NBR 2 - Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. choroid plexus papilloma
B. ependymoma
C. medulloblastoma
D. meningioma
E. pituitary adenoma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-85. Dense, hyperchromatic cells are radially arranged in Homer-Wright rosettes with central granulofibrillar material.

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2
Q
  1. Gambar

A. choroid plexus papilloma
B. craniopharyngioma
C. hemangioblastoma
D. metastatic tumor
E. myxopapillary ependymoma

A

Jawab (E)

CNBR Fig. 3-71. Mucinous material accumulating about a hyalinalized vessel wall is characteristic.

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3
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. choroid plexus papilloma
B. craniopharyngioma
C. hemangioblastoma
D. metastatic tumor
E. myxopapillary ependymoma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-102. Palisading epithelial cells with keratinization and calcification are prominent

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4
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. choroid plexus papilloma
B. craniopharyngioma
C. hemangioblastoma
D. metastatic tumor
E. myxopapillary ependymoma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-100. Vacuolated “stromal” cells in a complex capillary network are seen.

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5
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. butterfly glioma
B. carbon monoxide poisoning
C. fat emboli
D. lipoma
E. lipofuscin deposition

A

Jawab (D)

Ok Fig. 7-64A, p.257. Lipoma of the corpus callosum

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6
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. carbon monoxide poisoning
B. fat emboli
C. Hallervorden-Spatz disease
D. miliary tuberculosis
E. Wilson’s disease

A

Jawab (A)

Nelson fig. 10-3, p. 178. Selective necrosis of the globus pallidus is noted.

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7
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. ependymoma
B. GBM
C. medulloblastoma
D. meningioma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-59. Necrosis with pseudopalisading is well illustrated in this GBM.

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8
Q
  1. Gambar:

The patient in this photograph is most likely to have

A. metastatic disease
B. NF – 1
C. NF – 2
D. tuberous sclerosis
E. von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR fig. 3-177. The adenoma sebaceum of tuberoussclerosis is seen.

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9
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Anaplastic astrocytoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. meningioma
D. metastatic tumor
E. oligodendriglioma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-93. Meningotheliomatous (syncytial) type of meningioma.

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10
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. GBM
B. malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
C. meningioma
D. neurofibroma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-94. Fibrous type of meningioma.

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11
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. GBM
B. malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
C. meningioma
D. neurofibroma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR Fig. 3-149. Bundles of elongated Schwann’s cells with characteristic wavy nuclei in a loose mucinous or collagenous matrix are features of the neurofibroma.

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12
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. GBM
B. malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
C. meningioma
D. neurofibroma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-152. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors are composed of spindle cells in fascicles with occasional mitoses and foci of necrosis

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13
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. GBM
B. malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
C. meningioma
D. neurofibroma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (E)

CNBR Fig. 3-145. Verocay bodies, palisading elongated nuclei encircling anuclear fibrillary material, are hallmarks of schwannomas.

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14
Q
  1. Gambar:

This lesion is associated with the

A. filum terminale
B. kidney
C. notochord
D. pituitary
E. von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-130. Chordomas feature “physaliferous” or “bubbly” cells Surrounding pools of mucin

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15
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. HSV-l
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Parkinson’s disease
E. Pick’s disease

A

Jawab (C)

Nelson Fig. 11-9, p. 230. Atrophy of the head of the caudate with “boxcar” ventricles is noted.

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16
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. bacterial meningitis
B. candidiasis
C. neuritic plaques
D. neurofibrillary tangles
E. pick’s bodies

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-189. Neuritic (“senile”) plaques (composed of degenerating nerve cell processes surrounding a central core of amyloid composed of ß/A4 protein) and neurofibrillary tangles are seen

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17
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
B. adrenoleukodystrophy
C. alexander’s disease
D. krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Jawab (C)

Nelson Fig. 13-41, p. 262. Numerous Rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic material in cell processes) in areas of astrocytosis are noted.

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18
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. amyloid angiopathy
B. Duret’s hemorrhage
C. GBM
D. hypertensive hemorrhage
E. melanoma

A

Jawab (D)

Nelson Fig. 8-10a, p. 127. A massive basal ganglia hypertensive hemorrhage is noted.

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19
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. central neuroblastoma
B. colloid cysts
C. GBM
D. hemangioblastoma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-91. A dense array of uniform undifferentiated cells with small blue nuclei and perinuclear halos is found in neurocytomas. The findings are similar to oligodendrogliomas, but central neurocytomas stain with synaptophysin and neuron-specific enolase (NSE).

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20
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. multiple sclerosis
D. radiation myelopathy
E. subacute combined degeneration

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-279. Posterior columns, spinocerebellar tracts, and corticospinal tracts are affected.

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21
Q
  1. Gambar

A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. multiple sclerosis
D. radiation myelopathy
E. subacute combined degeneration

A

Jawab (E)

Ok Fig. 6-12A, p. 195. There is a spongiform and gliotic appearance of the cord primarily affecting the posterior and lateral columns.

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22
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. multiple sclerosis
D. radiation myelopathy
E. subacute combined degeneration

A

Jawab (D)

Ok Fig. 6-16B, p. 198. There is an irregular area of coagulation necrosis involving both gray and white matter.

