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UNAIR - NBR 2nd Edition 2005 > NBR 2 - Neuroradiology > Flashcards

NBR 2 - Neuroradiology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is a risk factor for clinically evident neurologic complications in the first 24 hours after cerebral angiography?
    I. age over 70 years
    II. duration of angiogram over 90 minutes
    III. history of transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke
    IV. history of systemic hypertension
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

Jawab (E)

Morris p. 63. Other risk factors include patients with more than 50 to 70% stenosis of the cerebral vessels, patients whose angiograms require a higher volume of contrast, and patients referred for subarachnoid hemorrhage or who are immediately postoperative.

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2
Q

2 The most common non neurologic complication of cerebral angiography via femoral artery approach is
A. angina
B. allergic reaction
C. hematoma
D. myocardial infarction (MI)
E. pseudoaneurysm

A

Jawab (B)

Morris p. 72: Significant hematoma formation occurs at a rate of approximately 6.9 to 10.7%. Angina, allergic reaction. and myocardial infarction (MI) all occur with an incidence of less than 1 to 2%. Pseudoaneurysms are rare. occurring 0.05 to 0.55% of the time.

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3
Q
  1. Branches of the meningohypophysial trunk include the
    I. tentorial artery
    II. inferior hypophysial artery
    III. dorsal meningeal artery
    IV. superior hypophysial artery
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

Jawab (A)

Osb p. 87. The meningohypophysial trunk, the largest and most proximal branch of the cavernous carotid artery, typically has three branches: the tentorial artery (of Bernasconi and Cassanari), the dorsal meningeal artery, and the inferior hypophysial artery (the inferolateral trunk). The superior hypophysial artery is a branch of the supraclinoid carotid artery.

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4
Q
  1. the most commons of the persistent anastomoses
    A. cervical intersegmental artery
    B. proatlantal intersegmental artery
    C. primitive hypoglossal artery
    D. primitive otic artery
    E. primitive trigeminal artery
A

Jawab (E)

see Apuzzo pp. 749-754.

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5
Q
  1. petrous internal carotid artery to the basilar artery

A. cervical intersegmental artery
B. proatlantal intersegmental artery
C. primitive hypoglossal artery
D. primitive otic artery
E. primitive trigeminal artery

A

Jawab (A)

see Apuzzo pp. 749-754

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6
Q
  1. proximal cavernous internal carotid artery to basilar artery

A. cervical intersegmental artery
B. proatlantal intersegmental artery
C. primitive hypoglossal artery
D. primitive otic artery
E. primitive trigeminal artery

A

Jawab (A)

see Apuzzo pp. 749-754

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7
Q
  1. The precentral cerebellar vein usually drains into the
    A. internal cerebral vein
    B. lateral mesencephalic vein
    C. posterior mesencephalic vein
    D. straight sinus
    E. vein of Galen
A

Jawab (E)

Osb p. 233. The precentral cerebellar vein is a midline vessel that courses medially over the brachium pontis, parallels the roof of the fourth ventricle, and curves upward behind the inferior colliculus and precentral lobule of the vermis to drain into the vein of Calen.

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8
Q
  1. Anterior temporal lobe masses characteristically displace the
    A. anterior choroidal artery laterally
    B. anterior choroidal artery medially
    C. anterior choroidal artery upward
    D. posterior choroidal artery downward
    E. posterior choroidal artery upward
A

Jawab (B)

Osb p. 318.

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9
Q
  1. Match the blood products of oxyhemoglobin (0-24 hours) with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (A)

see ACR Trauma case 811

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10
Q
  1. Match the blood products of deoxyhemoglobin (1-3 days) with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (D)

see ACR Trauma case 811

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11
Q
  1. Match the blood products of intracellular methemoglobin (3-14 days) with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (E)

see ACR Trauma case 811

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12
Q
  1. match the blood products of extracellular methemoglobin (>2 weeks) with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (B)

see ACR Trauma case 811.

