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PEAT/NPTE > Integumentary > Flashcards

Integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

Airplane splint prevents someone from scaring in what position

A

Adduction

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2
Q

What type of burn can lead to Rhabdomyolysis

A

Electrical burns

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3
Q

Burn classification:

Superficial redness hot to tough and no blisters

A

1st degree

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4
Q

Burn classification:
Skin is mostly intact, most of basal layer is intact
-blisters, redness, very painful

A

Superficial partial thickness (2nd degree)

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5
Q

Burn classification:
Yellow/white, some blisters, sensitive to presssure but insensitive to light touch or pin prick
-hypertrophic scarring is likely

A

Deep partial thickness (second degree)

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6
Q

Burn classification:
white/brown/blackish, painless, dry
-hypertrophic scarring is likely

A

3rd degree (full thickness)

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7
Q

Pressure injury staging:

Nonblanchalbe erythema

A

Stage 1

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8
Q

Pressure injury staging:

Partial thickness skin loss

A

Stage 2

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9
Q

Pressure injury staging:

Full thickness to the underlying fascia

A

Stage 3

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10
Q

Pressure injury staging:

Full thickness to bone, tendon or muscle

A

Stage 4

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11
Q

What score on the Braden scale would mean high risk for pressure injury

A

Less than 12

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12
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Punched out, even edges

A

Arterial

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13
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Loss of hair, cyanotic, pale, ashen

A

Arterial

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14
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency: Painful

A

Arterial

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15
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Minimal drainage

A

Arterial

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16
Q 
Arterial or venous insufficiency:
Low ABI (less than 0.8)
A

Arterial

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17
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Rubor of dependency

A

Arterial

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18
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Large, irregular edges

A

Venous

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19
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Shallow depth, inflammed surrounding skin

A

Venous

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20
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Edema

A

Venous

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21
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Hyperpigmented with hemosiderin staining (high sock pattern)

A

Venous

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22
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Minimal pain

A

Venous

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23
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Normal BMI

A

Venous

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24
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Lots of drainage

A

Venous

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25
Q

Is arterial or venous insufficincy easier to debride

A

Venous

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26
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Feels better in depedent position

A

Arterial

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27
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Feels better with elevation

A

Venous

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28
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Compression is good to use

A

Venous

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29
Q

Arterial or venous insufficiency:

Add moisture

A

Arterial

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30
Q

Wagner scale is for what type of wounds

A

Diabetic wounds

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31
Q

Classification on Wagner Scale:

Thick calluses, bone deformity, clawed toes, and prominent metatarsal heads

A

Grade 0 (foot at risk)

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32
Q

Classification on Wagner Scale:

Superficial Ulcer

A

Grade 1 (superficial ulcer)

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33
Q

Classification on Wagner Scale:
Penetrates thru the skin, fat, and ligaments, but does not affect bones
-infected

A

Grade 2 (deep ulcer)

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34
Q

Classification on Wagner Scale:

Necrosis of the complete foot, with systemic effects

A

Grade 5 (extensive gangrene)

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35
Q

Where is the vascular supply of the skin

A

Dermis

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36
Q

How do partial thickness wounds heal

A

Thru epitheliazation (no scarring)

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37
Q

How do full thickness wound heal

A

Granulation (beefy, red, vascularized fibroblasts)….gradually fills in with collagen matrix (scar tissue)

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38
Q

Is transparent film absorptive

A

No

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39
Q

Are hydrofibers absorptive

A

yes

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40
Q

Is hydrogel used in wet or dry wounds

A

dry

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41
Q

Wagner Classification:

Deep ulcer w/ osteomyelitis

A

Grade 3

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42
Q

Wagner Classifciation:

Gangrene of digit

A

Grade 4

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43
Q

Wagner Classification:

Gangrene of foot requiring disarticulation

A

Grade 5

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44
Q

Exudate Classification:

Clear, light color and thin, watery consistnecy.

A

Serous

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45
Q

Exudate Classification:

Red color and thin, watery consistency.

A

Sangineous

46
Q

Exudate Classification:

Light red or pink color, thin and watery

A

Serosanguinous

47
Q

Exudate Classification:

Cloudy or opaque with a yellow or tan color, thin and watery consistency

A

Seropurulent

48
Q

Exudate Classification:

Yellow or green color, thick, viscous consistency. Infection

49
Q

Type of odor:

Sweet odor. Ripe or fruity odor

A

Pseudomonas Infection

50
Q

Type of odor:

Strong pungent odor along with tissue necrosis or separation of skin into paper thin black-purple layers

A

Clostridium

51
Q

Type of odor:

Pungent-swelling known to elicit the gag reflex and can cause vomiting, a rotten smell

A

Putrescine

52
Q

Does elevation incr or decr pain in someone who has arterial insuff

53
Q

Skin infection that is Associated with
inflammation, small
pus-filled vesicles,
itching Contagious

54
Q

What is the tx for impetigo

A

Antibiotics

55
Q 
Skin infection that is poorly defined and 
widespread
Skin is hot, red and 
edematous Can be 
contagious
A

Cellulitis

56
Q

What is the tx for cellulits

A

Antibiotics
Elevation
Cool, wet dressing

57
Q

Cavity containing pus and
surrounded by inflamed
tissue. Result of localized
infection

