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MyCC > Net+ Session 4 Post-lab follow-up > Flashcards

Net+ Session 4 Post-lab follow-up Flashcards

1
Q

Which is NOT true about a load balancer?
A - Load balancing can work over multiple NICs
B - Load balancers control traffic over multiple routers
C - Load balancers distribute requests across servers in a server farm
D - If a server that is part of a load balance is removed from the group, the load balancer fails

A

D - If a server that is part of a load balance is removed from the group, the load balancer fails

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2
Q 
What is the act of throttling bandwidth on the basis of applications known as?
	A - Traffic control
	B - Packet shaping
	C - Content filtering
	D - Traffic classification
A

B - Packet shaping

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3
Q

A junior network administrator needs a definition for a critical node. What would the best definition be?
A - A device with no mirroring
B - A device with no redundancy
C - A file that will cause a loss of business function if it is lost
D - A device that will cause a loss of business function if it fails

A

D - A device that will cause a loss of business function if it fails

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4
Q 
What is data that must be protected in case of disaster known as?
	A - Critical node
	B - Critical asset
	C - Critical data set
	D - Critical software
A

B - Critical asset

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5
Q 
A tech support firm agrees to make sure their cloud services are up and running 99.999% of the time. What is this type of agreement known as?
	A - SLA
	B - MLA
	C - MOU
	D - SOW
A

A - SLA

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6
Q 
Two manufacturers make an agreement to build the same type of external hard drives. This agreement represents which type of business document?
	A - SLA
	B - MSA
	C - MOU
	D - SOW
A

B - MSA

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7
Q 
Which business document type is often legally equivalent to a contract?
	A - SLA
	B - MSA
	C - MOU
	D - SOW
A

D - SOW

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8
Q 
A technician is in a small office, trying to figure out how to remove a cable running all the way across a room, connecting a computer with no wireless adapter to a wireless router. What device can the technician add to the network to then be able to remove the cable?
	A - A hub
	B - A repeater
	C - A wireless bridge
	D - A wireless adapter
A

C - A wireless bridge

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9
Q

A technician needs to measure device density in a wireless network in an industrial building. What is the technician specifically checking for?
A - The number of devices within the building
B - The number of access points within the building
C - The number of users accessing the wireless access point
D - The number of machines that interfere with the wireless access points

A

A - The number of devices within the building

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10
Q 
Which wireless concept involves getting multiple interfaces to be set up as a single entity?
	A - LWAPP
	B - VLAN pooling
	C - Wireless bridges
	D - Wireless controllers
A

B - VLAN pooling

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11
Q 
What is a protocol wireless LAN controllers use to manage multiple access points in a wireless network?
	A - SMB
	B - LDAP
	C - SNMP
	D - LWAPP
A

D - LWAPP

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12
Q 
Which wireless standards run on the 2.4 GHz frequency? Choose three.
	A - 802.11b
	B - 802.11g
	C - 802.11n
	D - 802.11ac
A

A - 802.11b
B - 802.11g
C - 802.11n

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13
Q 
Which wireless standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency? Choose two.
	A - 802.11b
	B - 802.11g
	C - 802.11n
	D - 802.11ac
A

C - 802.11n

D - 802.11ac

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14
Q 
An 802.11n wireless network has a speed standard of 600 Mbps. The actual average speed has been consistently measuring at 300 Mbps. What is this known as?
	A - Goodput
	B - Throughput
	C - Interference
	D - Bad antenna signal
A

A - Goodput

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15
Q 
What does the ht stand for in the 802.11a-ht networks?
	A - High transit
	B - High transfer
	C - Higher throughput
	D - Higher technology
A

C - Higher throughput

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16
Q 
What determines an antenna's signal strength in a wireless network?
	A - The gain value
	B - The type of standard it is on
	C - The resistance to interference
	D - The distance the signal can travel
A

A - The gain value

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17
Q 
A network administrator needs to purchase a wireless antenna that beams a signal in all directions. Which type of antenna does the administrator need to purchase?
	A - Alldirectional
	B - Unidirectional
	C - Multidirectional
	D - Omnidirectional
A

D - Omnidirectional

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18
Q 
Which wireless standard supports MU-MIMO?
	A - 802.11b
	B - 802.11g
	C - 802.11n
	D - 802.11ac
A

D - 802.11ac

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19
Q

Which is the most likely factor that contributes to a weak signal strength for a client?
A - Distance from the access point
B - Client is on a different channel than the access point
C - Client is on a different frequency than the access point
D - Client is on a different wireless standard than the access point

A

A - Distance from the access point

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20
Q 
Which is considered the best way to secure a wireless network?
	A - Use MAC filtering
	B - Use WPA2 encryption
	C - Lower the signal strength
	D - Disable the SSID broadcast
A