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13
Q
  1. Match the blood products of nonparamagnetic heme pigments with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (F)

see ACR Trauma case 811.

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14
Q
  1. Match the blood products of hemosiderin around periphery with their appearance on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A. isointense on T1, isointense to hyperintense on T2
B. hyperintense on T1 and T2
C. hypo intense on T1 and T2
D. isointense on T1, hypointense on T2
E. hyperintense on T1, hypointense on T2
F. hypo intense on T1, hyperintense on T2

A

Jawab (C)

see ACR Trauma case 811.

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15
Q
  1. Match the branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that best for potential supply to vascular tumors of the middle ear
    A. caroticotympanic artery
    B. inferior hypophysial trunk
    C. inferolateral trunk
    D. mandibulovidian artery
    E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
    F. tentorial artery
A

Jawab (A)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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16
Q
  1. Match the branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that best for vestigial hyoid artery
    A. caroticotympanic artery
    B. inferior hypophysial trunk
    C. inferolateral trunk
    D. mandibulovidian artery
    E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
    F. tentorial artery
A

Jawab (A)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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17
Q
  1. Match the branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that best for common supply to juvenile angiofibromas.
    A. caroticotympanic artery
    B. inferior hypophysial trunk
    C. inferolateral trunk
    D. mandibulovidian artery
    E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
    F. tentorial artery
A

Jawab (D)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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18
Q
  1. Match the branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that also called the artery of Bernasconi and Cassanari
    A. caroticotympanic artery
    B. inferior hypophysial trunk
    C. inferolateral trunk
    D. mandibulovidian artery
    E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
    F. tentorial artery
A

Jawab (F)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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19
Q
  1. Together with the inferior hypophysial artery, these vessels supply the pituitary gland.

A. caroticotympanic artery
B. inferior hypophysial trunk
C. inferolateral trunk
D. mandibulovidian artery
E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
F. tentorial artery

A

Jawab (E)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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20
Q
  1. Together with the caroticotympanic artery, it is a branch of the petrous internal carotid artery

A. caroticotympanic artery
B. inferior hypophysial trunk
C. inferolateral trunk
D. mandibulovidian artery
E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
F. tentorial artery

A

Jawab (D)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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21
Q
  1. The branch of the internal carotid artery that make anastomoses with the superior hypophysial artery

A. caroticotympanic artery
B. inferior hypophysial trunk
C. inferolateral trunk
D. mandibulovidian artery
E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
F. tentorial artery

A

Jawab (B)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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22
Q
  1. The branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that is remnant of the embryonic dorsal ophthalmic artery
    A. caroticotympanic artery
    B. inferior hypophysial trunk
    C. inferolateral trunk
    D. mandibulovidian artery
    E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
    F. tentorial artery
A

Jawab (C)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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23
Q
  1. The branch of the internal carotid artery with the statement that provides important branches to some of the cranial nerves.

A. caroticotympanic artery
B. inferior hypophysial trunk
C. inferolateral trunk
D. mandibulovidian artery
E. McConnell’s capsular vessels
F. tentorial artery

A

Jawab (C)

see Morris pp. 117-130

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24
Q
  1. The correct order of the named segments of the anterior choroidal artery is
    A. cisternal segment, plexal point, plexal segment
    B. cisternal segment, plexal segment, plexal point
    C. plexal point, cisternal segment, plexal segment
    D. plexal point, plexal segment, cisternal segment
    E. plexal segment, plexal point, cisternal segment
A

Jawab (A)

Osb pp. 100-101. The anterior choroidal artery (AChA) is best seen on the anteroposterior angiogram arising from the medial internal carotid artery. The cisternal AChA curves medially and posteriorly around the uncus. An abrupt “kink is seen at the plexal point where the AChA enters the choroidal fissure. The plexal AChA then courses through the temporal horn.

