Net+ Session 1 Post-lab follow-up Flashcards
1
Q
When setting up a network, you want to make sure the network can hold up to 300 users and that speeds must reach or exceed 500 kbps. What is this an example of? A - List of requirements B - Equipment limitations C - Environment limitations D - Compatibility requirements
A
A - List of requirements
2
Q
When going to purchase equipment, the procurement department informs a network administrator that for the customer service department all screens must conform to Energy Star standards. What is this an example of? A - Equipment limitations B - Environment limitations C - Compatibility requirements D - Device types/requirements
A
D - Device types/requirements
3
Q
When purchasing items for a network, a procurement requirements sheet states that these items can only be purchased from a small set of approved vendors. What is this an example of? A - List of requirements B - Equipment limitations C - Environment limitations D - Security considerations
A
B - Equipment limitations
4
Q
A network administrator needs to purchase a DSL modem as that is the method of Internet connectivity sold to the company the administrator works for. What is this an example of? A - Equipment limitations B - Compatibility requirements C - Device types/requirements D - Wired/wireless considerations
A
B - Compatibility requirements
5
Q
Which are primary goals of network security? Choose three. A - Integrity B - Availability C - Accountability D - Confidentiality
A
A - Integrity
B - Availability
D - Confidentiality
6
Q
In a small office network, users are complaining that they have different passwords they have to use to access different servers. What is the most likely cause of this?
A - The network is a client/server network
B - The network is a peer-to-peer network
C - The Active Directory database is corrupt
D - The servers each host different applications
A
B - The network is a peer-to-peer network
7
Q
What is a device that helps direct traffic in a single network segment? A - Hub B - Switch C - Router D - Firewall
A
B - Switch
8
Q
Which type of cable connector is plugged into a phone jack? A - RJ-11 B - RJ-45 C - DB-25 D - RJ-48C
A
A - RJ-11
9
Q
Which is true about shielded vs. unshielded twisted-pair cable?
A - Shielded uses fewer wires
B - Shielded is easier to install
C - Shielded is more fire-resistant
D - Shielded better prevents electromagnetic interference
A
D - Shielded better prevents electromagnetic interference
10
Q
Which Ethernet cable standards have maximum data rates of 10 Gbps? Choose two. A - CAT3 B - CAT5 C - CAT6 D - CAT6a E - CAT5e
A
C - CAT6
D - CAT6a
11
Q
What does the T in 10Base-T represent? A - Twisted-pair cable B - Twists in the wiring C - Throughput of 10mb D - Ten meters in distance
A
A - Twisted-pair cable
12
Q
What type of Ethernet is represented in 100Base-T? A - Fast B - Gigabit C - Megabit D - Standard
A
A - Fast
13
Q
A network administrator is planning to use 1000Base-TX cable across a LAN. The administrator needs to make sure devices are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ apart or less. A - 100 meters B - 185 meters C - 500 meters D - 2000 meters
A
A - 100 meters
14
Q
Which category of twisted-pair cable is needed for 10GBase-T? A - CAT5 B - CAT6 C - CAT5a D - CAT6a
A
D - CAT6a
15
Q
What is the distance limitation for 10Base-2 coaxial cable? A - 1.85 meters B - 18.5 meters C - 185 meters D - 1850 meters
A
C - 185 meters
16
Q
What is the maximum signal distance for 10GBase-SR over multi-mode fiber? A - 82 m B - 10 km C - 40 km D - 300 m
A
A - 82 m
17
Q
A 200m fiber-optic connection using multi-mode fiber needs to be set up between two business locations. The fastest possible connection is needed. Which standard can be used here? A - 100Base-FX B - 10GBase-SR C - 10GBase-SW D - 100GBase-ER4
A
C - 10GBase-SW
18
Q
Which standard uses Ethernet over HDMI? A - IEEE 802.2 B - IEEE 802.3 C - IEEE 802.11 D - IEEE 1905.1-2013
A
D - IEEE 1905.1-2013
19
Q
A network administrator notices a box of light blue twisted-pair cables. Upon examining a cable, the administrator notices the wiring colors for the pins are reversed from one end of the cable to the other. What type of cable is this? A - RS-232 B - Rollover C - Crossover D - Straight-through
A
B - Rollover
20
Q
Which tool is used to attach a connector to the end of a twisted-pair cable? A - Snip B - Wire stripper C - Cable certifier D - Cable crimper
A
D - Cable crimper
21
Q
Which type of coaxial cable is most commonly used for network connections from cable TV providers? A - RG-3 B - RG-6 C - RG-58 D - RG-59
A
B - RG-6
22
Q
Which connector is typically used only on the end of an STP cable? A - RJ-11 B - RJ-18 C - RJ-45 D - RJ-48C
A
D - RJ-48C
23
Q
What should be used to connect two twisted-pair Ethernet cables back-to-back? A - F-connector B - UTP coupler C - UTP connector D - BNC connector
A
B - UTP coupler
24
Q
Which Ethernet network uses BNC connectors? A - 10Base2 B - 10Base5 C - 10Base-T D - 10Base-F
A
A - 10Base2
25
```
What type of modem are F-connectors used on?
