GI Flashcards

1
Q

When is a colonoscopy typically performed after complicated diverticulitis?

A

About 6 weeks after the acute episode has resolved.

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2
Q

What are the suggested symptoms for the diagnosis of acute cholangitis?

A

Jaundice, fever, and tenderness in the right upper quadrant.

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3
Q

What is classified as transudative pleural fluid?

A

Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio ≤ 0.6.

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4
Q

What is classified as exudative pleural fluid?

A

Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio > 0.6.

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5
Q

What characterizes tropical sprue?

A

Diarrhea, weight loss, and malabsorption due to villous atrophy.

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6
Q

What are the cases where liver enzymes are typically in the 1000s?

A

Acetaminophen toxicity, Hepatitis A, and ischemic liver damage.

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7
Q

What treatments are included for severe hypertriglyceridemia?

A

Insulin and possibly plasmapheresis.

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8
Q

What is the diagnosis for a young man with palpable purpura, arthralgias, and abdominal pain after a streptococcal throat infection?

A

IgA vasculitis.

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9
Q

What should patients with a history suggestive of hereditary polyposis syndrome undergo?

A

Genetic testing and a colonoscopy.

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10
Q

Who should have twice yearly abdominal ultrasounds for hepatocellular carcinoma surveillance?

A

All patients with cirrhosis, Asian male HBV carriers over 40, Asian female HBV carriers over 50, any HBV carrier with a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma, and African/northern American black people with HBV infection.

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11
Q

What is the diagnosis of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Symptoms of esophageal dysfunction and esophageal biopsy.

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12
Q

What nutrients are typically missing in a vegan diet?

A

Calcium, vitamin D, B12, iron, and protein.

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13
Q

What is a vascular emergency?

A

Acute Mesenteric Ischemia.

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14
Q

What is the typical use of a Dobhoff tube?

A

Enteric feeding.

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15
Q

What is recommended for severe diverticulitis requiring IV antibiotics?

A

Broad-spectrum coverage with gram-negative and anaerobic coverage.

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16
Q

What is the first-line treatment for reflux esophagitis and Barrett’s esophagus without dysplasia?

A

PPI therapy for indefinite duration.

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17
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for a patient with MALT lymphoma and H. pylori?

A

Antibiotic therapy.

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18
Q

What cancers are associated with HNPCC?

A

Endometrial cancer, gastric cancers, biliary cancers, and gliomas.

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19
Q

What is IBS related to?

A

Changes in defecation, stooling frequency, and stool appearance.

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20
Q

What will FeNA be in liver failure?

A

FeNA will almost always be decreased due to pre-renal injury.

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21
Q

What is the diagnosis for a person with HIV who has a CD4 count of <50, chronic diarrhea, tenesmus, and colonic ulcers?

A

Cytomegalovirus.

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22
Q

What is the definition of IBS?

A

Recurrent abdominal pain during the past 6 months that has been present at least one day/week of the past three months.

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23
Q

What is the most common cause of isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a healthy patient?

A

Gilbert syndrome.

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24
Q

What does niacin deficiency typically cause?

A

Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death.

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25
Q

What does biliary ductal dilation and gallstones in a patient with pancreatitis imply?

A

Diagnosis of acute biliary pancreatitis.

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26
Q

What should be done in biliary pancreatitis when stones are visualized on CT and there is evidence of acute cholangitis?

A

ERCP should be performed in 24 hours.

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27
Q

What are the two criteria of Barrett esophagus?

A

Columnar epithelium lining the distal esophagus and biopsy specimens must reveal intestinal metaplasia.

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28
Q

What is the most appropriate strategy for managing a small asymptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

Observation.

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29
Q

What must be ruled out before confirming IBS?

A

IBD, Giardia, and celiacs.

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30
Q

What is the MELD-Na score of less than 17 indicative of?

A

Less than 2% 90-day mortality rate.

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31
Q

What is the treatment for microscopic colitis?

A

Budesonide; many cases resolve from dietary restriction or avoidance of medications, but many need treatment.

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in a healthy patient?

