NavyBMR.com (OPNAVINST 3120.32) Flashcards
1
Q
Who will report to the Executive Officer for performance of assigned duties and will be
responsible to the Security Manager for accountability and control of classified NWPs?
A
NWP Custodian
2
Q
Personnel assigned as what will be under the supervision of the NWP Custodian and report to
him/her?
A
NWP Clerks
3
Q
Who will certify the qualifications of all Nuclear Weapons Handling Supervisors?
A
Commanding Officer
4
Q
The Nuclear Weapons Handling Supervisor shall report to whom?
A
Weapons Officer
5
Q
The Boatswain’s Mate of the Watch (BMOW) (when assigned) shall stand his/her watch
where?
A
Bridge
6
Q
The BMOW should be assigned as required during what condition steaming?
A
Condition IV
7
Q
The BMOW’s primary duty shall be to assist whom in carrying out the ship’s routine and
ensuring the efficient functioning of the watch?
A
OOD
8
Q
Who stands watch on the bridge and delivers messages, answers telephones, and carries out
such duties as the OOD and BMOW may direct?
A
Messenger
9
Q
Who will normally be a Helmsman under instruction assigned from the weapons/deck
department?
A
JV Talker
10
Q
Who shall select a chief petty officer to serve as Chief Master-at-Arms (CMAA)?
A
Executive Officer
11
Q
A petty officer of what pay grade may be similarly assigned on a permanent basis as Assistant
to the CMAA at the discretion of the Executive Officer?
A
First Class
12
Q
The billet of Mess Decks Master-At-Arms is usually written into the SMD billet structure as a
what?
A
Mess Management Specialist (MS) probably Culinary Specialist (CS) now
13
Q
A rated Master-at-Arms shall not be assigned as a Mess Decks Master-At-Arms following
what instruction?
A
SECNAVINST 5530.4C
14
Q
All departments, plus embarked units, shall transfer personnel to the Supply Department for
temporary duty as Food Service Attendants (FSA), wardroom rotational pool members, and CPO
mess attendants. Medical/dental personnel are prohibited from performing these duties per U.S.
Navy regulations, 1990, what article?
A
Article 1063
15
Q
Absent an approved SMD/FMD, it is recommended that food service attendants be provided
at a ratio of what from ship’s enlisted company?
A
1 to 25
16
Q
Absent an approved SMD/FMD, it is recommended that food service attendants be provided
at a ratio of what from the enlisted complements of embarked commands?
A
1 to 18
17
Q
The number of CPO mess attendants furnished will be on a ratio of what?
A
1 to 15
18
Q
The number of wardroom rotational pool members assigned will equal what percent of its
officer population?
A
12
19
Q
For accounting purposes a “tour of duty” as used hereinafter refers to the aggregate service an
individual performs as a food service attendant, wardroom rotational pool member, or CPO mess
attendant. The normal tour of duty shall be how many days?
A
90
20
Q
Personnel shall not be assigned two consecutive FSA tours unless on what basis?
A
Voluntary
21
Q
Personnel shall be assigned involuntarily to a second tour only with approval of whom, and
only when all non-rated personnel of the command have performed at least one tour?
A
Executive Officer
22
Q
Experience has shown that operational readiness is primarily a matter of what development?
A
Internal
23
Q
The first element of administration is what which involves developing a selected course of
future action?
A
Planning
24
Q
What is the element of administration which entails the orderly arrangement of materials and
personnel by functions in order to attain the objective of the unit.
A
Organization
25
What refers to the obligation of an individual to render an account of the proper discharge of
his or her responsibilities?
Accountability
26
What is the power to command, enforce laws, exact obedience, determine, or judge?
Authority
27
What is the assigning of a superior's authority to act to a subordinate?
Delegating
28
What is the obligation to carry forward an assigned task to a successful conclusion?
Responsibility
29
What ensures that a member reports directly to and receives orders from only one individual?
Unity of command
30
What refers to the ideal number of people who can be supervised effectively by one person?
Span of control
31
Ordinarily, a supervisor should be immediately responsible for not less than three nor more
than how many individuals?
7
32
What should be delegated to the lowest level of competence commensurate with the
subordinate’s assigned responsibility and capabilities?