A - DSL
B - Cable
C - Analog
D - Internal
```
B - Cable
26
```
What is the extra characteristic of a multilayer switch?
A - It also acts as a hub
B - It also acts as a HIDS
C - It also acts as a router
D - It also acts as a firewall
```
C - It also acts as a router
27
```
Which device allows one to gain entry into a wireless network?
A - Modem
B - Switch
C - Router
D - Access point
```
D - Access point
28
```
What is the maximum bandwidth of an 802.11b wireless network?
A - 1 Mbps
B - 2 Mbps
C - 11 Mbps
D - 54 Mbps
```
C - 11 Mbps
29
Which is true about 802.11g when compared to 802.11a and 802.11b?
A - Same band as 802.11a but faster than 802.11a
B - Same band as 802.11b but faster than 802.11b
C - Same band as 802.11a and slower than 802.11a
D - Same band as 802.11b and slower than 802.11b
B - Same band as 802.11b but faster than 802.11b
30
```
An administrator is setting up a wireless network on a college campus. The wireless access points will be set up on the outsides of buildings. For someone to be able to connect to an access point, the person's device needs to be no further than what distance from an access point?
A - 70m
B - 120m
C - 140m
D - 250m
```
D - 250m
31
```
Which is considered the fastest of these cellular networks?
A - 3G
B - Edge
C - HSPA+
D - 4G/LTE
```
D - 4G/LTE
32
```
What is the accepted standard speed for 3G networks?
A - 2 Mbps
B - 10 Mbps
C - 384 Kbps
D - 600 Kpbs
```
A - 2 Mbps
33
```
Which of the following is a dial-up modem?
A - DSL modem
B - Cable modem
C - Digital modem
D - Analog modem
```
D - Analog modem
34
```
Which DSL type involves differing upload and download speeds?
A - DSL
B - SDSL
C - ADSL
D - HSDSL
```
C - ADSL
35
```
What is the maximum speed available when using a dial-up, analog modem?
A - 33 Kbps
B - 56 Kbps
C - 64 Kbps
D - 128 Kbps
```
B - 56 Kbps
36
```
On what standard is WiMAX based?
A - 3G
B - 802.3
C - 802.11
D - 802.16
```
D - 802.16
37
```
What type of network is a Metro-Ethernet network?
A - LAN
B - CAN
C - MAN
D - WAN
```
C - MAN
38
```
How many 64Kbps channels are used for a full T3 line?
A - 96
B - 672
C - 4032
D - 6312
```
B - 672
39
```
What is the top speed for an E1 data transmission?
A - 1.544 Mbps
B - 2.048 Mbps
C - 3.152 Mbps
D - 6.312 Mbps
```
B - 2.048 Mbps
40
```
Which is a piece of equipment that helps connect computers with hubs and switches?
A - IDF
B - MDF
C - Cable tray
D - Patch panel
```
D - Patch panel
41
```
What does a 110 block better protect against than a 66 block?
A - EMI
B - Looping
C - Crosstalk
D - Attenuation
```
C - Crosstalk
42
```
A network administrator needs to install a cross-connect block to terminate phone system cabling. Which type of block is needed?
A - 11 block
B - 66 block
C - 110 block
D - 660 block
```
B - 66 block
43
```
What is a secondary wiring closet in a building also known as?
A - IDF
B - SDF
C - MDF
D - WDF
```
A - IDF
44
```
What tool is used to attach a twisted-pair network cable to connectors within a patch panel?
A - Snip
B - Cable certifier
C - Cable crimper
D - Punch down tool
```
D - Punch down tool
45
```
Before a cable can be prepared for a connector attachment, what tool needs to first be used?
A - Snip
B - Wire stripper
C - Cable certifier
D - Cable crimper
```
A - Snip
46
```
What tool is used to find a break in a fiber-optic cable?
A - TDR
B - OTDR
C - Toner probe
D - Cable certifier
```
B - OTDR
47
```
A network administrator needs to connect multiple offices in multiple cities. Which type of network is this?
A - LAN
B - CAN
C - MAN
D - WAN
```
D - WAN
48
```
A wireless network accessible by anyone within city limits is an example of which type of network?
A - LAN
B - PAN
C - MAN
D - WAN
```
C - MAN
49
```
A field engineer has a laptop and is out in the field. There is no available Internet access in the building but the engineer's phone has Internet access. What can the engineer set up in order to access the Internet on the laptop through the phone?
A - VPN
B - SSID
C - Hotspot
D - Access point
```
C - Hotspot
50
```
Which PAN involves pairing devices before they can communicate with each other?
A - IR
B - NFC
C - WPAN
D - Bluetooth
```
D - Bluetooth
51
```
Which PAN type carries signals over very short distances through a beam of light?