A

Gilbert syndrome

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33
Q

What are the typical symptoms of niacin deficiency?

A

Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death

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34
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

A heme degradation product

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35
Q

What does biliary ductal dilation and gallstones in a patient with pancreatitis imply?

A

Diagnosis of acute biliary pancreatitis

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36
Q

When should ERCP be performed in biliary pancreatitis?

A

Within 24 hours when stones are visualized on CT and there is evidence of acute cholangitis

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37
Q

What is the diagnosis in a young man with palpable purpura, arthralgias, and abdominal pain after a streptococcal throat infection?

A

IgA vasculitis

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38
Q

What is IBS related to?

A

Changes in defecation, stooling frequency, and stool appearance

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39
Q

What is classified as transudative pleural fluid?

A

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio ≤ 0.5

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40
Q

What cancers are associated with FAP?

A

Colon cancer, thyroid cancer, hepatoblastoma, and medulloblastoma

41
Q

What is classified as exudative pleural fluid?

A

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio > 0.5

42
Q

What is better for diagnosing inactive GI bleeds?

A

Video capsule endoscopy

43
Q

What is the second-line treatment of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Aerosolized steroids

44
Q

What are the endoscopic findings of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Circumferential mucosal lesions and longitudinal furrows

45
Q

What does Gilbert syndrome result from?

A

Decreased expression of UDP glucuronyl transferase

46
Q

What are the four most common causes of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones, alcohol, ERCP, and triglyceridemia

47
Q

What is a common associated feature of eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Atopy, leading to hypersensitivity reactions such as allergic rhinitis, eczema, and asthma

48
Q

What is the first-line treatment for reflux esophagitis and Barrett’s esophagus without dysplasia?

A

PPI therapy of indefinite duration

49
Q

What are the criteria for MELD-Na Score?

A

Creatinine, bilirubin, INR, sodium, and dialysis at least 2x in the past week

50
Q

What suggests a diagnosis of acute cholangitis?

A

Jaundice, fever, and tenderness in the right upper quadrant

51
Q

What is associated with HNPCC?

A

Endometrial cancer, gastric cancers, biliary cancers, and gliomas

52
Q

What can zinc deficiency cause?

A

Alopecia, night blindness, and hypogonadism

53
Q

What is the diagnosis for a person with HIV who has a CD4 count of <50, chronic diarrhea, tenesmus, and colonic ulcers?

A

Cytomegalovirus

54
Q

Who should have twice yearly abdominal ultrasounds for hepatocellular carcinoma surveillance?

A

All patients with cirrhosis, Asian male HBV carriers over 40, Asian female HBV carriers over 50, any HBV carrier with a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma, and African/northern American black people with HBV infection

55
Q

What autoimmune markers increase when celiac disease patients eat gluten?

A

Endomysial antibody or TTG–IgA

56
Q

What is the next diagnostic step for an older patient with signs of GI bleed but nonrevealing upper and lower endoscopy?

A

Video capsule endoscopy

57
Q

What is the treatment for H. pylori?

A

PPI, bismuth subsalicylate, metronidazole, and tetracycline

58
Q

What is the typical presentation of colonic ischemia?

A

Cramping abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea

59
Q

What are the two criteria of Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Columnar epithelium lining the distal esophagus and biopsy specimens must reveal intestinal metaplasia

60
Q

What is the most effective way to prepare a patient for colonoscopy?

A

Half preparation given the night before the procedure, after preparation given the morning of the procedure

61
Q

What is the most appropriate diagnostic for suspected acute cholangitis?

A

Ultrasound of the RUQ

62
Q

Does meningococcemia typically have GI manifestations?

A

No, it typically does not

63
Q

What should patients with a strong family history of cancer and a personal history of duodenal adenoma undergo?

A

Genetic testing and a colonoscopy

64
Q

What is the treatment for tropical sprue?

A

Oral tetracycline for 3 to 6 months

65
Q

What are the typical nutrients missing in a vegan diet?

A

Calcium, vitamin D, B12, iron, and protein

66
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with INR >1.5, hepatic encephalopathy, and symptomatic for less than 26 weeks without previous liver disease?

