NBME Form 31 Incorrects Flashcards

1
Q

2wk history of pain in R leg just below the knee of 14yr old boy. XR shows large, semi-Ca mass that erodes the medullary canal of the tibia, infiltrates the cortex, and extends into the nearby soft tissues.

A

osteosarcoma.
predominately affects the LONG bones: tibia, femur
erodes thru cortex givin “sunburst” periosoteal rxn, elevation of periosteum> Codman tri
histology: lesion w/ primitive cells in lace-like meshwork of bone with mitoses; osteoblast-like mesencyhmal cells that make osteoid.
aggressive, poor prognosis.

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2
Q

what is the most common primary bone tumor to affect the vertebrae?

A

osteoblastoma, benign; no response to aspirin.
vertebrae are common MET sites for breast & prostate cancer> look for pain worse in the night/sclerotic lesions

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3
Q

MOA of ketoconazole?

A

inhibition of lanosterol->ergosterol in the fungal cell wall by 14ademethylase.

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4
Q

what is the common cause of tinea cruris?

A

trichophyton rubrum
tinea cruris> “jock itch”, crotch and peritoneum.

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5
Q

what is the typical treatment for tinea cruris?

A

topical azole antifungal> clotrimazole

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6
Q

chronic hep C pt, 2wk hx weakness/rash on legs. 2+ edema, pupuric rash over the extremities. C3/C4 decreased. UA dysmorphic RBC, no casts. creatinine inc.

A

essential mixed cryoglobulinemia> cryoglobulins are IGs that precipitate out of the serum. triad: weakness, arthralgias, palpable purpura.
risk factors: chronic Hep C/B, HIV, malaria, EBV; chronic inflame- SLE, Sjogren; lymphoproliferative multiple myeloma.

causes deposition of immune complexes (HS3) in BV> leukocytoclastic vasculitis> can manifest as purpura, end organ dysfunction= renal failure/nephritic/nephrotic syndromes.

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7
Q

49yr old with poorly controlled HTN in ER with SOB. Ran out of meds 5 days ago. BP 240/120, pulse 98, r 32, 86% O2. Loud S4. b/l crackles on lung fields. CXR pulm edema. Diagnosis?

A

congestive heart failure> presenting as decompensated heart failure.

pathophyis> long-standing, uncontrolled HTN> ventricular hypertrophy> dec compliance, dec filling>diastolic dysfxn.
with a loud S4 (gallop in late diastole), most likely diastolic dysfunction HF. inc atrial P, ventricular hypertrophy, as the LA attempts to overcome stiff/noncompliant LV.

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8
Q

echocardiography shows thick LV muscle tissue. what is the underlying condition?

A

HTN> LV hypertrophy as a result of constant work against the incr afterload> impaired LV relaxation, inc diastolic P> LA enlargement> heart failure over time.

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9
Q

mitral stenosis findings on ECG

A

LA hypertrophy, reduced LV SV
opening snap with diastolic rumble murmur

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10
Q

23yr F w/ chronic sinusitis. Needs to drain L maxillary sinus–what is the placement of the cannula?

A

at middle meatus, at the hiatus semilunaris.
pt has bacterial sinusitis 2/2 viral URI; dull pain aggravated by leaning forward.
complications: orbital cellulitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, meningitis.

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11
Q

the anterior portion of the piriform aperture is commonly opened during what procedure?

A

functional septoplasty–enhances airflow thru nose
// ant portion of aperture opens into the cartilaginous anterior nasal vestibule> lateral to maxillary bones, nasal septum medial.

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12
Q

sphenoethmoidal recess is found at?

A

the superior aspect of the nasal cavity– superior and posterior to the superior nasal concha» opens into the sphenoid sinus– common pathway for the trasnsphenoidal approach to pit gland

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13
Q

what is immediately anterior to the torus tubarius?

A

opening of the eustachian tube into the nasopharynx» connects posterior nasopharynx to the middle ear» causing acute otitis media.

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14
Q

what is immediately inferior to the anterior margin of the superior conchae?

A

superior nasal meatus–which communicates with the posterior ethmoid cells.

