nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

Salt supplements favored by many patients often are high in (what electrolyte?)

A

Salt supplements favored by many patients often are high in (potassium)

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2
Q

Principal cells of the collecting ducts becoming resistant to antidiuretic hormone describes what disease?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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3
Q

Which hormone abnormality typically causes euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia?

A

SIADH

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4
Q

Patient with kidney disease on dialysis, longstanding hyperparathyroidism, and lytic lesions of the skeleton.

A

Diagnosis: Renal osteodystrophy

Reduced number of nephrons leads to a decrease in phosphate excretion ultimately leading to an increase in secretion of FGF 23 and PTH which both decrease phosphate excretion.

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5
Q

Serum osmole gap greater than 10 occurs with ethanol intoxication or with (what)?

A

ingestion of toxic alcohols.

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6
Q

What will be seen in nephrotic syndrome?

A

oval fat bodies or fatty casts.

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7
Q

Thiazides can cause (hyper/hypo)calcemia.

A

Thiazides can cause (hyper)calcemia.

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8
Q

Obesity related glomerular hyperfiltration can damage the glomeruli eventually leading to what?

A

a rise in protein and creatinine.

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9
Q

The clinical features of nephrotic syndrome include?

A

hypoalbuminemia, edema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria (3500 mg/24hr)

may also see hyperlipidemia.

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10
Q

Chronic discomfort in pelvic or genital region with nonspecific urinary symptoms and no infection likely indicates what?

A

Likely diagnosis: Chronic pelvic pain syndrome

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11
Q

Polyuria in type 2 diabetes will typically show (higher/lower) urine osmolarity.

A

Polyuria in type 2 diabetes will typically show (higher) urine osmolarity.

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12
Q

Metabolic alkalosis can cause refractory hypokalemia by what mechanism?

A

As renal bicarbonate excretion increases, a cation such as sodium and potassium also needs to be excreted at the same time.

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13
Q

Three groups of medications that are often implicated in causing acute interstitial nephritis are?

A

NSAIDS, proton pump inhibitors, and antibiotics.

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14
Q

Painful, violaceous, nodules with CKD, hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia indicate what diagnosis?

A

DX: Calciphylaxis

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15
Q

Most appropriate test to establish cause of acute kidney failure in an old man with oliguria, suprapubic fullness, and tenderness?

A

kidney and bladder ultrasound.

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16
Q

Prednisone is the first-line therapy for which condition?

A

primary FSGS along with an ACE inhibitor.

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17
Q

An ethanol level greater than 300 is potentially fatal.

A
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18
Q

An ethanol level greater than 100 is the definition for what?

A

ethanol intoxication.

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19
Q

Nephritic syndrome with low complement levels 2-3 weeks after upper respiratory infection indicates what diagnosis?

A

Dx: PSGN

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20
Q

Evaluation of recurrent kidney stones should include?

A

metabolic panel, a CT, 24-hour urine studies, and stone analysis.

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21
Q

A high serum ethanol level with an osmole gap but no anion gap is consistent with what diagnosis?

A

ethanol intoxication.

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22
Q

Fever, skin rash, and peripheral eosinophilia are three classic findings in what condition?

A

acute interstitial nephritis.

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23
Q

Patient has a urostomy with stomal stenosis and a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis; what is the initial step?

A

placement of a Foley catheter.

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24
Q

Patient presents with polyuria and hypernatremia; what is the most appropriate next step?

A

to measure urine osmolality.

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25
Q

Obesity leads to an (increase/decrease) in glomerular pressures and hypertrophy of the glomeruli.

A

Obesity leads to an (increase) in glomerular pressures and hypertrophy of the glomeruli which results in hyperfiltration.

26
Q

Diabetes insipidus during pregnancy is caused by what?

A

placental production of vasopressinase.

27
Q

The best screening test for diabetic nephropathy is?

A

urine albumin to creatinine ratio.

28
Q

Stagnant urine in the intestine can result in absorption of chloride in exchange for bicarbonate, resulting in what metabolic abnormality?

A

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

29
Q

Older man with dysuria, urinary urgency, no urinary incontinence, fever, and perennial tenderness likely has?

A

Diagnosis: Acute bacterial prostatitis.

30
Q

Diagnostic test for acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

urine culture.

31
Q

All patients presenting with gross hematuria will be evaluated first with?