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23
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. multiple sclerosis
D. radiation myelopathy
E. subacute combined degeneration

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-282. Well-defined plaques are seen.

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24
Q
  1. Gambar

A. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. multiple sclerosis
D. radiation myelopathy
E. subacute combined degeneration

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-276. The anterior horn and corticospinal tract are affected

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25
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. gliomatosis cerebri
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Krabbe’s disease
D. multiple sclerosis
E. tuberous sclerosis

A

Jawab (E)

Nelson Fig. 20-10, p. 453. Cortical tubers are seen in the frontal and temporal lobes.

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26
Q
  1. Gambar

A. choroid plexus papilloma
B. ependymoma
C. lymphoma
D. medulloblastoma
E. meningioma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-70. The histologic appearance of ependymomas is highly variable. A cellular variety with sheetlike growth of oval to polygonal cells arranged in a pseudovascular rosette is illustrated.

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27
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. chordoma
B. dermoid
C. metastatic tumor
D. myxopapillary ependymoma
E. teratoma

A

Jawab (E)

Nelson Fig. 16-161, p. 365. Cartilage, mucin-producing epithelium, and immature spindle cell stroma are all part of this immature teratoma

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28
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. advanced age and lobar hemorrhages
B. alcoholism and prone to falls
C. port-wine stain on the face
D. retinal angiomas
E. subungual fibromas

A

Jawab (C)

Ok fig. 7-72A, p. 264. Atrophy of the hemisphere and leptomeningeal venous angioma are present in this specimen with Sturge-Weber syndrome.

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29
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. acoustic neuroma
B. anaplastic astrocytoma
C. medulloblastoma
D. melanoma
E. meningioma

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-143. Dense Antoni A areas (with compact spindle cells) and looser Antoni B areas (with stellate cells) are typical of an acoustic neuroma (schwannoma).

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30
Q
  1. Gambar

A. carbon monoxide poisoning
B. cerebral contusions
C. herpes encephalitis
D. meningeal carcinomatosis
E. metastatic melanomas

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR Fig. 3-137. Epitheloid cells with melanin inclusions are seen.

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31
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. acoustic neuroma
B. anaplastic astrocytoma
C. medulloblastoma
D. melanoma
E. meningioma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-57. Cellular pleomorphism, hypercellularity, and mitotic activity characterize this anaplastic astrocytoma.

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32
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. anaplastic astrocytoma
B. Infact
C. metachromatic leukodystrophy
D. multiple sclerosis
E. radiation necrosis

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-188. Large confluent areas of dysmyelination with U-fiber sparing is typical of metachromatic leukodystrophy.

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33
Q

151 Gambar:

A. anaplastic astrocytoma
B. Infact
C. metachromatic leukodystrophy
D. multiple sclerosis
E. radiation necrosis

A

Jawab (D)

The periventricular plaques of multiple sclerosis are seen.

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34
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. epidermoid
B. lipoma
C. metastatic tumor
D. multiple sclerosis
E. teratoma

A

Jawab (A)

Ok Fig. 7-62A, p. 255. A large cerebellopontine angle epidermoid with white flaky, keratinous debris is illustrated.

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35
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. astrocytoma
B. lymphoma
C. melanoma
D. oligodendroglioma
E. pituitary adenoma

A

Jawab (B)

CNBR Fig. 3-139. A perivascular infiltration of cells with pleomorphic nuclear features characterizes this lymphoma.

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36
Q
  1. Gambar

A. meningioma
B. neurofibroma
C. pilocystic astrocytoma
D. pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (C)

CNBR Fig. 3-51. Compact fascicles of elongated cells and spongiform foci with stellate forms and microcystic change are noted.

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37
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. aneurisma subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. bacterial meningitis
C. contusion
D. HSV – 1
E. subdural hematoma

A

Jawab (C)

Nelson Fig. 9.18A, p. 149. Extensive bilateral contrecoup contusions of the orbital surfaces and frontal poles are illustrated.

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38
Q
  1. Gambar

A. amyloid angiopathy
B. arteriovenous malformation
C. capillary telangiectasia
D. embolism
E. venous angioma

A

Jawab (A)

CNBR Fig. 3-204A. The arterioles of the leptomeninges and superficial cortex are dilated, and amorphous material infiltrates the wall.

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39
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. astrocytoma
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. Pick’s disease

A

Jawab (E)

Nelson Fig. 11.7, p. 228. Selective atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes consistent with Pick’s disease is noted.

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40
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Astrocytoma
B. GBM
C. hemangioblastoma
D. medulloblastoma
E. metastasis

A

Jawab (C)

Ok Fig. 7-48A, p. 245. The vascular mural nodule in the left cerebellar hemisphere and the associated cyst (midline) is consistent with a cerebellar hemangioblastoma.

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41
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Astrocytoma
B. GBM
C. neurofibroma
D. pituitary adenoma
E. schwannoma

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR Fig. 3-112. The normal acinar, heterogenous appearance of the pituitary is replaced by a diffuse sheet of polygonal cells.

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42
Q
  1. Gambar:

A. Dejerine-Sottas disease
B. Krabbe’s disease
C. metachromatic leukodystrophy
D. normal peripheral nerve
E. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

Jawab (D)

CNBR Fig. 3-308. A section from normal sural nerve is illustrated.