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15
Q

44yr M with 2 month history of dry mouth, constipation, inability to have erection, progressive fatigue. neuro exam shows weakness of alot muscles, absence of all stretch reflexes; normal sensation. CXR shows R lung mass. Labs show antibodies directed against PQ calcium channels. Why neuro findings?

A

impaired Ach release at NMJ, limiting cell depol, proximal muscle weakness» not dec excitation contraction coupling. pt has Lambert-Eaton paraneoplastic syndrome 2/2 small cell lung cancer.

LE= extended use makes better, gradual accumulation of Ach in synapse= better depol. PRESYNAPTIC NMJ. (MG is postsynpatic Ach NMJ)

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16
Q

male newborn has multiple features suggestive of Downs syndrome. Chromosomal analysis is ordered. What do you tell the parents?

A

The newborn has features of Downs, a chromosomal test is ordered» NOT the newborn has some unusual features on exam, and a test has been ordered to help determine diagnosis.
Doc should address objective findings by explaining diff diagnosis and the next steps in simple language in small pieces> honor autonomy w/ relevant information–do not protect patient from distressing news, allow them to process info in small pieces.

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17
Q

what are the symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

i/l orbit pain, sinusitis, proptosis, periorbital edema, impaired eye movement/pupil reactivity.
» CN 3,4,5a,5b,6 transverse the sinus

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18
Q

what patients are at risk for developing ophthalmic artery embolism?

A

carotid/cardiac valvular disease pt> central retinal artery occlusion» acute, painless vision loss and diminished visual acuity, pale fundus (preserved foveal color), afferent pupillary defect.
*****admit to stroke center for emergent eval

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19
Q

48yr man w/ 30yr PMH DM1 w/ sudden onset double vision. L eye weakness abduction. What is the development of double vision ?

A

diabetic mononeuropathy.
microvascular damage commonly affects the abducens n> presents as esotropia, u/l abduction defect, diplopia in horizontal gase, hypotropia. most pts have resolution of symptoms with tx of underlying cause.
**important to rule out stroke, ICP, vasculitis, optic neuropathy,

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20
Q

24yr woman with increased ROM in her joints. 6ft tall, 130lb, BMI 18. Pectus excavatum. Cardio exam reveals new diastolic murmur. What is the most likely cause?

A

aortic insufficiency» pt has Marfan syndrome, impaired collagen synthesis.
subsequently leads to an incr LV EDV» eccentric hypertrophy of the LV, progressive LV systolic dysfxn

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21
Q

when would you see a systolic murmur in a Marfan pt?

A

myxomatous degeneration of mitral value» mitral insufficiency (mitral valve prolapse)» presents with holosystolic murmur.

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22
Q

24yr F w/ 3day history of vaginal discharge w/ itching. Currently tx with ciprofloxacin for cystitis. Vaginal area now presents with thick, white discharge. What is the most likely caused organism?

A

candida albicans> pt has vaginal pruritis, thick white discharge with antibiotic tx> vulvovaginitis from Candida. “cottage cheese” appearance
neg KOH testing, normal vaginal pH, no trichomonads on wet mount
risk factors: those on antibiotics, contraceptives (oral & intrauterine), immunocompromised, DM
tx: antifungals (topical clotimazole, oral fluconazole)

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23
Q

N. gonorrhea is gram neg that can present with cervicitis, PID, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis, urethritis, vaginitis. How can you tell diff btw gonorrhea vs. candida?

A

the discharge»gonorrhea will present with mucopurulent discharge, pruritis, and be generally asymptomatic vs candida is thicker, white discharge.

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24
Q

76yr M in ER with inability to urinate. Markedly enlarged prostate, u/s shows large kidneys with dilated calyces. PO2 is 90mmHg. What is the suspected ABG?

A

pt has BPH> leading to hydronephrosis, obstructive uropathy> leading to volume expansion +RAAS> HTN» metabolic acidosis, non-anion gap via urinary acidification (generally unless uremia or another concomitant anion gap issue). will be compensated w/ resp alk, tachypnea» near normal pH.

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25
Q

56yr M w/ 2 month hx bloody cough. CT shows 4cm mass in RUL that’s obstructing SVC. Blood returns to heart via?

