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Pathology > Neoplasia Material > Flashcards

Neoplasia Material Flashcards

1
Q

Major cause of relapse in cancer?

A

Minimal residual disease

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2
Q

Ending given to:

1) benign EPITHELIAL tumor
2) benign CT tumor

A

1) papilloma or adenoma

2) -oma

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3
Q

Ending given to:

1) malignant epithelial tumors
2) malignant CT tumors

A

1) carcinoma; adenocarcinoma

2) -sarcoma

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4
Q

An abnormal pattern of tissue growth that can be precursor to neoplasia? Is it reversible?

A

Dysplasia

usually irreversible

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5
Q

T/F: neoplasia is almost always irreversible

A

True

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6
Q

Define:

1) Hamartoma

2) Choristoma

A

1) CT or epithelial cells found in their normal location but in a DISORGANIZED manner
2) ectopic rest of normal tissue (excess of tissue in an abnormal situation)

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7
Q

T/F: Neoplasms contain ONLY neoplastic cells

A

False (contain non-neoplatic cells too)

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8
Q

Name the theory:

1) “neoplasm arises from a lurking bad stem cell in the tissue”
2) neoplasm arises from cumulative alteration of a normal cell in a tissue

A

1) Cancer stem cell theory

2) Stochastic model

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9
Q

Name the 6 hallmarks of neoplasia

A

1) Sustained proliferative signaling
2) evading growth suppressors
3) activating invasion and metastasis
4) enabling replicative immortality
5) inducing angiogenesis
6) resisting cell death

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10
Q

Name 2 emerging hallmarks of neoplasia

A

1) deregulating cellular energetics

2) avoiding immune destruction

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11
Q

Name two enabling characteristics of neoplasia

A

1) Genome instability

2) tumor-promoting inflammation

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12
Q

Which cell types are more susceptible to developing neoplasia (at any age)?

A

Continously cycling & quiescent stable cells

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13
Q

Name 5 ways to achieve proliferative signaling

A

1) produce more growth factor
2) express more GF receptors
3) mutate the GF receptor
4) Ras mutation
5) mutate intracellular signaling cascade (Raf)

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14
Q

Describe the two hit model of tumor suppressor gene loss

A

Both alleles that code for the tumor suppressor gene are eliminated (1 congenital, 1 acquired; or both acquired)

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15
Q

Important tumor suppressor genes:
1) internal controllers of cell proliferation

2) contact inhibition of cell proliferation

A

1) RB, P53

2) NF2, APC

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16
Q

Over expression of this anti-apoptotic protein can lead to the development of neoplasms

A

Bcl-2

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17
Q

How do cancer cells achieve replicative immortality?

A

counter telomere erosion

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18
Q

Name 2 mechanisms by which cancer cells counter telomere erosion

A

1) upregulate telomerase (makes telomere longer)

2) Alternative lengthening telomere (ALT)

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19
Q

A cancer drug that targets VEGF would be useful for preventing what hallmark of neoplasia?

A

Angiogenesis

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20
Q

High levels of this protein are the reason newly formed vessels are unstable, leaky, and have abnormal function

A

Angiopoietin 2

AP1 promotes maturation

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21
Q

When epithelial cell metastasize, what is the first feature they lose to be able to do so?

A

Cell-to-cell adhesion

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22
Q

Cells must have what ability in order to be able to invade?

A

Motility

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23
Q

Describe the role of Stathmin in metasasis

A

Stathmin regulates microtubule dynamics in the cell; when mutated, it loses its ability to stabilize the tubules in the presence of ECM–>cell becomes rounded and gains amoeboid-like motility

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24
Q

T/F: Metastasis is a random process

A

False (seed & soil)

certain cancers have preferential sites of metastasis

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25
Q

The idea that cancer cell prefer glycolysis, even in the presence of oxygen

A

Warburg effect

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26
Q

Describe the basis for PET scans

A

cancer cells have upregulation of glucose transport into the cell–>PET looks for areas of increased glucose uptake

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27
Q

3 phases of immunosurveillance

A

1) elimination
2) equilibrium
3) escape

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28
Q

2 reasons tumors can ‘escape’ the immune response

A

immune exhaustion

production of immunosuppressive tumor environment

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29
Q

Describe the function of PD-1 in association with tumor suppression

A

PD-1 is a T-cell receptor used as an “off” signal; Tumor cells have a PD-1 ligand they use to bind T-cells and shut them down prematurely (to avoid apoptosis)

30
Q

Cancer cells have a defect in this mechanism that detects errors in newly synthesized DNA

A

Mistmatch repair (MMR)

31
Q

2 mechanisms by which inflammation can give rise to cancer

A

1) inflammtory cells increase concentrations of growth and survival factors
2) reactive oxygen species and free radicals result in genetic damage (mutations)

32
Q

Birt-Hogg-Dube syndrome in german shepherds is an example of what type of cause of cancer?

A

Genetic predisposition

33
Q

BHD syndrome is due to loss of which specific suppressor gene?