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43
Q
  1. The organism most frequently identified in brain abscesses is
    A. Bacteroides
    B. Candida
    C. Citrobacter
    D. microaerophilic Streptococcus
    E. Staphylococ cus
A

Jawab : D

Microaerophilic and anaerobic streptococci are the most frequently identified organisms in brain abscesses.

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44
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. Mees’ transverse white lines on fingernails
A

Jawab : A

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45
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. psychological dysfunction (“mad as a hatter”)
A

Jawab : C

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46
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. Parkinson’s symptoms
A

Jawab : D

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47
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. red blood cell basophylic stippling
A

Jawab : C

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48
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. Brain levels increased by dimercaprol (BAL).
A

Jawab : C

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49
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. Symptoms improve with L-dopa.
A

Jawab : D

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50
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. increased urine coproporphyrin
A

Jawab : B

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51
Q

For questions 2 to 9, match the metal with the toxidty or description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. arsenic
B. lead
C. mercury
D. manganese

  1. Both penicillamine and BAL are used in treatment.
A

Jawab : B

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52
Q

For questions 10 to 14, match the structure with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibrillary tangles
B. neuritic plaques
C. both
D. neither

  1. intranuclear
A

Jawab : D

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are both intracytoplasmic;both contain paired helical filaments and are revealed with silver stains. The central core of the plaque is composed of p/A4, not a protein. The tangles are immunoreactive for z protein.

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53
Q

For questions 10 to 14, match the structure with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibrillary tangles
B. neuritic plaques
C. both
D. neither

  1. Core composed of Cl protein.
A

Jawab : D

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are both intracytoplasmic;both contain paired helical filaments and are revealed with silver stains. The central core of the plaque is composed of p/A4, not a protein. The tangles are immunoreactive for z protein.

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54
Q

For questions 10 to 14, match the structure with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibrillary tangles
B. neuritic plaques
C. both
D. neither
12. contains paired helical filaments

A

Jawab : C

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are both intracytoplasmic;both contain paired helical filaments and are revealed with silver stains. The central core of the plaque is composed of p/A4, not a protein. The tangles are immunoreactive for z protein.

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55
Q

For questions 10 to 14, match the structure with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibrillary tangles
B. neuritic plaques
C. both
D. neither

  1. immunoreactive for t protein
A

Jawab : A

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are both intracytoplasmic;both contain paired helical filaments and are revealed with silver stains. The central core of the plaque is composed of p/A4, not a protein. The tangles are immunoreactive for z protein.

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56
Q

For questions 10 to 14, match the structure with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibrillary tangles
B. neuritic plaques
C. both
D. neither

  1. revealed with silver stains
A

Jawab : C

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are both intracytoplasmic;both contain paired helical filaments and are revealed with silver stains. The central core of the plaque is composed of p/A4, not a protein. The tangles are immunoreactive for z protein.

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57
Q
  1. Most meningiomas express immunoreactivity for
    A. cytokeratin
    B. desmin
    C. glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
    D. S-100 protein
    E. vimentin
A

Jawab : E

Vimentin and epithelial membrane antigen are expressed by the majority of meningiomas.

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58
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of ganglioglioms except that
    A. The astrocytes are GFAP positive.
    B. The ganglion cells are synaptophysin positive.
    C. They contain neuropeptides.
    D. They are usually diffusely infiltrative.
    E. They are most common in the temporal lobes
A

Jawab : D
Gangliogliomas are usually well circumscribed and can be partially cystic.

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59
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with trisomy 13?
    A. holoprosencephaly
    B. hypertelorism
    C. microcephaly
    D. microphthalmia
    E. polydactyly
A

Jawab : B

Hypotelorism, not hypertelorism, is associated with trisomy 13.

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of ependymomas?
    A. blepharoplasts in the basal cytoplasm
    B. intermediate filaments that are immunohistochemically identical to glial filaments of astrocytes
    C. perivascular pseudorosettes
    D. surface microvilli
    E. true rosette formation
A

Jawab : A

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61
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
A

Jawab : A

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

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62
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. Korsakoffs psychosis
A

Jawab : A

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

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63
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. pellegra
A

Jawab : B

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

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64
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. beriberi
A

Jawab : A

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

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65
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. seen in rice eaters
A

Jawab : A

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

66
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. seen in corn eaters
A

Jawab : B

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

67
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. rickets
A

Jawab : E

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

68
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. pernicious anemia
A

Jawab : C

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

69
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. subacute combined degeneration
A

Jawab : C

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

70
Q

For questions 19 to 28, match the vitamin with the description of its deficiency or toxicity. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. thiamine
B. niacin
C. vitamin B12
D. vitamin A
E. vitamin D

  1. pseudotumor
A

Jawab : D

Diets heavy in corn lack tryptophan that is used to synthesize niacin. Diets heavy in refined rice are more likely to lack sufficient thiamine. Vitamin A toxicity may cause cerebral edema with a pseudotumor presentation. Pernicious anemia can lead to a B12 deficiency with megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

71
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of lymphomas (non-Hodgkin’s malignant lymphomas) of the central nervous system (eNS)?
    A. All exhibit a diffuse histologic pattern.
    B. Meningeal lesions are more common in primary lymphomas.
    C. Most are ofT-ceil lineage.
    D. Parenchymal lesions are more common in secondary lymphomas.
    E. They are radioresistant.
A

Jawab : A

Meningeal infiltration is the most common lesion in secondary lymphomas,and parenchymal lesions are the most common lesion in primary lymphomas. Most are of B-cell lineage and are radiosensitive. Nodular lymphomas are not seen in the central nervous system (CNS); all show a diffuse histology.