D - Disable the SSID broadcast

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21
Q 
Which type of wireless network involves a direct connection between two devices?
	A - Mesh
	B - Ad hoc
	C - Infrastructure
	D - Unidirectional
A

B - Ad hoc

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22
Q 
Which type of wireless network uses access points to connect devices to a wired network?
	A - Mesh
	B - Ad hoc
	C - Infrastructure
	D - Unidirectional
A

C - Infrastructure

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23
Q 
What network policy should be implemented before personal cell phones are allowed on a corporate network?
	A - MAM
	B - MDM
	C - BYOD
	D - MSDS
A

C - BYOD

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24
Q 
A junior technician is saying that Android tablets all have different locations for wireless settings and connections. This is due to the Android operating system being what type of operating system?
	A - Thin
	B - Open
	C - Thick
	D - Closed
A

B - Open

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25
Q 
A home office needs its gaming device connected to a wireless network as the owner wants to be able to use the fitness app on the gaming device. What information is needed in order to connect this device to the wireless network? Choose two.
	A - SSID
	B - Password
	C - IP address of device
	D - IP address of access point
A

A - SSID

B - Password

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26
Q 
Which is considered the weakest when it comes to security for wireless authentication?
	A - TKIP
	B - WEP
	C - WPA
	D - WPA2
A

B - WEP

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27
Q 
Which type of wireless authentication needs an authentication server in order to connect to a network?
	A - WPA
	B - WEP-Shared
	C - WPA2-Personal
	D - WPA2-Enterprise
A

D - WPA2-Enterprise

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28
Q 
Which is true about encryption protocols used in WPA and WPA2?
	A - Both WPA and WPA2 use AES
	B - Both WPA and WPA2 use TKIP
	C - WPA uses AES while WPA2 uses TKIP
	D - WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES
A

D - WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES

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29
Q 
What are the main components of 802.1X? Choose three.
	A - Supplicant
	B - Authenticator
	C - Authorization agent
	D - Authentication server
A

A - Supplicant
B - Authenticator
D - Authentication server

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30
Q 
A user wants to make sure his/her wireless hotspot only allows devices the user chooses. What is the best way to accomplish this?
	A - Use IP filtering
	B - Use MAC filtering
	C - Use WPA2 encryption
	D - Enable the SSID broadcast
A

B - Use MAC filtering

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31
Q

What is true about circuit switching and packet switching?
A - Circuit switching uses virtual circuits while packet switching packets all take the same path to their destination
B - Circuit switching uses virtual circuits while packet switching packets can take different paths to their destination
C - Circuit switching uses a dedicated transmission channel while packet switching packets all take the same path to their destination
D - Circuit switching uses a dedicated transmission channel while packet switching packets can take different paths to their destination

A

D - Circuit switching uses a dedicated transmission channel while packet switching packets can take different paths to their destination

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32
Q 
What type of multiplexing uses up to 32 wavelengths on a single fiber?
	A - PON
	B - SONET
	C - CWDM
	D - DWDM
A

D - DWDM

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33
Q 
Which WAN technology is usually associated with cable television networks?
	A - ATM
	B - CWDM
	C - DWDM
	D - Frame relay
A

B - CWDM

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34
Q 
A telecommunications provider is bringing an OC12 network to a building. How much maximum speed can a business that signs up for this service expect?
	A - 1.244 Gbps
	B - 51.84 Mbps
	C - 155.52 Mbps
	D - 622.08 Mbps
A

D - 622.08 Mbps

35
Q 
Which fiber-optic connector uses a bayonet type of lock?
	A - LC
	B - FC
	C - SC
	D - ST
A

D - ST

36
Q 
What does an LC connector resemble?
	A - A USB connector
	B - An RJ-45 connector
	C - A coaxial connector
	D - An audio/video connector
A

B - An RJ-45 connector

37
Q 
Which fiber-optic connector commonly connects two fibers?
	A - LC
	B - FC
	C - SC
	D - MT-RJ
A

D - MT-RJ

38
Q 
Which tool is used in a situation where there is a single input fiber and multiple output fibers?
	A - FC
	B - APC
	C - UPC
	D - Coupler
A

D - Coupler

39
Q 
Typically, single-mode fiber-optic cables will have which advantages over multimode fiber-optic cables? Choose three.
	A - Speed
	B - Distance
	C - Attenuation
	D - Signal strength
A

A - Speed
B - Distance
D - Signal strength

40
Q 
What is true about UPC and APC in fiber-optic cables?
	A - Both are flat
	B - Both are angled
	C - UPC is flat and APC is angled
	D - UPC is angled and APC is flat
A

C - UPC is flat and APC is angled

41
Q 
A company's Internet provider has changed networks to a fiber-optic network. The company uses a twisted-pair network. Which device will the company need so that its internal network can connect to the Internet provider's new network?
	A - Hub
	B - Switch
	C - Router
	D - Media converter
A