A

internal mammaries & intercostal veins.
when SVC obstructed, can drain into the IVC via internal mammary v with sup/inf epigastric v.
the azygos/hemiazygous v drain posterior intercostal/bronchial v> via lumbar venous system to IVC
long thoracic venous communicates with femoral & verterbral v> to IVC.
pt will develop venous congestion head/neck/upper extremities= SVC syndrome regardless of collaterals tho

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26
Q

what veins are the main venous drainage of the head?

A

jugular & subclavian v.
external jugular v> subclavian>internal jugular>brachiocephalic> L & R merge to make SVC.

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27
Q

43yr F w/ 2 mon history of intermittent abdominal pain, esp after fatty meals, localized to RUQ. u/s shows cholelithiasis. MOA of ursodiol?

A

decreased cholesterol secretion into bile by 40-60%, dec absorb into the gut; ursodiol=ursodeoxycholic acid (generally second line to surgery)
pt has all characteristics of cholelithiasis: middle-aged female, RUQ pain after fatty meals. risk factors: obesity, advanced age, estrogen tx, rapid weight loss, Crohn’s, 4F’s

**statins generally have lower gallstone risk; fibrates (inhibit chol 7a hydroxylase) have most risk–> end up having supersaturated cholesterol with inhibited bile acid synthesis.

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28
Q

32yr F with intermittent chest pain “not severe, just kinda annoying”. Mother died of sudden MI ~50s. Midsystolic click at 5th intercostal space on L midclavicular line. What cardio thing is happening?

A

mitral valve prolapse> generally asympt, but have palpitations, chest pain, dyspnea.
midsystolic click +- late systolic murmur of mitral regurg.
more common in females, most common cause is myxomatous degeneration, chorda tendinea rupture, mitral annular disjunction> where the mitral annulus becomes partially detached.
***degeneration results in thickened mitral valve leaflets with accumulation of fibrous & mucoid material» commonly associated w/ Marfan, PKD, SLE, polyarteritis nodosa.

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29
Q

ASD murmur

A

fixed, split S2 with low grade physiological ejection murmur
L>R shunt with abnormal flow of blood from LA to RA> volume overload R heart

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30
Q

Bicuspid aortic valve murmur

A

bicuspid aortic valve> aortic stenosis> crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur @ R upper sternal border

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31
Q

Tricuspid regurg murmur

A

holosystolic murmur best heard in L lower sternal border» esp common with severe pulm HTN/infective endocarditis of IV user

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32
Q

what is the most common skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma> originating from basal layer of epidermis, low met potential
typically: pink, pearly papules/nodules with rolled borders & central ulceration in sun exposed areas of head/neck.
tx: surgical excision removal, Mohs surgery
associated w/ mutations in hedgehog pathway of p53…primary risk factor is UV exposure.

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33
Q

63yr M with long history of sun exposure develops skin lesion. Lesion is 1cm, dark colored

A

malignant melanoma, commonly develops from pre-existing nevus or de novo; prognosis is dependent on depth of invasion
Asymmetry
Borders: irregular
Color: varied colors (pic shows brown, light parts)
Diameter: >6mm
Evolution: rapid evolution> melanoma.

34
Q

what are the subtypes of malignant melanoma?

A

superficial spreading
nodular melanoma
lentigo maligna
acral lentiginous melanoma

35
Q

what does actinic keratosis look like?

A

chronic rough, scaly patches. commonly treated with liquid nitrogen, topical 5FU

36
Q

22yr M ER 30mins s/p tonic-clonic seizure began in L leg. 3yr PMH intermittent L arm stiffening, spasms of L thigh. No PMH or FHX of seizures. MRI of brain most likely to show lesion where?

A

R frontal cortex> pt presenting with L sided focal seizure (those originating from frontal lobe are generally partial/focal seizures).
primary motor cortex is in frontal lobe.
tx: begin with antiepileptic meds, then surgery as needed.
***frontal cortex also likely to have partial seizures that exhibit secondary generalization (pt here)

37
Q

what lobe is most commonly affected by focal seizure activity?

A

temporal lobe> typically presenting with complex partial seizures– aura, motor symptoms (lip-smacking, fidgeting), autonomic dysfxn, confusion.

38
Q

seizures presenting from the parietal lobe commonly present as?