72
Q
  1. Which ofthe following is not seen in Sturge-Weber syndrome?
    A. cortical arteriovenous malformations
    B. facial nevus
    C. intracortical calcification
    D. meningeal angioma
    E. seizures
A

Jawab : A

Cortical arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) are not characteristic of the Sturge-Weber syndrome.

73
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of the cord pathology in pernicious anemia except
    A. Demyelination occurs.
    B. Lumbar levels are most severely affected.
    C. Lesions may occur in the medulla.
    D. Vacuolar distention of myelin sheaths occur.
    E. Wallerian degeneration occurs.
A

Jawab : B

The demyelination, spongiosis, and gliosis seen in vitamin B12 deficiency are most common at lower cervical and thoracic levels.

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with progressive multi focal encephalopathy?
    A. bacterial infection
    B. demyelination
    C. increased numbers of oligodendroglial cells
    D. intense inflammatory infiltrate
    E. shrunken oligodendroglial nuclei at the periphery of the lesion
A

Jawab : B

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyis caused by a papovavirus (notably the JC virus). Lesions occur mainly in the white matter and consist of foci of myelin and oligodendroglial cell loss with minimal inflammatory infiltrate. Hyperchromatic enlarged oligodendroglial nuclei are found at the margin of the lesions.

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with von Hippel-Lindau disease?
    I. hepatic cysts
    II. hemangioblastoma ofthe spinal cord
    III. renal cysts
    IV. renal cell carcinoma
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

Jawab : E

Other associations are retinal hemangioblastomas, adrenal tumors, and polycythemia. The latter results from the production of a hematopoietic factor by the tumor.

76
Q

For questions 34 to 38, match the tumor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibroma
B . schwannoma
C. both
D. neither

  1. Antoni A areas
A

Jawab : B

Schwannomas are charac- terized by a biphasic cellular pattern composed of compact spindle cells (Antoni A areas) and loosely arranged stellate cells (Antoni B areas). Also seen are Verocay bodies, which result from the palisading of elongated nuclei alternating with anuclear fibrillar material. Neurofibromas incorporate the parent nerve and hence have axons in their midst. The plexiform type is considered pathognomonic for neurofibromatosistype 1.

77
Q

For questions 34 to 38, match the tumor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibroma
B . schwannoma
C. both
D. neither

  1. Antoni B areas
A

Jawab : B

Schwannomas are charac- terized by a biphasic cellular pattern composed of compact spindle cells (Antoni A areas) and loosely arranged stellate cells (Antoni B areas). Also seen are Verocay bodies, which result from the palisading of elongated nuclei alternating with anuclear fibrillar material. Neurofibromas incorporate the parent nerve and hence have axons in their midst. The plexiform type is considered pathognomonic for neurofibromatosistype 1.

78
Q

For questions 34 to 38, match the tumor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibroma
B . schwannoma
C. both
D. neither

  1. Verocay bodies
A

Jawab : B

Schwannomas are charac- terized by a biphasic cellular pattern composed of compact spindle cells (Antoni A areas) and loosely arranged stellate cells (Antoni B areas). Also seen are Verocay bodies, which result from the palisading of elongated nuclei alternating with anuclear fibrillar material. Neurofibromas incorporate the parent nerve and hence have axons in their midst. The plexiform type is considered pathognomonic for neurofibromatosistype 1.

79
Q

For questions 34 to 38, match the tumor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibroma
B . schwannoma
C. both
D. neither

  1. Axons are present between tumor cells.
A

Jawab : A

Schwannomas are charac- terized by a biphasic cellular pattern composed of compact spindle cells (Antoni A areas) and loosely arranged stellate cells (Antoni B areas). Also seen are Verocay bodies, which result from the palisading of elongated nuclei alternating with anuclear fibrillar material. Neurofibromas incorporate the parent nerve and hence have axons in their midst. The plexiform type is considered pathognomonic for neurofibromatosistype 1.

80
Q

For questions 34 to 38, match the tumor with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. neurofibroma
B . schwannoma
C. both
D. neither

  1. The plexiform type is strongly associated with neurofibromatosis type 1.
A

Jawab : A

Schwannomas are charac- terized by a biphasic cellular pattern composed of compact spindle cells (Antoni A areas) and loosely arranged stellate cells (Antoni B areas). Also seen are Verocay bodies, which result from the palisading of elongated nuclei alternating with anuclear fibrillar material. Neurofibromas incorporate the parent nerve and hence have axons in their midst. The plexiform type is considered pathognomonic for neurofibromatosistype 1.

81
Q
  1. Which one of the following cerebral metastases has the greatest tendency to hemorrhage?
    A. breast
    B. choriocarcinoma
    C. gastrointestinal (GI) tract
    D. ovarian
    E. prostate
A

Jawab : B

Hemorrhage is also common in melanoma, renal cell carcinoma, and lung carcinoma.