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25
Q
  1. In the most common anatomic variation, the named branches of the proximal right subclavian artery from proximal to distal are

A. internal mammary artery, thyrocervical trunk, vertebral artery, costocervical trunk

B. internal mammary artery, vertebral artery, thyrocervical trunk, costocervical trunk

C. vertebral artery, internal mammary artery, costocervical trunk, thyrocervical trunk

D. vertebral artery, internal mammary artery, thyrocervical trunk, costocervical trunk

E. vertebral artery, thyrocervical trunk, internal mammary artery, costocervical trunk

A

Jawab (D)

Morris p. 101. Although this is the most common variation, others include the inferior thyroid artery sharing a common trunk with the vertebral artery, the vertebral artery from the thyrocervical trunk, the vertebral artery from the proximal common carotid artery, and the vertebral artery from the subclavian artery distal to the thyrocervical trunk.

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26
Q
  1. The most common site of origin of the recurrent artery of Heubner is the
    A. A 1 segment.
    B. A2 segment
    C. internal carotid artery
    D. Ml segment
    E. M2 segment
A

Jawab (B)

Osb p. 120. The recurrent artery of Heubner (one of the medial striate arteries) takes origin from the A2 segment 34 to 50% of the time, from the A1 segment 17 to 45% of the time, and from the anterior communicating artery 5 to 20% of the time.

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27
Q
  1. Intracranial hypotension related to leakage or removal of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is most closely associated with which magnetic resonance finding?
    A. diffuse dural enhancement
    B. ependymal enhancement
    C. pneumocephalus
    D. slitlike ventricles
    E. ventriculomegaly
A

Jawab (A)

Yock p. 333. This enhancement is thought to represent an increase in blood volume in the dura. Inferior displacement of the structures in the posterior fossa may accompany this finding in such cases of intracranial hypotension.

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following imaging characteristics is least likely for pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma?
    A. calcification
    B. cyst formation
    C. multiple lesions
    D. superficial location
    E. temporal lobe location
A

Jawab (C)

Yock p. 72. This variant of astrocytoma usually presents as a large single mass in a young patient with a long history of seizures. The other options listed are typical.

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29
Q
  1. Choroid plexus papillomas in children are most common in the
    A. fourth ventricle
    B. left lateral ventricle
    C. right lateral ventricle
    D. third ventricle
A

Jawab (B)

Yock p. 204. This propensity to lateralize has not been explained. These large bulky tumors usually arise in the trigone.

30
Q
  1. Choroid plexus papillomas in adults occur most commonly in the
    A. fourth ventricle
    B. left lateral ventricle
    C. right lateral ventricle
    D. third ventricle
A

Jawab (A)

Yock pp. 204-205. These tumors in the adult population are often found at the caudal aspect of the fourth ventricle and frequently calcify.

31
Q
  1. Which one of the following white matter lesions usually initially involves the parieto-occipital regions?
    A. adrenoleukodystrophy
    B. Canavan’s disease
    C. metachromatic leukodystrophy
    D. multiple sclerosis
    E. Schilder’s disease
A

Jawab (A)

Yock p. 252. The lesions of adrenoleukodystrophy are usually symmetrical, begin in the parieto-occipital region, and spread anteriorly.

32
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to caudal displacement of cerebellar tonsils
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (C)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of
inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

33
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to Beaking of the midbrain tectum is characteristic.
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (B)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

34
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to A meningomyelocoele is virtually always present
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (B)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of
inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

35
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to Medullary kinking is seen
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (B)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of
inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

36
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to Occipital or high cervical encephalocele is present.
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (D)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of
inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

37
Q
  1. Match the description with the malformation to usually presents in young adulthood
    A. Chiari I malformation
    B. Chiari II malformation
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (A)

Yock pp. 520-521. Chiari I malformations consist of
inferior displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum. They usually occur in early adulthood. In Chiari II malformations, the caudal displacement of the hindbrain is more severe, with beaking of the tectum and medullary kinking often seen. Myelomeningoceles are virtually always present. Chiari II malformations usually present in infancy. Chiari III malformations display the most severe displacement of posterior fossa structures and are often associated with a high cervical or occipital meningocele.