A

Folliculin gene

34
Q

Radiation, fiber, and vaccines in cats are examples of what type of cancer of cause?

A

Environmental–>physical

35
Q

A carcinogen is considered _________ if it or its metabolite(s) bind to DNA and cause mutations

A

Genotoxic

36
Q

Two categories of damage that carcinogens can cause that are non-genotoxic

A

Cytotoxic

Receptor mediated

37
Q

Vaccine-induced sarcomas in cats are an example of what type of cytotoxic effect?

A

sustained inflammation (and growth factor release)

38
Q

The carcinogenic compound involved in bracken fern toxicosis in cattle

A

Ptaquiloside (PTQ)

39
Q

Concerning passive smoking and cancer in pets, there are studies that show a detectable association between environmental tobacco smoke and ___________ in dogs

A

Nasal cancer

(NOT lung cancer)

40
Q

Name 3 typical retrovirus genes

A

GAG, POL, ENV

41
Q

Describe the 2 mechanisms retroviruses use to cause cancer

A

1) viral oncogenes; homologous to a cellular proto-oncogene and causes sustained proliferation
2) Insertional mutagenesis; virus inserts its genome near a growth regulatory gene and it becomes overexpressed by viral promoters when the virus replicates

42
Q

Feline leukemia virus is an example of _______ _______ (mechanism of retroviruses)

A

insertional mutagenesis

43
Q

Bovine leukemia virus contains what “oncogene”?

A

Tax

44
Q

Two ways “Tax” in BLV affects the host’s cells

A

1) causes growth-factor independent proliferation

2) upregulates Bcl-2 (anti-apoptotic)

45
Q

What criteria is Tax lacking to consider it a true viral oncogene?

A

Lacks a cellular proto-oncogene homologue

46
Q

This virus establishes infections only in keratinocytes of skin or mucous membranes

A

Papillomaviruses

47
Q

What viral genes do papillomaviruses encode to cause cancer?

A

E6 & E7

48
Q

Describe the functions of
1) E6
2) E7
(with papillomavirues)

A

E6–ubiquinates p53 (causes it to be degraded)

E7–competes for binding with RB (E2F is free to push cell cycle forward)

49
Q

What general mechanism do Hepadnaviruses use to cause cancer?

A

cause chronic inflammation

50
Q

Marek’s disease (herpesvirus) encodes what viral protein to cause cancer?

A

Meq

51
Q

Bacteria & Metazoan cause cancer mainly through generation of?

A

Chronic inflammation

52
Q

This type of neoplasm is transmitted by coitus and will usually spontaneously regress

A

Transmissible venereal tumor (TVT)

53
Q

3 steps of stepwise tumor development

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression

54
Q

Which step of tumor development involves non-mutagenic, reversible effects, and results in a benign tumor?

A

Promotion

55
Q

T/F: All malignant neoplasms come from a benign precursor

A

False

56
Q

Direct effects of neoplasia are more commonly associated with what type of neoplasm

A

malignant

57
Q

Disease or symptoms that are a consequence of the presence of cancer in the body

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome

58
Q

Name an important systemic effect of cancer

A

Cachexia (weight loss and debility)

59
Q

A protein found in circulation of cancer patients that mediates the breakdown of skeletal muscle protein

A

Proteolysis-inducing factor (PIF)

60
Q

Most common endocrinopathies associated with cancer?

A

Hypercalcemia

Hypoglycemia

61
Q

MOST cases of hypercalcemia of malignancy are due to?

A

Secretion of PTH or PTHrP by non-endocrine neoplasms

62
Q

Which cancer of dogs is frequently associated with HCM?

A

adenocarcinoma of apocrine glands of anal sac

63
Q

Biggest problem with management of early malignant disease?

A

Latent period (time before mass is clinically detectable)

64
Q

Which method of diagnosing neoplasia is characterized by

1) an easily obtained sample
2) rapid analysis
3) variability in ability to distinguish neoplasia from non-neoplatic lesions

A

Cytological (cytology)

65
Q

This method of cancer diagnosis can be used to establish epithelial vs. connective tissue neoplasms and uses specific and sensitive Ab reagents

A

Immunohistochemistry (IHC)

gold standard for phenotyping lymphomas

66
Q

Why is PARR preferred over IHC in diagnosing lymphomas?

A

it can be performed on cells obtained from FNA (IHC requires a biopsy)

67
Q

Concerning lymphomas in dogs, gene expression profiling can be used to differentiate survival for ________ but NOT _______

A

T-cell lymphoma

NOT B-cell lymphoma (had similar survival times)

68
Q

An objective measure of the extent of disease

A

Stage

69
Q

Name the 3 criteria that go into staging

A

TNM system

1) Tumor location and size
2) Lymph node involvement
3) metastasis

70
Q

Determination regarding differentiation, growth, or invasiveness based on histological features

A

Grade

71
Q

T/F: All tumors are graded using the same criteria

A

False

Pathology (6 decks)

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