82
Q

For questions 40 to 44, match the time period after a cerebral infarct with the histologic appearance. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. days 1-2
C. days 5-7
D. days 10-20
E. more than 3 months

  1. lipid-laden macrophages first appear
A

Jawab : C

83
Q

For questions 40 to 44, match the time period after a cerebral infarct with the histologic appearance. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. days 1-2
C. days 5-7
D. days 10-20
E. more than 3 months

  1. Fibrillary astrocytes present at the periphery of the lesion.
A

Jawab : E

84
Q

For questions 40 to 44, match the time period after a cerebral infarct with the histologic appearance. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. days 1-2
C. days 5-7
D. days 10-20
E. more than 3 months

  1. Gemistocytic astrocytes present at the periphery of the lesion.
A

Jawab : D

85
Q

For questions 40 to 44, match the time period after a cerebral infarct with the histologic appearance. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. days 1-2
C. days 5-7
D. days 10-20
E. more than 3 months

  1. polymorphonuclear infiltrate
A

Jawab : B

86
Q

For questions 40 to 44, match the time period after a cerebral infarct with the histologic appearance. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. 12 to 24 hours
B. days 1-2
C. days 5-7
D. days 10-20
E. more than 3 months

  1. Neuronal necrosis is first apparent.
A

Jawab : A

87
Q
  1. Hepatic failure is most closely associated with
    A. endothelial proliferation
    B. gliosis localized to the globus palIidus and hippocampus
    C. gliosis localized to the white matter
    D. Alzheimer’s type II astrocytes
    E. loss of oligodendroglial cells
A

Jawab : D

Acquired hepatocerebral degeneration is associated with gliosis with a predilection for the cortex. It tends to spare the hippocampus, globus pallidus, and deep folia of the cerebellar cortex. Widespread hyper- plasia of protoplasmic astrocytes is visible in the deep layers of the cerebral and cerebellar cortex and in deep nuclear structures.

88
Q
  1. Each of the following has been associated with central pontine myelinolysis except
    A. alcoholism
    B. severe burns
    C. rapid correction of hyponatremia
    D. serum hyperosmolarity
    E. vitamin A excess
A

Jawab : E

Vitamin A excess has not been associated with central pontine myelinolysis.

89
Q
  1. Rosenthal fibers are associated with
    I. astroeytosis
    II. Alexander’S disease
    III. pilocytic astrocytoma
    IV. Pick’s disease
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all ofthe above
A

Jawab : A

Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic masses observed in astrocytic processes, are associated with pilocytic astrocytomas (neoplastic), and astrocytosis and Alexander’s disease (nonneoplastic).

90
Q
  1. Which of the following is not typically seen in neurofibromatosis type 2?
    A. acoustic neuromas
    B. cafe au lait spots
    C. cutaneous neurofibromatosis
    D. Lisch nodules
    E. plexiform neurofibromas
A

Jawab : D

Neurofibromas and cafe au lait spots occur less com- monly in neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2) than in NF-I. Bilateral acoustic neuromas are the hallmark of NF-2. Lisch nodules are rare in NF-2.

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with hepatic encephalopathy?
    A. thiamine deficiency
    B. asterixis
    C. Alzheimer’s type II astrocytes
    D. increased serum ammonia
A

Jawab : A

92
Q
  1. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, the cranial nerve nucleus that typically does not exhibit cell loss is
    A. III
    B. V
    C. VII
    D. IX
    E. XII
A

Jawab : A

The motor nuclei of cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and XI1 as well as the motor*cortex may be affected.

93
Q
  1. Which of the following vascular malformations have no intervening brain parenchyma between blood vessels?
    A. arteriovenous malformations
    B. capillary telangiectasias
    C. cavernous hemangiomas
    D. cryptic arteriovenous malformations
    E. venous angiomas
A

Jawab : C

Cavernous hemangiomas are composed of large. thin-walled vessels without interposed brain parenchyma.

94
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. diabetes
A

Jawab : E

95
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. vincristine nocnm
A

Jawab : A

96
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. mercury
A

Jawab : D

97
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. actinomycin D
A

Jawab : C

98
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. dinitrophenol
A

Jawab : B

99
Q

For questions 52 to 57, match the sites of damage in the axonal transport apparatus with the toxin. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. micro tubules
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. tanscription
D. translation
E. turnaround transport

  1. vinblastine
A

Jawab : A

100
Q
  1. Catecholamine production can occur in which of the following tumors?
    A. choriocarcinomas
    B. glomus jugulare tumors
    C. oligodendrogliomas
    D. pineocytomas
    E. pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas
A

Jawab : B

Glomus jugulare tumors originate from foci of paraganglionic tis- sue around the jugular bulb. These invasive tumors contain neurosecretory granules similar to those in the carotid body. Some of them produce clinically detectable amounts of catecholamine.

101
Q
  1. The viral inclusions seen in herpes simplex encephalitis are
    A. basophilic
    B. called Cowdry type B bodies
    C. found in neurons only
    D. intranuclear
    E. only evident several weeks after the infection
A

Jawab : D

heviral inclusionsof herpessimplextype 1 (Cowdry type A) are dense, intranuclear, eosinophilic bodies found in neurons, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes. They are more likely to befound early in the course of the disease.