D - Media converter

42
Q 
A common problem a satellite Internet connection has is the time it takes for a signal to travel back and forth from the satellite. What is this known as?
	A - Noise
	B - Delay
	C - Latency
	D - Overflow
A

C - Latency

43
Q 
Which type(s) of switching do ATM networks use?
	A - Circuit
	B - Packet
	C - Connection
	D - Circuit or packet
A

C - Connection

44
Q 
Which WAN technology uses short path labels rather than long network addresses to direct data from node to node?
	A - ATM
	B - ISDN
	C - MPLS
	D - Frame Relay
A

C - MPLS

45
Q

Which is true about virtual switches?
A - They control traffic between VLANs
B - They can only create private networks between virtual machines
C - They can only allow virtual machines to network with a host machine
D - They support networks that support virtual machines interacting with each other and a public network

A

D - They support networks that support virtual machines interacting with each other and a public network

46
Q

What is the main purpose of a virtual firewall?
A - Control access to the virtual network
B - Control websites people in a virtual machine can see
C - Control packets through packet filtering and monitoring
D - Control QoS between a virtual network and a host machine

A

D - Control QoS between a virtual network and a host machine

47
Q 
What is a concern of virtual NICs that rarely, if ever, exists with physical NICs?
	A - Setting IP addresses
	B - Duplicate IP addresses
	C - Duplicate MAC addresses
	D - Incompatible duplex speeds
A

C - Duplicate MAC addresses

48
Q 
Which storage area network type uses LUNs?
	A - NAS
	B - iSCSI
	C - Jumbo frame
	D - Fibre Channel
A

B - iSCSI

49
Q

What is the biggest benefit with using jumbo frames for Ethernet?
A - Faster data transfer
B - Fewer packets and thus more speed
C - Fewer packets and thus less overhead
D - Less chance for error with a larger frame

A

C - Fewer packets and thus less overhead

50
Q 
What would lean a network administrator toward a NAS rather than a SAN?
	A - Cost
	B - Speed
	C - Storage
	D - Routing
A

A - Cost

51
Q 
A small company uses drive services with their free webmail to share to clients. The drives can be shared to anyone. What is this an example of?
	A - Public IaaS
	B - Public PaaS
	C - Hybrid IaaS
	D - Hybrid PaaS
A

B - Public PaaS

52
Q 
A financial company is developing an application using a public cloud but will share the data with an application it has in its private cloud. What is this an example of?
	A - Hybrid IaaS
	B - Hybrid PaaS
	C - Community IaaS
	D - Community PaaS
A

B - Hybrid PaaS

53
Q 
A group of non-profit organizations share users and storage in a collaborative application. What is this an example of?
	A - Hybrid IaaS
	B - Hybrid PaaS
	C - Community IaaS
	D - Community PaaS
A

C - Community IaaS

54
Q 
What type of control system has a hierarchy of controllers connected through communication networks?
	A - ICS
	B - PLC
	C - DCS
	D - SCADA
A

C - DCS

55
Q 
An administrator for an industrial network needs to add a device that will transmit data from a master supervisory system to objects connected to the network. Which device will the administrator need?
	A - ICS
	B - PLC
	C - DCS
	D - Remote Terminal Unit
A

D - Remote Terminal Unit

56
Q 
Which network system operates with many of its devices remotely controlling equipment?
	A - VLAN
	B - SCADA
	C - Honeypot
	D - Honeynet
A

B - SCADA

57
Q 
If a network includes video teleconferencing as a type of data, what type of network architecture can help the video teleconferencing coexist well with other data types?
	A - IP
	B - SIP
	C - VTC
	D - Medianet
A

D - Medianet

58
Q 
Which protocol is often used with VTC over IP networks?
	A - SIP
	B - TCP
	C - UDP
	D - ISDN
A

C - UDP

59
Q

A user notices a unicast and a multicast option for a software pushing application. The user wants to know the difference between the two. How should this be explained?
A - A unicast broadcasts in one direction while a multicast broadcasts in both directions
B - A unicast is a one-to-one connection for messages while a multicast is a one-to-all connection for messages
C - A unicast is a one-to-one connection for messages while a multicast is a one-to-many connection for messages
D - A unicast is a one-to-one connection for messages while a multicast is a many-to-many connection for messages

A

C - A unicast is a one-to-one connection for messages while a multicast is a one-to-many connection for messages

60
Q 
Which component of QoS classifies and manages network traffic?
	A - UC
	B - COS
	C - VoIP
	D - DSCP
A

D - DSCP

61
Q

What methods can be used to defend a network against packet analyzers? Choose two.
A - Encrypt sensitive data
B - Use a switched network
C - Add routers to the network
D - Move sensitive data to a private network