A

somatosensory seizures> numbness, tingling, warmth, pain. receptive aphasia, dyslexia, lang comprehensive disturbances– Wernicke at jnct of parietal/temporal lobes.

39
Q

30yr F 18wk gestation. U/s shows intracranial anomalies: single ventricle, small cerebrum, fused thalamus, corpus callosum agenesis. Where did failure originate?

A

prosencephalon> should’ve separated into telencephalon (cortial hemi & lateral ventricles) diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus).
pt has holoprosencephaly.
pros- forebrain
mes- midbrain
rhomb- hindbrain

40
Q

failure of the rhombencephalon leads to what abnormalities?

A

rhombencephalon> metencephalon & myelencephalon–> brainstem, cerebellum, 4th V> Dandy-Walker is associated here.

41
Q

58yr M with progressive hair loss in past few weeks. Father & grandfather had similar hair. Scalp shows loss of hair in M pattern over frontal hairline. What is the mechanism?

A

dihydrotestosterone binding to androgen receptors at terminal hair follicles> “male patterned baldness”= androgenic alopecia.
testosterone->dihyrotestosterone (more potent) via 5a reductase. hairs transition to finer fairs “miniaturization”

42
Q

2 month M newborn ER with noisy/difficult breathing for 6 hr. Pt has multiple, slender, finger-like excrescences on both vocal cords. What was the maternal infection?

A

HPV (6/11)> laryngeal papillomatosis, commonly affecting the vocal cords as nodules/growths

43
Q

Manifestations of fetal infection with HSV

A

tender vesicles that ulcerate & crust, generally at skin, eyes, mouth. systemic manifestations of meningoencephalitis.
transmission via placenta or birth canal.
***can also present as more aggressive laryngeal papillomatosis, but stick with HPV 6/11

44
Q

Hepatocytes don’t grow in culture well (dedifferentiated), but do grow effectively with coculturing w/ biliary epithelial cells. Compared to when alone, the cocultured cells most likely produce increase amt of what?

A

urea> heptaocyctes have urea cycle, removing ammonia to urea for kidney excretion. Failure of this process leads to hepatic encephalopathy.
**dedifferentiated cells will maintain core metabolic pathways common to most cells–glycolysis, mito resp, but loose metabolic fxn: urea cycle, AA de/transamination, gluconeo, synthesis of proteins/coagulation factors

45
Q

Coculturing hepatocytes would be expected to have increased metabolism/consumption of?

A

alanine> more coversion of alanine to glutamate for gluconeo
fructose> absorb via GLUT2, metabolize more fructose via fructolysis, only happening in liver

46
Q

54yr w/ severe HTN suddenly collapses and LOC while having telephone argument. Pt has pinpoint pupils and decorticate posturing. CT shows what most likely hemorrhage?

A

intraparenchymal> most commonly with uncontrolled HTN, occurring in putamen/thalamus/pons/cerebellum.
**pinpoint pupils, decorticate posture (lesion above red nucleus= disinhibition, flexor posturing) localizes to thalamic hemorrhage.

47
Q

epidural hematoma presents

A

CT lens shaped, bi-convex, hyperdense collections abutting the inner table of the calvarium= trauma to MMA.
initial LOC, lucid interval, progressive decline to death

48
Q

subarachnoid hemmorhage presents

A

CT hyperdense blood products in cerebral sulci and basal cisterns> aneurysmal rupture of artery in subarach space/traumatic injury
acute, severe headache, photophobia, stupor/coma “worst headache of life”

49
Q

subdural hemmorhage presents

A

CT crescent shaped collection abutting the internal surface of the calvarium, not bound by suture lines= bridging veins problems
headache, vomiting, meningism, UMN findings

50
Q

30yr F w/ 2 day hx of double vision and eye deviation. 24hrs s/p MVA. L ptosis, L eye “down & out”. What happens when light shined into R eye?

