Q

Verbal cues are needed if patient has a stroke on what side

A

right

280
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

No spasticity , no synergy

A

1

281
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Begnning spasticity, weak associated synergy movements

A

2

282
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Peak spasticity

A

3

283
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Mass synergy movements

A

3

284
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Decreasing spasticity; begin out of synergy movements

A

4

285
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Decreasing spasticity; pretty much completely out of synergies

A

5

286
Q

Brunnstrom stage:
Minimal spasticity except during rapid movements; free of synergy but may have awkward isolated movements with coordination

A

6

287
Q

Brunnstrom stage:

Normal spastiicty and no synergy

A

7

288
Q

What to use for strengthening muscles less than 1/5 MMT

A

HRAM

289
Q

What is used to initiate mobility

A

HRAM or RI

290
Q

Isometric contraction on 1 side of joint then the

other side; no rest

A

AI

291
Q

Isometric contraction of all muscles around a joint
(rotational component); relax and move into new
range

A

Rhythmic stabilization

292
Q

Proximal part is restricted until distal part initiates

movement

A

Normal timing (for skill)

Improve coordination

293
Q

Strengthens weak components; isotonic &

isometric; overflow to weak muscles

A

Timing for emphasis

294
Q

Improves control of movement and posture;
resisted concentric contraction of agonist and
antagonists without rest between reversals

A

Slow Reversal

295
Q

Slow reversal with an isometric hold at end of each

movement to gain stability

A

Slow reversal hold

296
Q

Used w/ hypertonia; “let me move you, help me,

resist me” (basically like AAROM)

A

RI

297
Q

Used to decrease hypertonia; passively rotate

extremity to improve ROM

A

Rhythmic rotation

298
Q

RI is often used with what

A

hypertonia

299
Q

stronger parts of the body are used to stimulate and strengthen weaker parts of
the body. (PNF)

A

Kabat Knott Voss

300
Q

introduced use of synergy stimulation to facilitate or inhibit responses, such as icing or
brushing, in order to elicit desired reflex motor response

A

Rood

301
Q

Created and defined the term synergy and encouraged patient to immediately
practice synergy patterns and subsequently develop combinations of movement patters out of
synergy.

A

Brunnstrom

302
Q

Patient learns to control

movement through normal activities that promote normal movement patterns

A

Bobath

303
Q

What is Bobath very heavy on

A

Promoting normal movements (disadvantage is that it does not allow for much reps)

PEAT/NPTE (17 decks)

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