nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

Salt supplements favored by many patients often are high in (what electrolyte?)

A

Salt supplements favored by many patients often are high in (potassium)

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2
Q

Principal cells of the collecting ducts becoming resistant to antidiuretic hormone describes what disease?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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3
Q

Which hormone abnormality typically causes euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia?

A

SIADH

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4
Q

Patient with kidney disease on dialysis, longstanding hyperparathyroidism, and lytic lesions of the skeleton.

A

Diagnosis: Renal osteodystrophy

Reduced number of nephrons leads to a decrease in phosphate excretion ultimately leading to an increase in secretion of FGF 23 and PTH which both decrease phosphate excretion.

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5
Q

Serum osmole gap greater than 10 occurs with ethanol intoxication or with (what)?

A

ingestion of toxic alcohols.

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6
Q

What type of urinary casts/bodies will be seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

oval fat bodies or fatty casts.

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7
Q

Thiazides can cause (hyper/hypo)calcemia.

A

Thiazides can cause (hyper)calcemia.

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8
Q

Obesity related glomerular hyperfiltration can damage the glomeruli eventually leading to what?

A

a rise in protein and creatinine.

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9
Q

The clinical features of nephrotic syndrome include?

A

hypoalbuminemia, edema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria (3500 mg/24hr)

may also see hyperlipidemia.

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10
Q

Chronic discomfort in pelvic or genital region with nonspecific urinary symptoms and no infection likely indicates what?

A

Likely diagnosis: Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

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11
Q

Polyuria in type 2 diabetes will typically show (higher/lower) urine osmolarity.

A

Polyuria in type 2 diabetes will typically show (higher) urine osmolarity.

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12
Q

Metabolic alkalosis can cause refractory hypokalemia by what mechanism?

A

As renal bicarbonate excretion increases, a cation such as sodium and potassium also needs to be excreted at the same time.

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13
Q

Three groups of medications that are often implicated in causing acute interstitial nephritis are?

A

NSAIDS, proton pump inhibitors, and antibiotics.

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14
Q

Painful, violaceous, nodules with CKD, hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia indicate what diagnosis?

A

DX: Calciphylaxis

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15
Q

Most appropriate test to establish cause of acute kidney failure in an old man with oliguria, suprapubic fullness, and tenderness?

A

kidney and bladder ultrasound.

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16
Q

What is the first-line therapy for primary fsgs

A

Steroids along with ace inhibitors

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17
Q

An ethanol level greater than what is potentially fatal.

A

300

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18
Q

An ethanol level greater than 100 is the definition for what?

A

ethanol intoxication.

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19
Q

Nephritic syndrome with low complement levels 2-3 weeks after upper respiratory infection indicates what diagnosis?

A

Dx: PSGN

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20
Q

Evaluation of recurrent kidney stones should include?

A

metabolic panel, a CT, 24-hour urine studies, and stone analysis.

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21
Q

A high serum ethanol level with an osmole gap but no anion gap is consistent with what diagnosis?

A

ethanol intoxication.

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22
Q

Fever, skin rash, and peripheral eosinophilia are three classic findings in what condition?

A

acute interstitial nephritis.

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23
Q

Patient has a urostomy with stomal stenosis and a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis; what is the initial step?

A

placement of a Foley catheter.

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24
Q

Patient presents with polyuria and hypernatremia; what is the most appropriate next step?

A

to measure urine osmolality.

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25
Q

Obesity leads to an (increase/decrease) in glomerular pressures and hypertrophy of the glomeruli.

A

Obesity leads to an (increase) in glomerular pressures and hypertrophy of the glomeruli which results in hyperfiltration.

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26
Q

Diabetes insipidus during pregnancy is caused by what?

A

placental production of vasopressinase.

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27
Q

The best screening test for diabetic nephropathy is?

A

urine albumin to creatinine ratio.