58
Q

What is the tx for an abcess

59
Q 
Skin infection contagious with 
direct contact, 
itchy, ring shaped 
patches/vesicles/
scales
60
Q

What are symptoms of Athletes’ foot

A

Erythema, inflamed, pruitis, itching, pain in between the toes

61
Q 
Skin condition: 
Erythematous 
plaques covered 
with silvery 
scale. Is 
hereditary
-chronic autoimmune dz of the skin
62
Q

Tx for psoriasis

A

Corticosteroids
Occlusive ointments
Coal Tar
Immunosuppressive drus

63
Q

Skin condition:
Butterfly rash
Chronic progressive autoimmune inflammaotry d/o of connective tissue

64
Q

Raynaud’s is common with what skin conditions

A

Lupus and Scleroderma

65
Q

Tx for Lupus

A

Topical tx of skin lesion

66
Q 
Skin condition: 
Fibrosis of skin, 
joints, blood 
vessels, and 
internal organs
-skin taught, firm, edematous and bound to subq tissue
A

Scleroderma

67
Q 
Skin condition: 
Edema, 
inflammation, and 
degeneration of 
the muscles
A

Polymyositis

68
Q

What areas does polymyositis mainly affect

A

Proximal muscles mostly

69
Q

What is the tx for polymyositis

A

Corticosteroids

70
Q

Can hydrocolloids be used on infected wounds

71
Q

Is hydrogel for wounds with not much drainage

72
Q

Is foam a primary or secondary dressing

73
Q

What is foam commonly used with

74
Q

What types of wounds is alignate dressing used for

A

Partial and full thickness wounds, draining wounds and infected wounds

75
Q

What is silver sulfandiazine used for

A

burn care (second and third degree burns)

76
Q

What does Sulfamylon do

A

Infection control in full thickness ulcer or burns

77
Q

Debrides dead tissue and thins pus from superficial layers, improves recovery time and odor

78
Q

What does Dakin solution treat

A

Treats infected wounds and bacteria (Dakin’s solution is an antispetic)

79
Q

What is Povidone-iodine

A

antifungal that is easily removed with water

Used in burn care

80
Q

What is Gentamicin used to treat

81
Q

What is povidone-iodine used to treat

82
Q

What is panafil used to treat

83
Q

What is santyl

A

Enzymatic debrding oitment

Removes dead skin from wounds and burns

84
Q

Should hydrocolloids be used for no exudate, mild exudate, or a lot of exudate

A

mild exudate

85
Q

Do hydrocolloids and hydrogels provide a moist environment

86
Q

Can foam be used on infected wounds

87
Q

Can transparent film be used for infected wounds

88
Q

Type of debridement that creates a moist environment that rehydrates necrotic tissue and eschar

89
Q

Can enzymatic debridement be used for infected wounds

A

yes; it can be used for infected and non-infected wounds with dead tissue

90
Q

What is an issue with wet to dry debridement

A

Can be painful and cause bleeding to granulation tissue

91
Q

Removal of necrotic tissue via pressurized fluid

-used for infected wounds that have loose debris

A

Irrigation

92
Q

Collagenase Santyl and Panafil is an example of what

A

Enzymatic Debridement

93
Q

Regrenex is an example of what

A

Growth Factor

94
Q

Silvadene, Iodoflex, Nitrofurazone, Bactricin, Neomycin, Polymyxin B, and Sulfamylon are examples of what

A

Antimicrobials

95
Q

What is Wet-to-dry dressing used for

A

Moderate amounts of exudate and necrotic tissue

96
Q

What types of wounds should enzymatic debridement not be used for

A

Ischemic wounds

97
Q

Calcium alginate dressing can promote ________debridement

98
Q

True or false:

Compression garments can improve hypertrophic scarrin

99
Q

Sustained pressure at _____-_____mmHg can improve hypertrophic scarring

A

15-35 mmHg

100
Q

How long should compression garments be worn to prevent hypetrophic scarrin

A

22-23 hrs per day

101
Q

When should you not use Hyperbaric O2

A

When active malignancy is present

102
Q

Most absorptive dressing

A

Hydrofibers

103
Q

Least absorptive dressings

A

Transparent film

Hydrogel

104
Q

Does alginate usually require a secondary dressing

105
Q

Treatment for arterial insufficiency

A
  • Rest
  • Limb protection
  • Risk reduction
  • Avoid leg elevation
106
Q

Treatment for venous insuffciency

A
  • Limb protection
  • Compression for edema
  • Elevate legs
  • AROM exercises
107
Q

Is elevation used for the tx of venous or arterial insuffciency

108
Q

Where are venous ulcers found most often

A

Medial malleolus

109
Q

Types of ulcers found near the medial malleolus most often

110
Q

Where are arterial ulcers found most often

A

Lower third of leg, toes, web spaces, distal toes, dorsal foot, lateral malleolus

111
Q

Electrical burns are often what types of burns

A

4th degree (subdermal)

PEAT/NPTE (17 decks)

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