A

R pupil constriction, L pupil no change> deficit in CN 3 (oculomotor)
CN3 holds efferent branch of light response (interneurons at Edinger-Westphal nucleus); susceptible to injury while crossing the post comm artery to ciliary ganglion>, controlling iris sphincter.
**KEY: all injuries to efferent are i/l, so pt damages L CN3 injury= L efferent injury= L pupil arc unable to respond to direct & consensual light response (no ability to constrict at all)

51
Q

Explain Marcus Gunn pupillary phenomenon

A

relative AFFERENT pupillary defect (rAPD) “swinging flashlight”, u/l or asymmetric response to light stimulation> generally with optic neuropathy, glaucoma, or retinal pathology.
dilation of one pupil as light moves quickly=abnormal response

52
Q

what is the most common setting for b/l non-reactive pupils?

A

elderly patients with pupillary scarring via uveitis, or patients on opioid analgesics.

53
Q

what muscles does CN3 innervate

A

levator palpebrae superioris
superior/medial/inf rectus
inferior oblique
*also the efferent arc of pupil light response

54
Q

Clinical study of sickle cell allele, frequency of AA is 1/20, in Hispanics 1/200. Which genetic mechanism originally produced this stratification of allele frequency?

A

heterozygote advantage> continuous presence of the allele at high freq, in two genetically separate populations suggests heterozyg provides advantage that allows recess allel to persist.

55
Q

what is assortative mating

A

non-random type mating where individuals select partners based on phenotypes that are similar/dissimilar to own» skews population toward more homozygous than would happen purely by chance

56
Q

what is balanced polymorphism

A

presence of multiple phenotypes vartations of trait w/in population
heterozygous advantage is the specific mechanism by which the balanced polymorph of sickle cell trait is maintained

57
Q

what is founder effect

A

type of genetic drift that reduces genetic diversity when a subgroup of pop becomes genetically separated from rest of population; significantly alters freq of alleles

58
Q

what is gene flow

A

introduction of new alleles into the population due to migration from genetically separate population> if rate of flow is high enough, the two populations will merge into single genetic population

59
Q

Drug X is given IV. Produces HR increase, AV conduction increase, no chnage in ventricular contraction. It is most similar to what class (alpha +-, beta+-, muscarinic +-)?

A

muscarinic antagonist (parasympathetic)> M2 works on SA/AV node> dec HR, atrial contraction

60
Q

what are the differences between sympathetic vs parasympathetic effects on heart characteristics?

A

sympathetic– will change pressures, HR, atrial & ventricular contraction
parasympathetic– HR, atrial contractility only (SA/AV node)

61
Q

6yr M fever & cellulitis on R hand. 2cm, red, macular lesion. Tx with nafcillin begins. Next 24hrs pt develops 102.2F, cultures grow MRSA. Production of what caused the resistance to methicillin?

A

new penicillin binding protein

62
Q

Serratia, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas have demonstrated B-lactam resistance via?

A

mutations in genes coding for porins in cell envelope»allows for passive transport of hydrophilic molecules thru the outer membrane of gram - organisms primarily

63
Q

what classic organism has resistance to antibiotics via altered antibiotic efflux pump

A

EColi> altered efflux pump lowers concentration of antibiotics

64
Q

Increasing the production of folate causes resistance to TMX via

A

increased production B9 via DHF reductase increases synthesis of purines needed for cell growth/division, ultimately leading to resistance to TMX.
*TMX targets DHF reductase to decrease folate synthesis

65
Q

what is the main mechanism of resistance to B lactam antibiotics (penicillin, ampicillin) in gram - bacteria

A

penicillinase & B lactamases> these genes encoding enzymes can be transferred on plasmids btw bacteria>inactivate B-lactam antibiotics
**commonly why we give B-lactamase inhibitors with some of those classes as well

66
Q

62yr F with 25yr PMH DM2. 165cm, 79kg, BMI 29. Doc recommends influenza virus vaccine at this visit. Admin of vaccine is most likely to produce antibodies against what viral structure protein?

A

hemagglutinin> a membrane fusion protein binding sialic acid receptor on host cells allowing for viral entry. prevents subsequent infection of host cells
**vaccination contains multiple strains of killed virus due to random mutations in hemagglutinin protein= antigenic drift

67
Q

MOA of oseltamivir

A

anti-influenza med, targets neuraminidase, enzyme on viral surface that enables release of influ virus from host cell by cleaving sialic acid from glycoproteins

68
Q

what are M1 matrix protein, M2 ion channel, nucleoprotein

A

M1- influenza virus matrix protein that coats the inner viral envelope.
M2- influ virus ion channel on viral envelope of influenza A.
nucleoprotein- structural protein binds to viral RNA

69
Q

52yr M lives in Indiana w/ 1 month hx fever, nonproductive cough, works construction. 101.1F, crackles heard over all lung fields. CXR shows b/l interstitial infiltrates. Transbronchial biopsy shows oval yeast w/in macrophages. The most likely causal organism in the patient has a cell wall with?