Authority
33
Conduct manpower reviews at least how often and submit necessary manpower change
requests per OPNAVINST 1000.16H?
Annually
34
What is the authority which a commander in the military service lawfully exercises over his
or her subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?
Command
35
What must be lawful and must not be characterized by tyrannical or capricious conduct, or by
abusive language?
Orders
36
Punishment may only be imposed through judicial process or nonjudicially through what
article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?
Article 15
37
What is instruction in a phase of military duty in which an individual is deficient and is
intended to correct that deficiency?
Extra Military Instruction
38
EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day?
2
39
Final authority to withhold a what, however temporary, must ultimately rest with the level of
authority empowered to grant it?
Privilege
40
What link together each of the elements of administration and apply equally to all of them?
Communications
41
What which issues daily instruction to personnel assigned to the unit, is a key management
Tool?
Plan Of the Day (POD)
42
What instruction gives guidance on correspondence?
SECNAVINST 5216.5C
43
What instruction gives guidance on forms?
SECNAVINST 5213.10D
44
What instruction gives guidance on reports?
SECNAVINST 5214.2B
45
What instruction gives guidance on Administrative Issuances?
SECNAVINST 5215.1C
46
What instruction gives guidance on Records disposal, storage, and protection?
SECNAVINST 5212.5D
47
What instruction gives guidance on Files?
SECNAVINST 5210.11D
48
What instruction gives guidance on Classified material control?
OPNAVINST 5510.36
49
What shall be referred to concerning all requests for Department of the Navy records that can
reasonably be interpreted as requests under the Freedom of lnformation Act?
SECNAVINST 5720.42E
50
What must be carefully followed concerning collecting personal information and
safeguarding, maintaining, using, accessing, amending, and disseminating personal information
maintained in systems of records?
SECNAVINST 5211.5D
51
What element is the primary factor in the dynamic aspect of organization?
Human
52
The qualitative and quantitative expression of manpower requirements authorized by the
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) for a naval activity is called what?
Manpower Authorization (MP A)
53
As set forth in U.S. Navy Regulations, whom is charged with the absolute responsibility for
the safety, well-being, and efficiency of his or her command, except when and to the extent he or
she may be relieved therefrom by competent authority?
Commanding Officer
54
Who is the direct representative of the Commanding Officer?
Executive Officer
55
The Administrative Assistant is an aide to and may be delegated to act for the Executive
Officer in specific functions of administration. He/she serves as the what?
Division Officer
56
Which member of the ship's company is responsible, under the Commanding Officer, for
ensuring adequate security for ADP systems?
Automatic Data Processing (ADP) Security Officer
57
The ship's Automatic Data Processing (ADP) Security Officer is responsible for conducting
risk assessments, and provide documentation whenever there is a major change in facilities,
equipment, or software but not less frequently than every how often?
Three years
58
The CMAA ensures duty Master-At-Arms force perform their law enforcement duties under
what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5580.1
59
Who is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of
policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all
enlisted personnel?
CMC
60
Larger commands should assign DAPAs on the ratio of one DAPA per how many personnel
attached? Commands greater than how many shall have at least one full time DAPA?
300/1000
61
Who is an advisor and staff assistant to the Commanding Officer and the Executive Officer
concerning the interpretation and application of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, the Manual
for Courts-Martial, and other military laws and regulations in the maintenance, of discipline and
the administration of justice within the command?
Legal Officer
62
Who is responsible for enlisted personnel placement following the Personnel Assignment Bill
and for the administration and custody of enlisted personnel records?
Personnel Officer
63
Who assists the Commanding Officer and the Executive Officer in carrying out the public
affairs program of the unit?
Public Affairs Officer
64
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Who is appointed to exercise administrative and executive control and accountability for the
recreational services program? The program shall be administered following the Afloat
Recreation Manual (BUPERSINST 1710.17 (NOTAL)).
```
Recreational Services Officer
65
The Security Manager is responsible to the Commanding Officer for the management of the
command information and personnel security program. An officer or civilian employee, what
grade or above, designated in writing, as outlined in Chapter 6, Section 620.5 will be assigned
this duty as sole, principal, or collateral duty depending upon the scope of the unit's security
responsibilities?
GS-11
66
When no security officer is authorized/assigned; the duties, responsibilities, and authority
described in paragraph 303 .17b will be assumed by whom or an assigned officer assisted by
them?
