NBR 2 - Neurosurgery Flashcards
Caudate Nucleus
D
Choroid Plexus
I
Foramen of Monroe
F
- Column of the fornix
B
- Septum Pellucidum
A
- thalamostriate vein
G
- Thalamus
H
- Body of the fornix
C
- Anterior Caudate Vein
E
- Surgical procedures utilized in the treatment of spasmodic torticollis include
I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
II. stereotactic thalamotomy
III. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
IV. myotomy
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
E
- Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the highest rate of neurologic injury?
A. costotransversectomy
B. lateral extracavitary
C. midline laminectomy
D. transpedicular
E. transthoracic
E
- Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the highest rate of neurologic injury?
A. costotransversectomy
B. lateral extracavitary
C. midline laminectomy
D. transpedicular
E. transthoracic
A
- Each of the following is characteristic of complex regional pain syndrome II ( causalgia) except
A. atrophic changes in the limb
B. hypesthesia
C. increased sweating
D. lack of major motor deficit
E. good relief with sympathetic block
B
For questions 14 to 18,
match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
- Bacterial Meningitis
A
For questions 14 to 18,
match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
- Aseptic Meningitis
B
For questions 14 to 18,
match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
- Associated Congenital Malformations
A
For questions 14 to 18,
match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
- Most Often Midline
A
For questions 14 to 18,
match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
- Responsive to radiation therapy
D
- Ventricular enlargement from choroid plexus papillomas can be secondary to
I. entrapment of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
II. decreased absorption of CSF from hemorrhage-induced arachnoiditis
III. tumor growth
IV. excessive production of CSF
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
E
- Which approach is favored for a patient with an 8 mm acoustic neuroma in which hearing preservation is a goal?
A. middle fossa
B. suboccipital
C. trans labyrinthine
A
- Uncinate seizures typically produce
A. auditory hallucinations
B. gustatory hallucinations
C. olfactory hallucinations
D. vertiginous sensations
E. visual seizures
C
For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
- Separates the PI and P2A segments of the posterior cerebral artery
C
For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
- Separates the P2A and P2P segments of the posterior cerebral artery
B
For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
24.separates the P2P and P3 segments of the posterior cerebral artery
D
For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
- separates the P2P and P3 segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A
- The radial nerve or one of its branches innervates each of the following except the
A. abductor pollicis longus
B. adductor pollicis
C. brachioradialis
D. extensor pollicis brevis
E. supinator
B
- Each of the following is true of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in the newborn except
A. Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction is one sequela.
B. Posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus can result in persistent bradycardia and apneic spells.
C The capillary bed of the germinal matrix is composed of large irregular vessels.
D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term neonate.
E. The risk of IVH is greater in the preterm than in the term infant.
D
- The ossification centers of the odontoid consist of
A. one primary and two secondary centers
B. one secondary and three primary centers
C. three secondary and one primary center
D. two primary Centers
E. two primary and one secondary center
E
- The most common single-suture synostosis is
A. coronal
B. lambdoid
C. metopic
D. sagittal
E. sphenozygomatic
D
- The most sensitive method for detecting carpal tunnel syndrome is
A. needle examination of the abductor pollicis brevis
B. needle examination of the first and second lumbricals
C motor amplitude of the median nerve
D. motor distal latency of the median nerve
E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve
E
- Coup contusions most commonly occur at the
A. cerebral convexities
B. frontal and temporal poles
C. orbital surface of the frontal lobes
D. posterior fossa
E. ventral surface of the temporal lobe
A
32
For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
- Pupil-involving third nerve palsy
E
33.
For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
- Seizure
C
34.
For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
- Diabetes Insipidus
A
35.
For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
- Inferior Nasal Quadrantanopia
D
36.
For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Soal : Exophthalmos ?
B
- The essential difference between a syringomyelic and a hydromyelic cavity is that the cavity in
A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not
B. hydromyelia is lined with choroid plexus, and in syringomyelia is not
C. syringomyelia contains CSF, and in hydromyelia contains serum
D. syringomyelia is focal, and in hydromyelia is more extensive
E. syringomyelia is an enlargement of the central canal, and in hydromyelia is an enlargement of the anterior median septum
A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not
- BASILAR ARTERY
F
- PITUITARY STALK
G
- RIGHT OCULOMOTOR NERVE
H
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92.