A

A - Encrypt sensitive data

B - Use a switched network

62
Q 
Which type of tool is best suited to monitor networks for utilization problems and packet drops?
	A - Port scanner
	B - Packet sniffer
	C - Protocol analyzer
	D - Interface monitoring
A

D - Interface monitoring

63
Q

A junior administrator generates a report of the top talkers in a network. What will the report contain?
A - Users who transmit the most data
B - Routers that transmit the most data
C - Devices that transmit the most data
D - Switches that transmit the most data

A

A - Users who transmit the most data

64
Q

What is the main purpose of baselines in network performance?
A - To show how the network is performing
B - To show how the network should perform
C - To gain a comparison point on performance
D - To show network performance statistics before an upgrade is done

A

C - To gain a comparison point on performance

65
Q 
Which method of tracking network performance typically provides the most visual-looking reports?
	A - Alerts
	B - Log files
	C - Graphing
	D - Raw data
A

C - Graphing

66
Q 
What are users who use the most bandwidth each month to receive data known as?
	A - Top receivers
	B - Top listeners
	C - Bandwidth hogs
	D - Top participants
A

B - Top listeners

67
Q 
Which command-line tool is used to see which TCP ports on a system are either in use or waiting to be used?
	A - netstat -a
	B - netstat -a TCP
	C - netstat -p TCP
	D - netstat -a -p TCP
A

D - netstat -a -p TCP

68
Q 
What is the process by which an SNMP manager retrieves information from an SNMP-managed device known as?
	A - Set
	B - Get
	C - Trap
	D - Walk
A

B - Get

69
Q 
Which command represents multiple gets for reading information from multiple devices?
	A - Set
	B - Trap
	C - MIBS
	D - Walk
A

D - Walk

70
Q 
Which is the setting that limits the disk space a user may use on a network drive?
	A - Rights
	B - Quotas
	C - Throttling
	D - Permissions
A

B - Quotas

71
Q 
What is the best way to optimize servers regarding RAM?
	A - Redundancy
	B - Load balancing
	C - High availability
	D - Resource monitoring
A

B - Load balancing

72
Q 
Which type of alert is well-suited for non-urgent issues discovered when monitoring networks?
	A - Cell
	B - SMS
	C - Pager
	D - Email
A

D - Email

73
Q 
A junior administrator is tasked to set up packet flow monitoring. The junior administrator needs to know what type of tool should be used for this job. What type of tool should the junior administrator use?
	A - Line tester
	B - Packet sniffer
	C - Throughput tester
	D - Protocol analyzer
A

B - Packet sniffer

74
Q 
Generally, a SYSLOG error level of 0 in a UNIX/Linux environment means what type of severity?
	A - Alert
	B - Error
	C - Emergency
	D - Informational
A

C - Emergency

75
Q

What is one potential problem with logging all application events verbosely?
A - Hard disk space limitations
B - Log files are hard to analyze
C - Application performance slows
D - Large number of log files are generated

A

A - Hard disk space limitations

76
Q 
Which temperatures are considered to be too high for a server room? Choose two.
	A - 65
	B - 70
	C - 75
	D - 80
A

C - 75

D - 80

77
Q 
What type of tools monitor systems in SCADA networks to make sure all of the remote-control devices have the proper voltage to perform their tasks?
	A - ICS monitoring tools
	B - PLC monitoring tools
	C - Power monitoring tools
	D - Voltage monitoring tools
A

C - Power monitoring tools

78
Q 
What do wireless survey tools generate to show quality of wireless network coverage?
	A - SSIDs
	B - Heat map
	C - Security settings
	D - Rogue access points
A

B - Heat map

79
Q

What is the purpose of a link status?
A - To make sure links are working
B - To make sure connections are working
C - To make sure the light on a router is on
D - To make sure the light on a NIC is green

A

B - To make sure connections are working

80
Q 
Which type of tool is best used for monitoring ports on routers and switches?
	A - Port monitoring tool
	B - Packet monitoring tool
	C - Network monitoring tool
	D - Interface monitoring tool
A

D - Interface monitoring tool

81
Q 
Which is the most common cause of packet discards on a switch or router, given that there are no major problems with the switch or router?
	A - QoS
	B - Collision
	C - Incorrect headers
	D - Overloaded queue
A

D - Overloaded queue

82
Q 
A network administrator needs to determine where packets are dropping as they are going from the administrator's office to a vendor. Which command-line tool should the administrator run to obtain this information?
	A - ping
	B - route
	C - tracert
	D - pathping
A

D - pathping

83
Q 
When looking at a network performance report, a network administrator notices a NIC is only transmitting data in one direction at a time. What setting is most likely on that NIC?
	A - Full-duplex
	B - Half-duplex
	C - Multi-duplex
	D - Double-duplex
A

B - Half-duplex

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