A

CT urography followed by cystoscopy to rule out malignancy.

32
Q

Typical treatment for obesity related glomerular hyperfiltration includes?

A

either an ACE or an ARB.

33
Q

Patient had gastric bypass surgery and multiple kidney stones; the most likely stone is made of?

A

calcium oxalate due to malabsorption of free fatty acids.

34
Q

Asymptomatic SIADH is managed with?

A

limiting all fluids to less than 1L daily.

35
Q

In secondary FSGS, treatment with an (what class?) drug and general blood pressure control (with/without) immunosuppressive therapy is the standard.

A

In secondary FSGS, treatment with an (ACE inhibitor) drug and general blood pressure control (without) immunosuppressive therapy is the standard.

36
Q

Acute infection of the urinary tract alone rarely causes kidney dysfunction (T/F)?

A

(T) Acute infection of the urinary tract alone rarely causes kidney dysfunction.

37
Q

Diagnostic test for vesicoureteral reflux?

A

voiding cystourethrogram.

38
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones typically form in the setting of (what past medical history?)

A

recurrent UTI.

39
Q

PPIs indirectly affect the luminal pH of the intestines which can potentially cause (hypo/hyper)magnesemia.

A

PPIs indirectly affect the luminal pH of the intestines which can potentially cause (hypo)magnesemia.

40
Q

Lithium is known to cause what classic kidney disease?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

41
Q

IV magnesium rarely works to maintain normal levels in hypomagnesemia because?

A

most the magnesium is filtered through the kidneys; the magnesium delivered exceeds the capacity of the kidneys to reabsorb.

42
Q

Thiazides are used to (decrease/increase) urinary excretion of calcium.

A

Thiazides are used to (decrease) urinary excretion of calcium.

43
Q

The best option outpatient for hypomagnesemia needing frequent replacements is?

A

sustained-release preparations taken in divided doses.

44
Q

Topiramate can cause what renal abnormality?

A

Calcium phosphate kidney stones.

45
Q

What are the clinical features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia, edema, and nephrotic-range proteinuria (3500 mg/24hr) may also see hyperlipidemia.

46
Q

What can obesity-related glomerular hyperfiltration lead to?

A

Damage to the glomeruli, leading to a rise in protein and creatinine.

47
Q

What is the next indicated step if chronic pelvic pain syndrome features in a male after a 6-week course of antibiotics did not work?

A

Start an alpha blocking agent such as alfuzosin.

48
Q

What is the first line drug therapy for FSGS?

A

Prednisone along with an ACE inhibitor to reduce proteinuria.

49
Q

What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for renal vascular hypertension and acute kidney injury?

A

Duplex ultrasonography of the renal arteries.

50
Q

What acid-base abnormality may patients with an ileal or colonic conduit urinary diversion experiencing stomal stenosis have?

A

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis.

51
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for multiple UTIs since childhood and current UTI as a young adult?

A

Vesicoureteral reflux.

52
Q

What disease is the Streptozyme test commonly used to assess for?

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN).

53
Q

What is the most appropriate test to establish the cause of acute kidney failure in an old man with oliguria, suprapubic fullness, and tenderness?

A

Kidney and bladder ultrasound.

54
Q

What should patients with intravascular volume depletion before IV acyclovir receive?

A

Fluid resuscitation sufficient to maintain a urine output of at least 75 mL/hour.

55
Q

If a patient with primary FSGS does not respond to Prednisone or has contraindications, what initial treatment is reasonable to consider?

A

Initial treatment with a calcineurin inhibitor such as cyclosporine or tacrolimus.

56
Q

What should evaluation of recurrent kidney stones include?

A

Metabolic panel, a CT, 24-hour urine studies, and stone analysis.

57
Q

What may calciphylaxis patients experience in their fingers/extremities?

A

Pain secondary to ischemia.

58
Q

What should older men with findings suggestive of prostate cancer undergo?

A

Evaluation with a transrectal prostate biopsy procedure regardless of prostate specific antigen level.

59
Q

What should be considered in difficult to control hypertension in a patient already on multiple antihypertensives?

A

Consider adding a diuretic class of drug.

60
Q

True or False: Older men with findings suggestive of prostate cancer should undergo evaluation with transrectal prostate biopsy regardless of prostate specific antigen level.

61
Q

What is cleared by the kidneys?

A

Gabapentin.