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
contains the anteroinferior cerebellar artery (AICA)
Jawab : B
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
93
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains the origin of the posteroinferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
Jawab : D
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
94
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains the superior cerebellar artery
Jawab : A
A. ambient cistern
95
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains cranial nerve (CN) IV
A. ambient cistern
96
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains CN V
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
97
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains the basal vein of Rosenthal
Jawab : C
C. interpeduncular cistern
98
For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
- contains the choroid plexus at the foramen of Luschka
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
99
The transverse crest separates the
A. cochlear, facial, and superior vestibular nerves from the inferior vestibular nerve
B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve
C. facial and cochlear nerves from the superior and inferior vestibular nerves
D. facial, cochlear, and inferior vestibular nerves from the superior vestibular nerve
E. facial and inferior vestibular nerves from the cochlear and superior vestibular nerves
B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve
100
Which of the following is true of hemifacial spasm?
A. Compression of the facial nerve by the superior cerebellar artery is the most common operative finding.
B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.
C. Men are more frequently affected than women.
D. Symptoms typically begin in the buccal muscles and move cranially.
E. The cure rate at 1 month after microvascular decompression is 95%.
B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.
- Each of the following surgical approaches may be considered for an aneurysm of the vertebrobasilar junction except the
A. extended extreme lateral inferior transcondylar approach
B. lateral suboccipital approach
C. presigmoid transtentorial approach
D. retrolabyrinthine transigmoid approach
E. subtemporal approach
E. subtemporal approach
- The most common presenting symptom in patients with colloid cysts is
A. headache
B. dementia
C. seizures
D. sudden attacks of leg weakness
E. sudden death
A. headache
103
104
105
106
- The most common presenting symptom of neonates with vein of Galen aneurysms is
A. congestive heart failure
B. hydrocephalus
C. intracerebral hemorrhage
D. seizures
E. subarachnoid hemorrhage
A. congestive heart failure
- The most common upper thoracic spine injury is a
A. burst fracture
B. compression fracture
C. fracture-dislocation
D. seat-belt injury
B. compression fracture
- Which is true of thoracolumbar spine fractures?
A. Burst fractures are the most common.
B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.
C. Seat-belt type injuries are generally stable.
D. Wedge compression fractures are generally unstable.
E. Wedge compression fractures involve the middle column.
B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.
- Each of the following is true of diffuse brain swelling except that it is
A. a result of cerebrovascular congestion
B. a result of cytotoxic edema
C. associated with a 50% mortality rate in severely head-injured children
D. manifested on computed tomography (IT) scan by a compression of the perimesencephalic cistern
E. more common in children than in adults
B. a result of cytotoxic edema
- Which ofthe following is least suggestive of child abuse?
A. acute and healing long bone fractures
B. interhemispheric subdural hematoma
C. parietal skull fracture
D. retinal hemorrhages
E. tentorial subdural hematoma
C. parietal skull fracture
- Trigonocephaly results from premature closure of the
A. coronal suture bilaterally
B. coronal suture unilaterally
C. frontosphenoidal suture
D. lambdoid suture
E. metopic suture
E. metopic suture
- The cleft in the spinal cord associated with diastematomyelia is most commonly located in the
A. cervical region
B. lumbar region
C. sacral region
D. thoracic region
B. lumbar region
- Up to what percentage of patients with bacterial arterial (mycotic) aneurysms carry an underlying diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 80%
E. 80%
- Each is true of bacterial intracranial aneurysms except
A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.
B. The middle cerebral artery is most commonly affected.
C. The peripherally located branches are most commonly affected
D. Typical subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs in 18% of patients.
E. Staphylococcus aureus and beta hemolytic streptococci are most commonly involved.
A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.
- Each of the following is true of growing skull fractures except that they
A. can cross suture lines
B. may be associated with underlying brain injury
C. occur if the edges of the initial fracture are separated by more than 3 mm
D. occur most commonly in the parietal bone
E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5
E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5
- Approximately what percentage of infants with myelomeningocoele have magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) evidence of a Chiari II malformation?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
E. 100%
E. 100%
- Cardiovascular disease involving the heart and great vessels gives rise to which of the following types of emboli in the retina?
I. cholesterol
II. calcific
III. platelet-fibrin
IV. fat
A. I. II. III
B. I. III
C. II. IV
D. IV
E. all ofthe above
A. I. II. III
- In the infratentorial supracerebellar approach to the pineal region. which of the following veins are usually sacrificed?