38
Q
  1. The term bovine arch refers to
    A. bi-innominate arteries
    B. left common carotid artery origin from the aortic arch
    C. left common carotid artery origin from the right brachiocephalic trunk
    D. right aortic arch
    E. right subclavian artery distal to the left subclavian artery
A

Jawab (C)

Morris pp. 99-101. The left common carotid artery usually arises from the aortic arch distal to the right brachiocephalic artery. In the bovine arch variant, the left common carotid artery arises from the proximal right brachiocephalic artery. Variant A is rare. A right aortic arch may be incidental or associated with congenital heart disease. Variant E is associated with Down syndrome.

39
Q
  1. The differential diagnosis of colpocephaly. or dilatation of the posterior portion of the lateral ventricles. includes
    I. agenesis of the corpus callosum
    II. Leigh’s disease
    III. periventricular leukomalacia
    IV. Hallervorden-Spatz disease

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II.IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

Jawab (B)

Yock pp. 367.525. Agenesis of the corpus callosum and periventricular leukomalacia can both result in colpocephaly. Leigh’s disease and Hallervorden- Spatz disease can both cause symmetric lesions of the globus pallidus but are not associated with colpocephaly.

40
Q
  1. Schizencephaly is essentially a
    A. demyelinating illness
    B. disease that first develops in the elderly
    C. disorder of neuronal migration
    D. neurodegenerative disorder
    E. psychiatric disorder
A

Jawab (C)

Yock pp. 540-522. The cleft of schizoencephaly can be unilateral or bilateral, but it usually involves the region near the central sulcus. Patients can present with seizures or focal deficits.

41
Q
  1. The differential diagnosis of optic nerve thickening includes
    I. optic nerve sheath meningioma
    II. orbitC\l pseudotumor
    III. optic nerve glioma
    IV. Graves’disease

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

Jawab (E)

Yock p. 305. Optic nerve thickening may be caused by nonneoplastic processes like Graves’ disease, orbital pseudotumor, optic neuritis, papilledema, and vascular malformations, or by tumors like gliomas, meningiomas, lymphomas, leukemia, and metastases.

42
Q
  1. The most common primary benign tumor of the adult orbit is (a)
    A. cavernous hemangioma
    B. dermoid cyst
    C. lymphangioma
    D. optic nerve glioma
    E. sarcoidosis
A

Jawab (A)

Y p. 1373. Cavernous hemangiomas of the orbit are usually well demarcated, vascular, intraconal lesions with smooth or lobulated borders

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is a branch of the ophthalmic artery?
    A. anterior ethmoidal artery
    B. posterior ethmoidal artery
    C. both
    D. neither
A

Jawab (C)

Morris pp. 135-137. The ethmoidal arteries are branches of the ophthalmic artery. They supply a portion of the anterior cranial fossa and the mucosa of the nasal septum. During embolization of the internal maxillary artery, dangerous potential anastomoses from the sphenopalatine branches of the internal maxillary to branches of the ophthalmic artery.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following set of findings on a lumbar MRI scan performed immediately after contrast injection is most characteristic of a recurrent disk herniation and epidural fibrosis. respectively?

A. a rim of enhancement in the recurrent disk. diffuse enhancement in the fibrosis

B. a rim of enhancement in the fibrosis. diffuse enhancement in the recurrent disk

C. a rim of enhancement in the recurrent disk. no enhancement in the fibrosis

D. diffuse enhancement in the recurrent disk, no enhancement in the fibrosis

E. no enhancement of either the recurrent disk or fibrosis

A

Jawab (A)

Yock pp. 582-583. Scar tissue contains vascular granulation tissue that enhances more diffusely than a residual or recurrent disk.