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28
Q

Stagnant urine in the intestine can result in absorption of chloride in exchange for bicarbonate, resulting in what metabolic abnormality?

A

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

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29
Q

Older man with dysuria, urinary urgency, no urinary incontinence, fever, and perennial tenderness likely has?

A

Diagnosis: Acute bacterial prostatitis.

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30
Q

Diagnostic test for acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

urine culture.

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31
Q

All patients presenting with gross hematuria will be evaluated first with?

A

CT urography followed by cystoscopy to rule out malignancy.

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32
Q

Typical treatment for obesity related glomerular hyperfiltration includes?

A

either an ACE or an ARB.

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33
Q

Patient had gastric bypass surgery and multiple kidney stones; the most likely stone is made of?

A

calcium oxalate due to malabsorption of free fatty acids.

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34
Q

Asymptomatic SIADH is managed with?

A

limiting all fluids to less than 1L daily.

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35
Q

In secondary FSGS, treatment with an (what class?) drug and general blood pressure control (with/without) immunosuppressive therapy is the standard.

A

In secondary FSGS, treatment with an (ACE inhibitor) drug and general blood pressure control (without) immunosuppressive therapy is the standard.

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36
Q

Acute infection of the urinary tract alone rarely causes kidney dysfunction (T/F)?

A

(T) Acute infection of the urinary tract alone rarely causes kidney dysfunction.

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37
Q

Diagnostic test for vesicoureteral reflux?

A

voiding cystourethrogram.

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38
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones typically form in the setting of (what past medical history?)

A

recurrent UTI.

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39
Q

PPIs indirectly affect the luminal pH of the intestines which can potentially cause (hypo/hyper)magnesemia.

A

PPIs indirectly affect the luminal pH of the intestines which can potentially cause (hypo)magnesemia.

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40
Q

Lithium is known to cause what classic kidney disease?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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41
Q

IV magnesium rarely works to maintain normal levels in hypomagnesemia because?

A

most the magnesium is filtered through the kidneys; the magnesium delivered exceeds the capacity of the kidneys to reabsorb.

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42
Q

Thiazides are used to (decrease/increase) urinary excretion of calcium.

A

Thiazides are used to (decrease) urinary excretion of calcium.

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43
Q

The best option outpatient for hypomagnesemia needing frequent replacements is?

A

sustained-release preparations taken in divided doses.

44
Q

Topiramate can cause what renal abnormality?

A

Calcium phosphate kidney stones.

45
Q

What are the clinical features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia, edema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria (3500 mg/24hr) may also see hyperlipidemia.

46
Q

What can obesity-related glomerular hyperfiltration lead to?

A

Damage to the glomeruli, leading to a rise in protein and creatinine.

47
Q

What is the next indicated step if chronic pelvic pain syndrome features in a male after a 6-week course of antibiotics did not work?

A

Start an alpha blocking agent such as alfuzosin.

48
Q

What is the first line drug therapy for FSGS?

A

Prednisone along with an ACE inhibitor to reduce proteinuria.

49
Q

What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for renal vascular hypertension and acute kidney injury?

A

Duplex ultrasonography of the renal arteries.

50
Q

What acid-base abnormality may patients with an ileal or colonic conduit urinary diversion experiencing stomal stenosis have?

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

51
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for multiple UTIs since childhood and current UTI as a young adult?

A

Vesicoureteral reflux.

52
Q

What disease is the Streptozyme test commonly used to assess for?

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN).

53
Q

What is the most appropriate test to establish the cause of acute kidney failure in an old man with oliguria, suprapubic fullness, and tenderness?

A

Kidney and bladder ultrasound.

54
Q

What should patients with intravascular volume depletion before IV acyclovir receive?

A

Fluid resuscitation sufficient to maintain a urine output of at least 75 mL/hour.

55
Q

If a patient with primary FSGS does not respond to Prednisone or has contraindications, what initial treatment is reasonable to consider?