I. superior vermian vein
II. posterior pericallosal vein
III. precentral ce,rebellar vein
IV. basal vein of Rosenthal
A. I. II. III
B. I. III
C. II. IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
B. I. III
- Each of the following is characteristic of an acoustic neuroma except
A. Bekesy type III or IV audiogram
B. loudness recruitment
C. low short-increment sensitivity index (SiSi)
D. poor speech discrimination
E. pronounced tone decay
B. loudness recruitment
- subarcuate artery
Jawab : B
- anteroinferior cerebellar artery
Jawab : A
- cochlear nerve
Jawab : F
- facial nerve
Jawab : E
- glossopharyngeal nerve
Jawab : C
- spinal accessory nerve
Jawab : G
- posteroinferior cerebellar artery
Jawab : H
- vagus nerve
Jawab : D
- Which of the following structures provides a marker for the most dorsal extent ofthe incision for anterolateral cordotomy for pain control?
A. dentate ligament
B. dorsal root entry zone
C. posterior intermediate sulcus
D. posterior median sulcus
E. zone of Lissauer
A. dentate ligament
- Occlusion of the anterior choroidal artery results in
I. contralateral hemiplegia
II. hemihypesthesia
III. homonymous hemianopia
IV. impaired cognition
A. I,lI,m
B. I,m
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all ofthe above
A. I,lI,m
- Which of the following symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is most likely to respond to a stereotactic lesion in the posterior ventral oval (VOP)/ventral intermediate (VIM) (ventrolateral) thalamus?
A. bradykinesia
B. gait disturbance
C. rigidity
D. speech disturbance
E. tremor
E. tremor
For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither
- autosomal recessive inheritance
D. Neither
For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither
- exorbitism
C. Both
For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither
- The majority of patients have preoperative intelligence quotients (IQs) greater than 90.
B. Crouzon’s-disease
For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither
- Anterior open bite is common.
A. Apert’s syndrome
For questions 137 and 138, match the description with the symptom.
A. primary empty sella syndrome
B. secondary empty sella syndrome
C. both
D. neither
- occurs primarily in women
A. primary empty sella syndrome
For questions 137 and 138, match the description with the symptom.
A. primary empty sella syndrome
B. secondary empty sella syndrome
C. both
D. neither
- Visual disturbance may occur.
C. both
- The most common etiology of os odontoideum is
A. congenital
B. iatrogenic
C. infectious
D. neoplastic
E. traumatic
E. traumatic
- The most common mechanism of translational C1-C2 subluxation is
A. axial loading
B. distraction
C. extension
D. flexion
D. flexion
- The factor or substance with the least important role in the pathogenesis of cerebral vasospasm is probably
A. bilirubin
B. endothelin
C. intimal proliferation
D. lipid peroxides
E. oxyhemoglobin
C. intimal proliferation
- internal acoustic meatus
Jawab : D
- posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Jawab : E
- chorda tympani nerve
Jawab : G
- facial nerve
Jawab : F
- superior cerebellar artery
Jawab : B
Jawab : B
- trigeminal nerve
Jawab : C
- trochlear nerve
Jawab : A
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- most common type of spinal AVM
A. type I spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- etiology believed to be acquired
A. type I spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- also known as juvenile malformations
C. type III spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- also known as glomus AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- Low flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
A. type I spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- High flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- High flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
A. type I spinal AVMs
For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs
- Type IV and this type typically present with progressively worsening symptoms without significant clinical improvement.
A. type I spinal AVMs
- Which of the following represents the correct sequence of removal of clamps from the arteries following carotid endarterectomy?
A. common carotid, external carotid. internal carotid
B. common carotid, internal carotid. external carotid
C. external carotid. common carotid. internal carotid
D. external carotid. internal carotid. common carotid
E. internal carotid. common carotid. external carotid
C. external carotid. common carotid. internal carotid
- anterior caudate vein
Jawab : C
- column of the fornix
Jawab : B
- internal cerebral vein
Jawab : D
- septal vein
Jawab : A
- tela choroidea
Jawab : G
- thalamostriate vein
Jawab : E
- thalamus
Jawab : F
- dorsal ramus of C1
Jawab : E
- glossopharyngeal nerve
Jawab : A
- hypoglossal nerve
Jawab : D
- spinal accessory nerve
Jawab : C
- vagus nerve
Jawab : B
- anterior cerebral artery
Jawab : D
- anterior choroidal artery
Jawab : E
- middle cerebral artery
Jawab : F
- optic nerve
Jawab : A
- posterior communicating artery
Jawab : B
- superior hypophyseal artery
Jawab : C
- Which of the following is most important in determining the propensity of a dural AVM to an aggressive clinical course?