102
Q
  1. High levels of alpha-fetoprotein are associated with
    A. endodermal sinus tumors
    B. choriocarcinomas
    C. germinomas
    D. pineoblastomas
    E. teratomas
A

Jawab : A

High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin are associated with choriocarcinomas, and high levels of alpha-fetoprotein are associated with endodermal sinus tumors (yolk sac tumors).

103
Q
  1. The most common sites of hypertensive hemorrhage, in decreasing order of frequency, are
    A. lobar, putamen, cerebellum, thalamus, pons
    B. putamen, lobar, thalamus, cerebellum, pons
    C. putamen, thalamus, pons, lobar, cerebellum
    D. thalamus, cerebellum, lobar, putamen, pons
    E. thalamus, lobar, putamen, cerebellum, pons
A

Jawab : B

104
Q

For questions 62 to 65, match the source of the metastatic brain lesion to the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. breast
B. choriocarcinoma
C. lung
D. lymphoma
E. prostate

  1. most common
A

Jawab : C

105
Q

For questions 62 to 65, match the source of the metastatic brain lesion to the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. breast
B. choriocarcinoma
C. lung
D. lymphoma
E. prostate

  1. greatest tendency to hemorrhage
A

Jawab : B

106
Q

For questions 62 to 65, match the source of the metastatic brain lesion to the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. breast
B. choriocarcinoma
C. lung
D. lymphoma
E. prostate

  1. Meningeal involvement is most common.
A

Jawab : D

107
Q

For questions 62 to 65, match the source of the metastatic brain lesion to the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. breast
B. choriocarcinoma
C. lung
D. lymphoma
E. prostate

  1. least propensity to involve the brain
A

Jawab : E

108
Q

For questions 66 to 69, match the mechanism of action to the disease. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. presynaptic inhibition at neuromuscular junction
B. inhibition of Renshaw cells
C. postsynaptic inhibition

  1. botulism
A

Jawab : A

109
Q

For questions 66 to 69, match the mechanism of action to the disease. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. presynaptic inhibition at neuromuscular junction
B. inhibition of Renshaw cells
C. postsynaptic inhibition

  1. myasthenia gravis
A

Jawab : C

110
Q

For questions 66 to 69, match the mechanism of action to the disease. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. presynaptic inhibition at neuromuscular junction
B. inhibition of Renshaw cells
C. postsynaptic inhibition

  1. Eaton-Lambert syndrome
A

Jawab : A

111
Q

For questions 66 to 69, match the mechanism of action to the disease. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. presynaptic inhibition at neuromuscular junction
B. inhibition of Renshaw cells
C. postsynaptic inhibition

  1. tetanus
A

Jawab : B

112
Q
  1. Tuberous sclerosis is most closely associated with
    A. acoustic neuromas
    B. cortical calcification
    C. giant -cell astrocytomas
    D. optic gliomas
    E. renal cysts
A

Jawab : C

113
Q
  1. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin are seen in
    A. choriocarcinoma
    B. embryonal carcinoma
    C. endodermal sinus tumor
    D. germinoma
    E. teratoma
A

Jawab : A

114
Q
  1. Cushing’s syndrome is most often associated with a(n)
    A. acidophilic pituitary adenoma
    B. basophilic pituitary adenoma
    C. chromophobic pituitary adenoma
    D. ectopic source of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    E. nonfunctioning pituitary adenoma
A

Jawab : B

115
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. sphingomyelinase deficiency
A

Jawab : C

116
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. hexosaminidase A and B deficiency
A

Jawab : D

117
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. glucocerebrosidase deficiency
A

Jawab : B

118
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Hexosaminidase A deficiency only
A

Jawab : E

119
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Alfa-galactosidase deficiency
A

Jawab : A

120
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. abnormal accumulation of ceramide trihexosides
A

Jawab : A

121
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Tay-Sachs and this disorder are forms of the GM2 gangliosidases.
A

Jawab : D

122
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Supranuclear paresis of vertical gaze is highly characteristic.
A

Jawab : C

123
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Episodes of pain occur.
A

Jawab : A

124
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. X-linked recessive
A

Jawab : A

125
Q

For questions 73 to 83, match the sphingolipidosis with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. Sandhoffs disease
E. Tay-Sachs disease

  1. Cherry-red spots are found in virtually all patients with Sandhoffs and this disorder.
A

Jawab : E

126
Q

For questions 84 to 88, match the mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hunter’s syndrome (MPS II)
B. Hurler’s syndrome (MPS I H)
C. Morquio’s syndrome (MPS IV)
D. Sanfilippo’s syndrome (MPS III)
E. Scheie’s syndrome (MPS I S)

  1. deficiency of q-L-iduronidase
A

Jawab : B

127
Q

For questions 84 to 88, match the mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hunter’s syndrome (MPS II)
B. Hurler’s syndrome (MPS I H)
C. Morquio’s syndrome (MPS IV)
D. Sanfilippo’s syndrome (MPS III)
E. Scheie’s syndrome (MPS I S)

  1. characterized by severe skeletal deformities and ligamentous laxity
A

Jawab : C

128
Q

For questions 84 to 88, match the mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hunter’s syndrome (MPS II)
B. Hurler’s syndrome (MPS I H)
C. Morquio’s syndrome (MPS IV)
D. Sanfilippo’s syndrome (MPS III)
E. Scheie’s syndrome (MPS I S)