A

Acute liver failure

67
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with confirmed functional gallbladder disorder and a low gallbladder ejection fraction?

A

Cholecystectomy

68
Q

Why is rifamixin beneficial in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

It is minimally absorbed and concentrated in the GI tract, killing enteric bacteria that produce ammonia

69
Q

What is the secondary prevention of recurrent hepatic encephalopathy in a patient with cirrhosis?

A

Consistent treatment with lactulose and rifamixin

70
Q

What is the most likely cause of portal hypertension in a patient with normal liver function who recently emigrated from North Africa?

A

Schistosomiasis

71
Q

What is the association between microscopic colitis and other GI autoimmune diseases?

A

There is an association with celiac disease

72
Q

What is the treatment for severe diverticulitis requiring IV antibiotics?

A

Broad-spectrum coverage with gram-negative and anaerobic coverage

73
Q

What must be ruled out before confirming IBS?

A

IBD, Giardia, and celiac disease

74
Q

What is the typical presentation of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction?

A

Conservative treatment includes use of nasogastric and rectal tubes

75
Q

True or False: Meningococcemia typically does not have GI manifestations.

76
Q

What is likely for a patient with a strong family history of cancer and a personal history of duodenal adenoma?

A

Hereditary polyposis syndrome

77
Q

Who should have twice yearly abdominal ultrasounds as surveillance for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

All patients with cirrhosis, Asian male HBV carriers over 40, Asian female HBV carriers over 50, any HBV carrier with a family history of hepatocellular carcinoma, and African/northern American black people with HBV infection

78
Q

What does niacin deficiency typically cause?

A

Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and death

79
Q

What is a characteristic of a Dobhoff tube?

A

It has a weight at the end

80
Q

True or False: Peripartum injury to the sphincter apparatus can lead to decades long fecal incontinence but with normal sensation.

81
Q

Why is a colonoscopy not recommended in the acute setting of severe diverticulitis?

A

Due to the risk of perforation

82
Q

What is the most useful initial diagnostic for a cirrhotic presenting with abdominal pain, ascites, low BP, and signs of AKI and UTI?

A

Diagnostic paracentesis

83
Q

What type of drug is Neostigmine?

A

An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

84
Q

What is the next step in management for acute biliary pancreatitis with signs of acute cholangitis?

85
Q

What defines IBS?

A

Recurrent abdominal pain during the past 6 months that has been present at least one day/week of the past three months

86
Q

True or False: Folate intake is typically adequate in a vegan diet.

87
Q

What is the most indicated first step in imaging for suspected SBO?

88
Q

What happens during a KUB imaging?

A

The patient is typically on their back, and air rises to the surface of the abdomen, obstructing the view

89
Q

What are the colonoscopy findings for 1-2 tubular adenomas <10mm?

A

Repeat in 7-10 years

90
Q

What are the colonoscopy findings for 3-4 tubular adenomas <10mm?

A

Repeat in 3-5 years

91
Q

What are the colonoscopy findings for 5-10 tubular adenomas <10mm?

A

Repeat in 3 years

92
Q

What are the colonoscopy findings for >10mm villous/tubulovillous adenomas?

A

Repeat in 3 years

93
Q

What is the follow-up for >10 adenomas?

A

Repeat in 1 year

94
Q

What is the likely diagnosis for a patient with eosinophilic infiltrate in the small intestinal mucosa and chronic diarrhea?

A

Eosinophilic gastroenteritis

95
Q

What is the treatment for eosinophilic gastroenteritis?

A

Systemic steroids

96
Q

What is the diagnosis for a person with HIV who has a CD4 count of <50, chronic diarrhea, and colonic ulcers?

A

Cytomegalovirus

97
Q

Where can AST be found?

A

In liver, bone, and heart tissue

98
Q

What are the two criteria of Barrett esophagus?

A

Columnar epithelium lining the distal esophagus and biopsy specimens must reveal intestinal metaplasia

99
Q

What cancers are associated with HNPCC?

A

Endometrial cancer, gastric cancers, biliary cancers, and gliomas