45
Q
  1. Lesions in diffuse axonal injury are commonly found in the
    I. corpus callosum
    II. gray-white junction
    III. rostral brainstem
    IV. temporal lobe

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II.IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

Jawab (A)

GTT p. 1426.

46
Q
  1. Acute subarachnoid hemorrhage is more difficult to diagnose on MRI than on computed tomography (IT) because
    A. Extracellular methemoglobin is isointense on T1 and T2
    B. Hemosiderin is isointense on T1 and T2.
    C. Most radiologists are not familiar with the appearance of acute subarachnoid hemorrhage on MRI.
    D. The high oxygen tension in the subarachnoid space prevents conversion of oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin.
    E. The low oxygen tension in the subarachnoid space prevents conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin.
A

Jawab (D)

GlT pp. 1437-1438.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the choroidal blush?
    A. It is an indicator of the choroidal plexus in the lateral ventricle.
    B. It is best seen on the anteroposterior projection.
    C. It is from the posterior ethmoidal branches of the ophthalmic artery.
    D. Its configuration is usually a thin. dense crescent.
    E. Its presence usually indicates an elevated intraocular pressure.
A

Jawab (D)

Morris p. 137. The choroidal blush signifies the choroidal plexus of the eye and is supplied by the ciliary branches of the ophthalmic artery. It is characteristically seen as a thin crescent on the lateral projection of the internal carotid angiogram. Its absence can be an indirect sign of elevated intraorbital or intraocular pressure.

48
Q
  1. The most likely etiology of this neonate’s pathology is

A. astrocytoma
B. metastatic tumor
C. StaphylocQ,ccus aureus
D. Citrobacter

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR Fig. 3-24A, p. 177. Large neonatal brain abscesses are usually caused by Citrobacter, Bacteroides, hoteus, and various gram-negative bacilli.

49
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (C)

Burg 3 Fig. 1.1, p. 2. (Courtesy of Dr. John A. Goree, Durham, NC.) Note involvement of the left facial bones.

50
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (A)

Burg Fig. 1.12, p. 5. (Courtesy of Dr. John A. Goree, Durham, NC.) A discrete radiolucent area is seen.

51
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (D)

Burg 3 Fig. 1.38, p. 22. The honeycomb pattern is characteristic.

52
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (F)

Burg Fig. 1.52, p. 21. A discrete high-density lesion with smooth contours is seen.

53
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (E)

Burg 3 Fig. 1.90, p. 48. Multiple round discrete lesions are characteristic.

54
Q
  1. Identify the lesions.
    A. eosinophilic granuloma
    B. epidermoid cyst
    C. fibrous dysplasia
    D. hemangioma
    E. multiple myeloma
    F. osteoma
A

Jawab (B)

Burg Fig. 1.96, p. 37. (Courtesy of Dr. John A. Goree, Durham, NC.) The scalloped border and sclerotic rim are characteristic.

55
Q
  1. Gambar

A. hemangioblastoma
B. juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
C. cysticercosis
D. medulloblastoma
E. growing skull fracture

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-32B, p. 184. The smooth and thin-walled intraventricular cyst with a mural nodule is classic for cysticercosis.

56
Q
  1. Gambar

A. fetal origin of the posterior cerebral artery
B. moyamoya disease
C. persistent acoustic artery
D. persistent hypoglossal artery
E. persistent trigeminal artery

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 1-5. A fetal origin of the posterior cerebral artery from the internal carotid circulation is seen in about 20% of anatomic dissections.

57
Q
  1. Gambar

A. corpus callosum lipoma
B. craniopharyngioma
C. giant aneurysm
D. glioblastoma multiforme
E. growing skull fracture

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-127A. Peripheral calcification is common in these lipomas.

58
Q
  1. Gambar

A. cysticercosis
B. infarct
C. low-grade astrocytoma
D. mycotic aneurysm
E. Neurocytoma

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-32A. A small ring-enhancing lesion surrounded by a zone of low density is typical of cysticercosis.