A

Initial treatment with a calcineurin inhibitor such as cyclosporine or tacrolimus.

56
Q

What should evaluation of recurrent kidney stones include?

A

Metabolic panel, a CT, 24-hour urine studies, and stone analysis.

57
Q

What may calciphylaxis patients experience in their fingers/extremities?

A

Pain secondary to ischemia.

58
Q

What should older men with findings suggestive of prostate cancer undergo?

A

Evaluation with a transrectal prostate biopsy procedure regardless of prostate specific antigen level.

59
Q

What should be considered in difficult to control hypertension in a patient already on multiple antihypertensives?

A

Consider adding a diuretic class of drug.

60
Q

True or False: Older men with findings suggestive of prostate cancer should undergo evaluation with transrectal prostate biopsy regardless of prostate specific antigen level.

61
Q

Gabapentin is cleared by the…

62
Q

What abnormalities will an electrocardiogram (ECG) show in hyperkalemia?

A

Peaked T waves and QRS widening

63
Q

What serum potassium level indicates immediate treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

> 6.5 mEq/liter

64
Q

What should be treated immediately in patients with abnormal ECG findings due to hyperkalemia?

A

Intravenous calcium

65
Q

How does intravenous calcium affect cardiac cells?

A

Raises the threshold resting membrane potential and makes cells less excitable

66
Q

What form is calcium usually provided in for treatment of hyperkalemia?

A

Calcium gluconate

67
Q

Why is calcium chloride not given through a peripheral intravenous line?

A

It can cause local tissue necrosis if there is tissue extravasation

68
Q

Fill in the blank: Intravenous calcium raises the _______ resting membrane potential.

69
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient presenting with diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, hemoptysis, epistaxis, hematuria, and acute kidney injury?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is a small-vessel vasculitis that can affect multiple organs including the lungs and kidneys.

70
Q

What organ damage can aminoglycoside therapy commonly lead to?

A

Acute kidney injury

This is a significant complication associated with the use of aminoglycosides.

71
Q

What is the relationship between cumulative exposure and kidney injury in aminoglycoside therapy?

A

The effect is related to cumulative exposure and usually does not occur until the patient has received 5 to 7 days of therapy

This indicates that prolonged use increases risk.

72
Q

What type of kidney injury is typically associated with aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Nonoliguric kidney injury

This refers to a decreased ability to concentrate urine.

73
Q

What type of renal damage is involved in aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Distal tubular damage

This damage is a key factor in the development of acute kidney injury.

74
Q

What electrolyte imbalances can occur due to aminoglycoside toxicity?

A
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypokalemia

These imbalances result from tubular toxicity.

75
Q

What is the most important objective of hypertension treatment in a patient on dialysis?

A

Control of chronic volume overload.

Chronic volume overload can lead to further complications in patients on dialysis.

76
Q

What is a potential cause of acute kidney injury in older patients taking nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs?

A

Minimal-change disease or membranous nephropathy with or without interstitial nephritis.

These conditions can lead to significant proteinuria.

77
Q

How is abdominal compartment syndrome defined?

A

Intra-abdominal pressure >20 mm Hg accompanied by organ dysfunction

78
Q

What are the risk factors for abdominal compartment syndrome?

A
  • Intra-abdominal or retroperitoneal infection or inflammation
  • Abdominal trauma or surgery
  • Massive fluid resuscitation (>5 liters per 24 hours)
79
Q

What effect do high intra-abdominal pressures have on the kidneys?

A

They increase renal venous pressure and vascular resistance, decreasing renal perfusion

80
Q

Can AKI related to abdominal compartment syndrome be reversed?

A

Yes, if treated promptly by decompression of the abdomen with paracentesis

81
Q

Fill in the blank: Abdominal compartment syndrome is defined as intra-abdominal pressure >______ mm Hg.

82
Q

True or False: Massive fluid resuscitation is a risk factor for abdominal compartment syndrome.