  1. Heparan sulfate only is excreted in the urine.
A

Jawab : D

129
Q

For questions 84 to 88, match the mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hunter’s syndrome (MPS II)
B. Hurler’s syndrome (MPS I H)
C. Morquio’s syndrome (MPS IV)
D. Sanfilippo’s syndrome (MPS III)
E. Scheie’s syndrome (MPS I S)

  1. deficiency of iduronate sulfatase; pebbling of the skin may occur; X-linked recessive
A

Jawab : A

130
Q

For questions 84 to 88, match the mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS) with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hunter’s syndrome (MPS II)
B. Hurler’s syndrome (MPS I H)
C. Morquio’s syndrome (MPS IV)
D. Sanfilippo’s syndrome (MPS III)
E. Scheie’s syndrome (MPS I S)

  1. All forms of Morquio’s and this disorder are characterized by normal intelligence.
A

Jawab : E

131
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. Deficiency of galactocerebrosidase
A

Jawab : D

132
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. deficiency of peroxisomes
A

Jawab : A

133
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. Rosenthal fibers are prominent
A

Jawab : B

134
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. Deficiency of aryl sulfatase
A

Jawab : E

135
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. X-linked recessive inheritance
A

Jawab : A

136
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. accumulation of small quantities of psychosine, a highly toxic compound
A

Jawab : D

137
Q

For questions 89 to 95, match the leukodystrophy with the description. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. adrenoleukodystrophy
B. Alexander’s disease
C. Canavan’s disease
D. Krabbe’s disease
E. metachromatic leukodystrophy

  1. accumulation of long-chain fatty acids
A

Jawab : A

138
Q
  1. Each ofthe following is characteristic of Wilson’s disease except
    A. Alzheimer’s type II astrocytes
    B. atrophy and brownish discoloration of the globus pallid us and putamen
    C. autosomal dominant trait
    D. decreased serum ceruloplasmin
    E. decreased serum copper
A

Jawab : C

Wilson’s disease is transmitted as an autosomal reces- sive trait.

139
Q

For questions 97 to 100, match the description with the disease or syndrome.
A. idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
B. Shy-Drager syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. loss of cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra
A

Jawab : C

Both idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and the Shy-Drager syndrome (a form of striatonigral degeneration) are characterized by loss of cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra, but in the latter disease is also found significant cell loss in the puta- men and the intermediolateral column. Lewy bodies are not found in the Shy-Drager syndrome. Patients with this syndrome suffer from parkinsonian symptoms and orthostatic hypotension.

140
Q

For questions 97 to 100, match the description with the disease or syndrome.
A. idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
B. Shy-Drager syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. loss of cells in the intermediolateral horn cells
A

Jawab : B

Both idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and the Shy-Drager syndrome (a form of striatonigral degeneration) are characterized by loss of cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra, but in the latter disease is also found significant cell loss in the puta- men and the intermediolateral column. Lewy bodies are not found in the Shy-Drager syndrome. Patients with this syndrome suffer from parkinsonian symptoms and orthostatic hypotension.

141
Q

For questions 97 to 100, match the description with the disease or syndrome.
A. idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
B. Shy-Drager syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. Lewy bodies present
A

Jawab : A

Both idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and the Shy-Drager syndrome (a form of striatonigral degeneration) are characterized by loss of cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra, but in the latter disease is also found significant cell loss in the puta- men and the intermediolateral column. Lewy bodies are not found in the Shy-Drager syndrome. Patients with this syndrome suffer from parkinsonian symptoms and orthostatic hypotension.

142
Q

For questions 97 to 100, match the description with the disease or syndrome.
A. idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
B. Shy-Drager syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. prominent loss of neurons in the putamen
A

Jawab : B

Both idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and the Shy-Drager syndrome (a form of striatonigral degeneration) are characterized by loss of cells in the zona compacta of the substantia nigra, but in the latter disease is also found significant cell loss in the puta- men and the intermediolateral column. Lewy bodies are not found in the Shy-Drager syndrome. Patients with this syndrome suffer from parkinsonian symptoms and orthostatic hypotension.

143
Q
  1. The most common neurologic complication of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is
    A. dementia
    B. inflammatory polymyositis
    C. lymphoma
    D. myelopathy
    E. toxoplasmosis
A

Jawab : A

Dementia, characterized by cognitive dysfunction, behavioral disturbance, and motor impairment, occurs in one-third to two-thirds of patients with AIDS. Myelopathy occurs in less than lo%, inflammatory polymyositis in 20%,toxoplasmosis in lo%,and lymphoma in 5%of AIDS patients.

144
Q
  1. Each of the following lesions is characteristic of tuberous sclerosis except
    A. adenoma sebaceum
    B. renal cell carcinoma
    C. rhabdomyomas of the heart
    D. subependymal giant-cell astrocytes
    E. subungual fibromas
A

Jawab : B

The triad of adenoma sebaceum (actually angiofibro- mas), epilepsy, and mental retardation characterizes tuberous sclerosis. Although benign tumors (angiomyolipomas) of the kidney and other organs are seen, renal cell carcinomas are not. The other lesions listed are associated.

145
Q
  1. Each of the following is seen in neurofibromatosis type 1 except
    A. axillary freckling
    B. cafe au lait macules
    C. neurofibromas of the iris
    D. optic gliomas
    E. sphenoid dysplasia
A

Jawab : C

Hamartomas (not neurofibromas) of the iris (Lisch nod- ules) are szen in NF-I.

