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MyCC > MeasureUP MTA 98-366 Networking Fundamentals (Set 2) > Flashcards

MeasureUP MTA 98-366 Networking Fundamentals (Set 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What does a layer 2 switch use to direct packets?

IP address
Computer name
User name
MAC address

A

MAC address

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2
Q

Which can be used to create a virtual local area network (VLAN)?

One or more unmanaged switches
One or more bridges
One or more managed switches
One or more hubs

A

One or more managed switches

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3
Q

You have a managed switch with servers connected to ports 1,2,3 and 4. An attacker gains access to the server on port 2 and installs software to monitor and record communications on the network. Which statement describes the impact to network security?

The attacker can access traffic to and from the server on port 2 only.
The attacker can access all traffic going through the switch.
The attacker can access all traffic on the network.
The attacker can access all traffic on the subnet.

A

The attacker can access traffic to and from the server on port 2 only.

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4
Q

A Layer 2 switch determines which port to send a packet through by examining the:

subnet mask of the destination.
IP address of the destination
MAC address of the destination.
subnet mask of the soure.

A

MAC address of the destination.

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5
Q

You need to add a device to the network that will allow you to create virtual local area network (VLANs). You must be able to manage the device remotely. Which device should you use?

Managed switch
Hub
Router
Unmanaged switch

A

Managed switch

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6
Q

The primary advantage to using a Layer 2 switch instead of a hub is to:

support multiple IP subnets.
support NAT.
reduce collisions.
implement dynamic IP addressing.

A

reduce collisions.

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7
Q

The speed at which packets are transferred between modules in a modular switch is known as its:

backplane speed
latency
switching speed
buffer size

A

backplane speed

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8
Q

Which port numbers are considered dynamic, or private, port numbers?

49152 through 65535
0 through 1023
1024 through 49151
1 through 65535

A

49152 through 65535

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9
Q

After starting up your computer, it is unable to communicate with any other computers on the network. The computer has an IP address of 169.254.19.21. What is most likely wrong?

Your computer cannot locate a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
Your computer cannot locate a Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server.
Your computer cannot locate a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
Your computer cannot locate a Domain Controller.

A

Your computer cannot locate a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.

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10
Q

Which of the following is an IPv4 multicast address?

::1
FF00::1
224.0.0.1
127.0.0.1

A

224.0.0.1

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11
Q

The default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class B address is:

  1. 255.0.0
  2. 0.0.0
  3. 255.255.255
  4. 255.255.0
A

255.255.0.0

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12
Q

A Network Address Translation (NAT) server:

accelerates the depletion of available IPv4 addresses.
must be deployed on the same Routing and Remote Access Server (RRAS) as a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
enables local computers with private addresses to connect to the Internet.
converts IPv addresses into IPv6 addresses

A

enables local computers with private addresses to connect to the Internet.

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13
Q

Which of the following is a valid private address that supports communication throughout a subnetted network?

  1. 168.44.105
  2. 254.255.22
  3. 200.191.1
  4. 169.1.1
A

192.168.44.105

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14
Q

Which of the following is the default class C subnet mask?

  1. 255.0.0
  2. 0.0.0
  3. 255.255.0
  4. 254.0.1
A

255.255.255.0

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15
Q

Which two of the following are valid private IP addresses? (choose two)

  1. 3.12.4
  2. 13.45.12
  3. 3.2.1
  4. 16.5.200
  5. 8.20.5
A

10.8.20.5, 172.16.5.200

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16
Q

What is the purpose of CIDR?

To prevent a network sniffer from capturing packets
To allow computers at different geographic locations to be assigned to the same subnet
To allow a range of class C addresses to be represented by a single entry in the routing table.
To resolve an IP address to a fully-qualified domain name
A

To allow a range of class C addresses to be represented by a single entry in the routing table.

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17
Q

Which of the following is an APIPA address.

  1. 0.0.1
  2. 168.13.4
  3. 20.30.6
  4. 254.5.2
A

169.254.5.2

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18
Q

On a single computer, you want to test the TCP/IP protocol stck. Which IP address should you ping?

  1. 200.0.0
  2. 0.0.1
  3. 254.5.5
  4. 254.202.2
A

127.0.0.1

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19
Q

You have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. Which represents the calculated CIDR?

/30
/26
/20
/24

A

/26

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20
Q

What is the IPv6 address prefix for a link-local unicast address?

3FFE
FEC0
FF08
FE80

A

FE80

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21
Q

The address FE80::5EFE:131.107.4.92 is an example of what kind of IPv6 address?

A site-local Teredo address
A site-local 6to4 address
A link-local 6to4 address
A link -local ISATAP address

A

a link-local ISATAP address

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22
Q

What kind of Domain Name Service (DNS) source record is used to contain the IPv6 addresses of IPv6 nodes?

NS
A
AAAA
PTR

A

AAAA

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23
Q

What is the IPv6 local loopback address?

FF01::1
::1
FF02::1
::

A

::1

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24
Q

How many bits are in an IPv6 address?