A

glucans> pt has Histoplasma capsulatum
pulmonary histoplasmosis characterized by fever, malaise, cough, with develop calcified nodules in mediastinal/hilar lymphadenopathy.
transmission: inhalation of fungal spores
endemic to Mississippi/Ohio river valley

70
Q

what is the virulence of H.capsulatum

A

dependent on growth inside non-activated macrophages, protecting fungal cells from detection & elimination.
risk factors: exposure to bird/bat droppings

71
Q

Histoplasma on culture grows via septate mycelia–with what components in cell wall

A

glucans (mostly), chitin, glycoproteins

72
Q

Polyglutamic acid is the organic polymer synthesized by what bacteria

A

Bacillus species»expressed in cell capsule as virulence factor allowing for immune system evasion

73
Q

14yr M w/ small lump in L breast 2 months ago. 2.5cm, mildly tender, rubbery mass under L areola. Sexual maturity is 2 for genital/pubic hair. Remainder of exam shows no abnormalities. Most likely diagnosis?

A

physiologic gynecomastia> increased amt of glandular breast tissue in males, and common in puberty. Commonly present 12-14yrs w/ tender mass behind the nipple, typically self-resolving.
gynecomastia is small, rubbery, mobile, well-circumscribed.

74
Q

Sebaceous cysts commonly contain squamous epithelium, located?

A

commonly on trunk, face> well-circumscribed lesions with central punctum, generally painless unless infected.

75
Q

interventions for puberty gynecomastia

A

puberty gynecomastia with disruption of androgens/estrogens; increased levels of estrogen with conversion of androstenedione/T to estrone/estradiol.
tx: aromatase inhibitors, liposuction if continued annoyance

76
Q

41yr M acute onset abd pain caused by calculus at R ureterovesical junction. Pain is most likely to radiate where on the R?

A

R groin> sensory fibers that intervate ureters enter spinal cord at T12-L2> pain referral is common to groin via dermatomes
**pain at costovertebral angle is suggestive of pyelonephritis: fever, flank pain, tenderness–> nephrolithiasis pain can refer here is stone obstructs kidney w/ hydronephrosis

77
Q

32yr M w/ 6wk hx persistent pain, swelling in R arm beginning after fall on hike. 2 months ago he had hike in Andes Mountains. He splited arm w/ stick, food supply was limited to saltine crackers, PB, processed cheese. Xray today shows R arm with poorly formed callus, nonunion of fracture ends. Most likely pt had dec fxn of what protein?

A

prolyl-4-hydroxylase» facilitates the hydroxylation of proline & lysine in collagen synthesis/tissue repair w/ Vit C.
Vit C is essential, found in fruits/veggies–pt’s diet indicates deficiency

78
Q

scurvy presents as

A

BV fragility (easy bruising, petechiae, perifollicular hemorrhage)
impaired wound/bone healing
disordered “kinky” hair growth

79
Q

Investigator studying T-cell clone recognizes a peptide from the hemagglutinin glycoprotein of influenza virus. This clone most likely recognizes a peptide that was combined with HLA_DR2 in which cellular component?

A

endosomes>cytoplasmic organelles mainly composed of microtubules/vesicles that traffic/sort endocytosed material (vaccines, live virus). HLA-DR2 (MHCII) synthesized in rER trafficked to golgi, then late endosomes.

80
Q

Peptides combined with MHC1 are located

A

ER (lmao so close)

81
Q

8yr boy 6month hx of difficulty reading, impulsive behavior. IQ is 203, reading/math, 101/97. Screening shows clinicially significant levels of inattention, impulsivity, hyperactivity. Mood disorder screening is normal. The most appropriate tx for this pt is durg effecting what neurotransmitter?

A

norepi> ADHD w/