83
Q

What are common features of Scleroderma renal crisis?

A

Malignant arterial hypertension, accelerated kidney failure, markedly increased levels of plasma renin activity

These features characterize the clinical presentation of Scleroderma renal crisis.

84
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors considered advantageous in Scleroderma renal crisis?

A

They are mechanistically advantageous due to the large rise in renin during a scleroderma renal crisis

ACE inhibitors help manage hypertension and renal complications associated with Scleroderma renal crisis.

85
Q

Which ACE inhibitor may be particularly beneficial for Scleroderma renal crisis and why?

A

Captopril, because of its rapid onset

Captopril has been used more than other ACE inhibitors in patients with Scleroderma renal crisis.

86
Q

Fill in the blank: Common features of Scleroderma renal crisis include malignant arterial hypertension, accelerated kidney failure, and markedly increased levels of _______.

A

plasma renin activity

87
Q

True or False: Captopril is less commonly used than other ACE inhibitors in patients with Scleroderma renal crisis.

A

False

Captopril has been used more than other ACE inhibitors in this patient population.

88
Q

What is a key characteristic of Captopril that makes it suitable for Scleroderma renal crisis?

A

Rapid onset

89
Q

What is prerenal azotemia?

A

A condition that causes acute kidney injury due to inadequate blood flow to the kidneys

Prerenal azotemia is often reversible if the underlying cause is addressed promptly.

90
Q

What happens to sodium conservation in prerenal azotemia?

A

The kidney retains the ability to conserve sodium

This is a compensatory mechanism due to low blood flow.

91
Q

What is typically observed in urinary sodium levels during prerenal azotemia?

A

Urinary sodium is typically low

This reflects the kidneys’ attempt to retain sodium in response to perceived low blood volume.

92
Q

What does a finding of granular casts in urine suggest?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

Granular casts are indicative of kidney injury, particularly in acute tubular necrosis.

93
Q

What sodium level in urine is suggestive of acute tubular necrosis?

A

> 30 mEq/liter

Elevated sodium levels in urine can help differentiate acute tubular necrosis from other types of kidney injury.

94
Q

What is the typical serum creatinine level expected in older individuals?

A

≤1 mg/dL

This is due to reduced muscle mass in older individuals.

95
Q

What is postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

A renal-limited process that occurs after a streptococcal infection

96
Q

When can postinfectious glomerulonephritis manifest after a streptococcal infection?

A

2 weeks or more

97
Q

What activates cellular and humoral immunity in postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

98
Q

What laboratory finding is typically observed in postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

Hypocomplementemia

99
Q

What symptoms do patients present with 2 to 3 weeks after the onset of infection?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Edema
  • Active urinary sediment including hematuria
  • Proteinuria
100
Q

How can the symptoms of postinfectious glomerulonephritis vary?

A

Sometimes mild, leading to identification weeks to months later with mild hematuria and proteinuria

101
Q

What happens to serum complement levels in postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

If depressed, they should return to normal within 3 months

102
Q

Are rash and other systemic symptoms seen in postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

103
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a rash and acute kidney injury 2 weeks after starting a beta-lactam antibiotic?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

The diagnosis is supported by the presence of sterile pyuria.

104
Q

What percentage of patients with interstitial nephritis typically show peripheral eosinophilia?

A

23%

Peripheral eosinophilia is not a common finding in all patients with interstitial nephritis.

105
Q

What is the occurrence rate of the full triad of fever, rash, and peripheral eosinophilia in patients with interstitial nephritis?

A

<10%

This indicates that the triad is rare among patients with this condition.

106
Q

Is the finding of urinary eosinophils sensitive or specific for interstitial nephritis?

A

Neither sensitive nor specific

The diagnosis relies more on clinical course or renal biopsy.

107
Q

What diagnostic methods are most useful for confirming acute interstitial nephritis?

A

Clinical course or renal biopsy

These methods provide more reliable information than urinary eosinophils.