59
Q
  1. Gambar

A. multifocal glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)
B. multiple sclerosis
C. metastatic carcinoma
D. neurocytoma
E. tuberous sclerosis

A

Jawab (E)

CNBR Fig. 3-176A. Shown are giant-cell subependymal astrocytomas of tuberous sclerosis. These hamartomatous lesions in the subependymal region are sometimes called “candle guttering.”

60
Q
  1. Gambar

A. ganglioglioma
B. s. aureus
C. herpes simplex virus
D. lymphoma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-36C, p. 189. The inflammation of the mesial temporal lobe with diffuse edema is most characteristic of herpes encephalitis. There is often associated hemorrhage.

61
Q
  1. Gambar

A. aqueductal stenosis
B. brainstem astrocytoma
C. Chiari malformation
D. pituitary tumor
E. polymicrogyria

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-66A. Diffuse enlargement of the pons is seen.

62
Q
  1. Gambar

A. congestive heart failure
B. fever and chills
C. headaches
D. hemiparesis
E. subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 140B. The signal intensity of colloid cysts is variable on either TI- or T2-weighted MRI. Short TI values (hyperintense images) reflect proteinaceous material. These masses arise from the anterior roof of the third ventricle.

63
Q
  1. Gambar

A. arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
B. cavernous hemangioma
C. CBM
D. metastatic carcinoma
E. tuberculoma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-235D. The dark halo of decreased signal is caused by iron in hemosiderin in this T2-weighted MRI. This is an almost diagnostic image of a cavernous hemangioma.

64
Q
  1. Gambar

A. astrocytoma
B. Chiari malformation
C. diskitis
D. metastatic disease
E. syringomyelia

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-267A. The diffuse fusiform widening of the cord with variable signal intensity is consistent with a diffuse or fibrillary astrocytoma.

65
Q
  1. Gambar

A. renal cell carcinoma
B. ash-leaf macules
C. shagreen patches
D. cardiac rhabdomyoma

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-53B, p. 207. The enhancing intraventricular mass near the foramen of Monro is a subependymal giant-cell astrocytoma that is associated with tuberous sclerosis. The right ventricular calcified mass is a subependymal tuber. Renal cell carcinoma is associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome.

66
Q
  1. Gambar

A. astrocytoma
B. ependymoma
C. meningioma
D. myelomeningocele
E. tuberculosis

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-266. The discrete lobulated appearance of the myxopapillary ependymoma is illustrated. These tumors originate from the conus medullaris or filum terminale.

67
Q
  1. Gambar

A. aneurysmal bone cyst
B. hemangioma
C. metastatic disease
D. osteomyelitis
E. radiation change

A

Jawab (B)

GTT Fig. 85.10, p. 1299. The typical polka-dot appearance of a hemangioma of the vertebral body is seen.

68
Q
  1. The most appropriate treatment for a patient with multiple ischemic events and the accompanying angiogram is

A. carotid endarterectomy
B. encephalomyosynangiosis
C. heparinization
D. superficial temporal artery to middle cerebral artery bypass
E. no treatment

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-200A. The angiogram illustrates a carotid dissection. The internal carotid gradually tapers distal to its origin: the “string sign.”

69
Q
  1. Gambar

A. AVM
B. low-grade astrocytoma
C. multiple sclerosis
D. normal CT
E. sagittal sinus thrombosis

A

Jawab (E)

McKhann Fig. 165. This contrast CT scan illustrates the “empty delta sign” suggestive of sagittal sinus thrombosis. The triangle develops because of enhancement of vascular channels around the occluded sinus.

70
Q
  1. Gambar

A. astrocytoma
B. arachnoid cyst
C. abscess
D. metastatic tumor

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-142, p. 256. This low-intensity extra-axial mass without surrounding edema is consistent with an arachnoid cyst. The most common location is the middle fossa.

UNAIR - NBR 2nd Edition 2005 (8 decks)

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