A - IR
B - NFC
C - WPAN
D - Bluetooth
```
A - IR
52
```
Which are types of mesh topologies? Choose two.
A - Full
B - Semi
C - Partial
D - Selective
```
A - Full
| C - Partial
53
```
How many connections are in a full mesh network with nine devices?
A - 9
B - 18
C - 36
D - 72
```
C - 36
54
```
Which network topology needs a secondary method of data transfer set up to ensure fault tolerance?
A - Bus
B - Star
C - Ring
D - Mesh
```
C - Ring
55
```
Which network topology has devices connected through a central hub or switch?
A - Bus
B - Star
C - Ring
D - Mesh
```
B - Star
56
```
Which wireless topology involves connecting two access points, thus basically replacing the need for a cable?
A - Ad hoc
B - Point-to-point
C - Wireless mesh
D - Point-to-multipoint
```
B - Point-to-point
57
```
Which type of wireless network involves a central access point connecting multiple wired networks?
A - Ad hoc
B - Point-to-point
C - Wireless mesh
D - Point-to-multipoint
```
D - Point-to-multipoint
58
```
A network administrator is looking at a routing table, looking for a multicast address. Which IP address is a multicast address?
A - 10.0.0.3
B - 127.0.0.1
C - 224.0.0.0
D - 255.255.255.255
```
C - 224.0.0.0
59
```
A data packet has a destination of 255.255.255.255. Where is it going on the network?
A - All devices
B - No devices
C - One device
D - Multiple devices
```
A - All devices
60
Which is true about the difference between broadcast domains and collision domains?
A - Broadcast domains and collision domains both contain logical nodes
B - Broadcast domains and collision domains both contain physical nodes
C - Broadcast domains contain physical nodes while collision domains contain connected logical nodes
D - Broadcast domains contain logical nodes while collision domains contain connected physical nodes
D - Broadcast domains contain logical nodes while collision domains contain connected physical nodes
61
```
A web administrator wants a web site set up that is private to a company but will allow a few vendors to log in and check information when needed. What type of network is needed?
A - Intranet
B - Extranet
C - Honeypot
D - Honeynet
```
B - Extranet
62
What is a very important characteristic for a test network that will test server updates?
A - It is a VLAN
B - It is in a different subnet than a production network
C - It is completely isolated from the production network
D - It is in a different physical location from a production network
C - It is completely isolated from the production network
63
```
In a network, what can be set up for remote users to access network files faster, especially if the files do not change often?
A - Caching
B - Forwarding
C - Segmenting
D - Load Balancing
```
A - Caching
64
```
How many hexadecimal numbers are contained in an IPv6 address?
A - 16
B - 32
C - 64
D - 128
```
B - 32
65
```
How many bits are contained in an IPv4 address?
A - 4
B - 8
C - 32
D - 128
```
C - 32
66
```
What is the prefix used for a link-local IPv6 address?
A - fe80::/64
B - 2001::/64
C - 2002::/64
D - FEC0::/10
```
A - fe80::/64
67
Which is true about Teredo and Miredo?
A - Teredo and Miredo cannot work behind a NAT
B - Teredo and Miredo allow for IPv4 connection on IPv6 networks
C - Miredo allows full IPv6 connectivity to systems that are totally based on IPv4 and Teredo gives full IPv6 connectivity to IPv6-based hosts that lack direct connection to an IPv6 network
D - Miredo allows full IPv4 connectivity to systems that are totally based on IPv6 and Teredo gives full IPv4 connectivity to IPv4-based hosts that lack direct connection to an IPv4 network
C - Miredo allows full IPv6 connectivity to systems that are totally based on IPv4 and Teredo gives full IPv6 connectivity to IPv6-based hosts that lack direct connection to an IPv6 network
68
```
How many classes of IPv4 addresses are available for assignment to devices on a private network?
A - 2
B - 3
C - 4
D - 5
```
B - 3
69
```
What class is used for an IP address of 75.76.77.68?
A - Class A
B - Class B
C - Class C
D - Class D
```
A - Class A
70
```
What is the decimal equivalent of 11000100?
A - 34
B - 194
C - 196
D - 200
```
C - 196
71
```
How many devices can fit on a network with a network address of 10.1.1.0/23?
A - 510
B - 512
C - 1022
D - 1024
```
A - 510
72
```
Which form of NAT allows for multiple LAN systems to translate to a single IP address?
A - PAT
B - SNAT
C - PNAT
D - DNAT
```
A - PAT
73
```
A server administrator needs to see a table of matching IP addresses and MAC addresses on the network. Which command will the administrator need to run?
A - arp -a
B - arp -d
C - arp -s
D - arp -t
```
A - arp -a
74
```
What part of the MAC address does a MAC address lookup table look up?
A - UI
B - EUI
C - UUI
D - OUI
```
D - OUI
75
```
What is the octal equivalent of the decimal number 20?
A - 14
B - 16
C - 22
D - 24
```
D - 24