A. duration of symptoms
B. leptomeningeal venous drainage
C. location
D. presentation
E. size
B. leptomeningeal venous drainage
- The MRI shown is that of a 40-year-old patient with bitemporal hemianopia and a prolactin level of 89. The best management of this lesion is
A. bromocriptine
B. bromocriptine, then surgery
C. follow with serial MRIs
D. radiation therapy
E. surgery
E. surgery
- If the prolactin level of the same patient in question 176 was found to be 650 the best management is
A. bromocriptine
B. follow with serial MRIs and prolactin levels
C. radiation therapy
D. surgery
E. surgery, then radiation therapy
A. bromocriptine
- Of the following, the least common location of intracranial meningiomas is (the)
A. intraventricular
B. olfactory groove
C. posterior fossa
D. sphenoid ridge
E. tuberculum sella
A. intraventricular
- Each of the following statements is true of AVMs except
A. Higher pressures have been measured in the feeding arteries of smaller as compared with larger AVMs.
B. Smaller AVMs are more likely to bleed than larger AVMs.
C. The annual risk of death from a ruptured AVM is 1%.
D. The risk of bleeding from an unruptured AVM is 3 to 4% a year.
E. The risk of rebleed in the first year after hemorrhage is highest in the first 2 weeks.
E. The risk of rebleed in the first year after hemorrhage is highest in the first 2 weeks.
- The most common complication of percutaneous radiofrequency trigeminal gangliolysis is
A. anesthesia dolorosa
B. decreased hearing
C. keratitis
D. masticatory weakness
E. paresthesias or dysesthesias
E. paresthesias or dysesthesias
- In the technique of percutaneous radio frequency trigeminal gangliolysis, the needle is inserted into the
I. foramen rotundum
II. trigeminal cistern
III. foramen spinosum
IV. foramen ovale
A. I, II, III ..
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
C. II, IV
- inferior rectus muscle
Jawab : H
- inferior division of the oculomotor nerve
Jawab : D
- abducens nerve
Jawab : E
- frontal nerve
Jawab : A
- nasociliary nerve
Jawab : C
- superior division of the oculomotor nerve
Jawab : B
- optic nerve
Jawab : G
- trochlear nerve
Jawab : F
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- brachial plexus avulsion
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- causalgia
E. sympathectomy
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- obsessive-compulsive disorder
A. cingulotomy
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- nociceptive cancer pain above C5
C. morphine infusion
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- Parkinson’s disease
D. pallidotomy
For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy
- spasmodic torticollis
F. ventral rhizotomy
- Donor nerves that may be used for neurotization after brachial plexus avulsion include
I. intercostal nerves
II. spinal accessory nerve
III. cervical plexus
IV. phrenic nerve
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all ofthe above
E. all ofthe above
- The pterion is formed by which of the following bones?
A. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal
B. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal
C. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and zygomatic arch
D. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and zygomatic arch
E. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. squamous part of the temporal. And zygomatic arch
A. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal
- The most common external beam radiation therapy regimen for brain metastases is
A. 30 Gy in 2 weeks
B. 30 Gy in 4 weeks
C. 60 Gy in 2 weeks
D. 60 Gy in 4 weeks
E. 45 Gy in 4 weeks
C. 60 Gy in 2 weeks
- The most appropriate radiation treatment protocol for gliomas is
A. 8000 cGY in 400 cGY daily fractions
B. 6000 cGY in 200 cGy daily fractions
C. 6000 cGy in 100 cGy daily fractions
D. 4000 cGy in 400 cGy daily fractions
E. 4000 cGy;n 200 cGy daily fractions
B. 6000 cGY in 200 cGy daily fractions
- Cerebral salt wasting and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) may best be distinguished by measuring
A. plasma arginine vasopressin (AVP)
B. serum osmolality
C. serum sodium
D. urine sodium
E. volume status
E. volume status