64
128
32
48

A

128

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25
An IPv6 address is assigned to multiple nodes. When a message is sent to that address, it is sent to only one node. This is a: anycast address multicast address site-local address link-local address
anycast address
26
Which IPv6 address is a link-local unicast address? FEC0:1234:03D4:4F83:5ABC:1283:0321:ABCD FE80:1234:03D4:4F83:5ABC:1283:0321:ABCD FF02::1 FF01::1
FE80:1234:03D4:4F83:5ABC:1283:0321:ABCD
27
The address ::1 is the: IPv6 link-local multicast address. IPv4 broadcast address. IPv4 multicast address. IPv6 loopback address.
IPv6 loopback address.
28
Which network service provides authentication and authorization for VPN clients and dial-up clients? IPSec WINS RADIUS NAT
RADIUS
29
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the address information needed to route data between different networks? Layer 3 Layer 1 Layer 2 Layer 4
Layer 3
30
Which of the following is implemented at the Application layer of the the TCP model? TCP UDP FTP IP
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
31
Packet sequence is managed at which layer of the OSI networking model? Session Transport Network Data Link
Transport
32
Media access control (MAC) addresses are implemented at which layer of the OSI model? Network Transport Physical Data Link
Data Link
33
Which device operates at layer 3 of the OSI model? Hub Repeater Bridge Router
Router
34
Port 110 is the well-known port used by" TELNET DNS SMTP POP3
POP3
35
Which two protocols are TCP/IP reference model Application Layer protocols? (Choose two) ``` ICMP SNMP UDP IP FTP ```
FTP, SNMP
36
Which protocol operates at the TCP/IP reference model Transport layer to provide reliable , connection-oriented communication? UDP IP TCP ICMP
TCP
37
Which layer of the OSI networking model provides the ability for application processes on different machines to create and use a connection? Application Data Link Session Transport
Session
38
The TCP/IP arp command can be used to: map route information between hosts. test name server operations. resolve IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses. display network configuration information.
resolve IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses.
39
Which command would you use to view detailed TCP/IP configuration information on a computer? nslookup nbtstat ipconfig netstat
ipconfig
40
You need to see if your computer has connectivity with a server on the same subnetwork. What command should you use? ipconfig nslookup ping ftp
ping
41
Your Windows computer is configured to automatically receive an IP address and it also has Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) enabled. You use the ipconfig command to view the TCP/IP settings on your computer and discover that it has an IP address of 0.0.0.0. What is most likely wrong? The TCP/IP protocol suite did not initialize during startup. Windows cannot detect a connection to the network media. The network Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server is down. There is no Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server available.
Windows cannot detect a connection to the network media.
42
Which tool can you use to delete the entries in the Domain Name Service (DNS) cache on a client computer? Netstat Ipconfig Dnscmd Tracert
ipconfig
43
Which two utilities can you use to identify a router that is experiencing problems? (choose two) ``` Netstat Ping Route Pathping Tracert ```
Tracert, Pathping
44
A firewall separates a management workstation from a router. You need to manage the router using telnet without specifying a port. Which traffic must the firewall allow? ICMP traffic Traffic on port 23 Traffic on port 25 RPC traffic
Traffic on port 23
45
The nslookup command is used to troubleshoot a: DNS server. DHCP server. router. WINS server.
DNS server.
46
Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses to host computers from a predefined address range? SNMP DHCP DNS RIP
DHCP
47
You are configuring virtual private network (VPN) access for home-based users. Communication security can be provided through which of the following? IPSec Kerberos L2TP PPP
IPSec
48
IPSec is used to: bypass network firewalls provide centralized authentication services encrypt and authenticate packets authorize Active Directory users
encrypt and authenticate packets
49
When would you need to deploy Windows Routing and Remote Access (RRAS) services? To expose a public Web server to the Internet To create a public FTP site To support centralized authentication support To configure virtual private network (VPN) site-to-site connections
To configure virtual private network (VPN) site-to-site connections
50
Which of the following is provided by IPSec? Session negotiation Routing Dynamic addressing Encryption and authentication
Encryption and authentication
51
Which method does a DHCP client use to locate a DHCP server? Multicast Broadcast DNS query WINS query
Broadcast
52
You have a routed network with a single DHCP server. There are no DHCP Relay agents on the network. All clients are configured for dynamic addressing. What do you need to enable the router? BOOTP forwarding OSPF NAT RIP
BOOTP forwarding
53
Which domain Name System (DNS) resource record type identifies the primary DNS server for a DNS zone? ``` NS MX SOA PTR A ```
SOA (Start of Authority)
54
Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is used to map: domain names to IP addresses NetBIOS names to Media Access Control addresses domain names to Media Access Control addresses
domain names to IP addresses
55
Which is the first step for a host to resolve a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) on a network that includes an authoritative Domain Name System (DNS) server? Check the FQDN against the local host name. Issue a DNS Name Query Response. Check the FQDN against the DNS client resolver cache. Issue a DNS Name Query Request.
Check the FQDN against the local host name.
56
Which DNS record is used to allow a server to resolve an IP address to a fully-qualified domain name (FQDN)? PTR record MX record A record SRV record
PTR record
57
Which is used to resolve a fully-qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IP address? ARP query DNS query WINS query NetBIOS broadcast
DNS query
58
Which DNS record is used to resolve a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IPv6 address? SOA record A record CNAME record AAAA record
AAAA record
59
Which type of server must be associated with an NS record? WINS E-mail server DNS Domain controller
DNS
60
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true or No if the statement is false. An MX record is used to resolve domain names as IP addresses. (Y/N) An SOA record identifies the primary DNS server for a zone. (Y/N) Each name server has an NS record. (Y/N) Only the primary DNS server has an NS record. (Y/N)
No Yes Yes No

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