146
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of amyloid angiopathy except
    A. amyloid beta-protein is the major protein seen.
    B. Aneurysmal dilations are seen in involved vessels.
    C. It occurs primarily in vessels of deep nuclear structures of the brain.
    D. It occurs primarily in patients over 70 years of age.
    E. A yellow-green dichromism is seen under polarized light when the amyloid is stained with Congo red.
A

Jawab : C

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy is confined to intracranial arteries and arterioles in the leptomeninges and superficial cortex.

147
Q
  1. Characteristic pathologic findings in Guillain-Barre syndrome include each of the following except
    A. increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein at 5 weeks after onset of illness
    B. lymphocytic pleocytosis in 90% of patients
    C. normal CSF pressures
    D. perivascular lymphocytic and inflammatory cell infiltrate
    E. perivenule and segmental demyelination
A

Jawab : B

The CSF in Guillain-Barre syndrome is under normal pressure, is acellular in 90%of patients, and demonstrates an increased protein level that peaks at 4 to 6 weeks after onset. Responses D and E are characteristic findings.

148
Q

106.

A. rarely multiple
B. associated with immunosuppression in older men
C. associated with immunosuppression in younger men
D. resistant to steroids

A

Jawab : C

his is lymphoma with diffuse perivascular lympho- cytic infiltration into the Virchow-Robin space around a blood vessel. Such lymphomas are often multiple, respond initially to steroids (but invariably recur), and are associated with immunosuppression in younger men. They also occur in immunocompetent males over 60 years.

149
Q

107.

A. Hirano bodies
B. inclusion bodies of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
C. Lewy bodies
D. Pick’s bodies
E. rabies

A

Jawab : B

150
Q

108.

A. Hirano bodies
B. inclusion bodies of SSPE
C. Lewybodies
D. Pick’s bodies
E. rabies

A

Jawab : B

The inclusion bodies of HSV (dense, eosinophilic, and sur- rounded by a clear halo) and SSPE are intranuclear. The inclusion bodies seen in the other responses are intra cytoplasmic. Smaller eosinophilic intra cytoplasmic inclusions may also be seen in SSPE.

151
Q

109.

A. inclusion bodies of herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-l)
B. Lewy bodies
C. Pick’s bodies
D. rabies
E. inclusion bodies of SSPE

A

Jawab : D

Pick’s bodies (rounded intracytoplasmic masses) are visible in the pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus.

152
Q

110.

A. inclusion bodies of HSV-l
B. Lewybodies
C. Pick’s bodies
D. rabies
E. inclusion bodies of SSPE

A

Jawab : B

Lewy bodies (neuronal intracytoplasmic inclusions with and eosinophilic core surrounded by a clear halo) are seen in the neurons of the substantia nigra.

153
Q

111.

A. Ganglioglioma
B. Hepatic encephalophaty
C. HSV-1
D. Parkinson’s disease
E. normal cortex

A

Jawab : B

Alzheimer’s type 1astrocytes (large vesicular nuclei and little visible cytoplasm) are present. These are found in hepatic encephalopathy and Wilson’s disease.

154
Q

112.

A. Fibrillary astrocytoma
B. gemistrocytic astrocytoma
C. glioblastoma multiforme
D. hemangioblastoma
E. oligodendroglioma

A

Jawab : B

The cells of this variant of astrocytoma have prominent eosinophilic cytoplasm, short processes, and eccentric nuclei.

155
Q

113.

A. aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. bacterial meningitis
C. contusion
D. HSV-l
E. subdural hematoma

A

Jawab : D

The hemorrhagic appearance of the medial temporal lobe is characteristic of HSV-I.

156
Q

114.

A. AIDS encephalopathy
B. giant-cell glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)
C. hemangioblastoma
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
E. progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy

A

Jawab : E

Demyelination and oligodendroglial cell loss are seen. Residual oligodendroglial nuclei are large and bizarre.

157
Q

115.

A. AIDS encephalopathy
B. giant-cell GBM
C. hemangioblastoma
D. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease
E. progressive multifocal leukoencephaltopathy

A

Jawab : D

Numerous vacuoles give a spongiform appearance.

158
Q

116.

A. metastatic disease
B. NF – 1
C. NF – 2
D. tuberous scelorosis
E. von hippel-Lindau disease

A

Jawab : B

The iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) of NF-I are seen.

159
Q

117.

A. AIDS encephalopathy
B. giant-cell GBM
C. hemangioblastoma
D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
E. progressive multifocalleukoencephalopathy

A

Jawab : A

Perivascular foci of inflammation with prominent multinu- cleated giant cells are typical.

160
Q

118.

A. anaplastic astrocytoma
B. ependymoma
C. ganglioglioma
D. meningioma
E. oligodendroglioma

A

Jawab : C

The finding of abnormal ganglion cells (including binucleate forms) is key to the diagnosis of ganglioglioma.

161
Q

119.

A. anaplastic astrocytoma
B. meningioma
C. normal pituitary gland
D. oligodendroglioma
E. pituitary adenoma

A

Jawab : D

CNBR Fig. 3-68. A “chicken wire” vascular pattern and a monotonous nuclear array are seen.