CMAA
67
The security officer establishes procedures for ensuring that all losses and gains, inventory
adjustments, and surveys of property are reported following what instruction and other directives
as appropriate?
SECNAVINST 5500.4G
68
The security officer establishes and provides for maintenance of records relating to losses of
government and personal property and violations and breaches of physical security measures and
procedures. These records shall be retained until completion of the cognizant Immediate Superior
in Command (ISIC) inspection cycle, or a minimum of how long? Whichever is greater.
Three years
69
. Who, under the direction of the Executive Officer, is responsible to the Commanding Officer
for the assignment and general supervision of all deck watchstanders, both underway and in port?
Senior Watch Officer
70
Who is responsible, under the Executive Officer, for the administration and accountability of
ship's correspondence and directives, for administration and custody of officer personnel records,
and for the maintenance of reports and the forms control program?
Ship's Secretary
71
Who is the Commanding Officer's writer?
Senior Yeoman (YN)
72
What will be a primary billet aboard ships with SNAP 1/SNAP II systems?
NTCSS System Coordinator
73
Who will supervise implementation of The Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) System
and ensure its use as the basis for training objectives within the command training program?
Training Officer
74
Who reports to the Executive Officer for coordination and direct supervision of all facets of
the 3-M program?
3-M Coordinator
75
On what platform will the 3-M Coordinator report to the Maintenance Management
Department (MMD) Head?
Aircraft carriers
76
Who may be appointed in writing by the Commanding Officer a period of time to
meet the religious needs of a particular religious faith group?
Lay Reader
77
Who will not be assigned as lay readers?
Religious Program Specialists (RP)
78
Who assists the Executive Officer in the proper administration of Naval Reserve Personnel
assigned to fill valid mobilization billets of the command or assigned for training?
Reserve Coordinator
79
The Management Control Program Coordinator (MCPC) is responsible under the Executive
Officer for coordinating a Management Control program to fulfill the requirements of what act of
1982?
Federal Managers' Financial Integrity Act (FMFIA)
80
What is a group of persons organized under a president, chairperson, or senior member to
evaluate a situation and make recommendations for solution or improvement; sit as a judicial
body?
Board or committee
81
The awards board will be composed of how many or more officers designated by the
Commanding Officer, one of whom will be designated as the Incentive Awards Officer?
Two
82
Which board will investigate every incident referred to the board which may result in claims
against or in favor of the United States Government?
Claims Investigation
83
The Controlled Medicinals Inventory Board will be responsible for conducting inventories of
all controlled medicinals, except for bulk stocks carried in a stores account at what interval?
Monthly
84
The Controlled Medicinals Inventory Board will be composed of how many members, at least
two whom shall be officers?
Three
85
What board will be responsible for examining eligible, recommended enlisted personnel for
advancement and/or change in rating. This board will administer all examinations for
advancement in rating?
Enlisted Examining
86
What board will investigate the loss or damage to certain classes of materials?
Formal Survey
87
What board will solicit recommendations from the command's enlisted personnel regarding
the operation of the enlisted mess?
General Mess Advisory
88
The General Mess Advisory board will convene how often?
Monthly
89
What board is established to inspect the hull, tanks, free flood spaces, outboard fittings,
valves, and appendages at time of dry docking and prior to undocking to ensure proper condition
for waterborne operations?
Hull
90
What board will ensure that all government property and monies are accounted for and are
properly protected and disposed of; that personnel adhere to regulations and instructions; and that
irregularities are corrected?
Monies Audit
91
The Nuclear Weapons Safety Council will be convened by the Executive Officer how often or
as required to maintain an effective nuclear safety program?
Quarterly
92
What board will examine applicants for appointment to the United States Naval Academy or other officer candidate programs and recommend those who are considered qualified?
Officer Candidate Examining
93
The officer Candidate Examining board will consist of how many line officers of the grade of
lieutenant or above?
Three
94
What board will be responsible to the Commanding Officer for auditing precious metals in the
custody of the Dental Officer?
Precious Metals Audit Board
95
The Recreation Committee will represent all enlisted personnel in matters concerning the
recreational services program and makes recommendations regarding the conduct of the program to the Commanding Officer who will be the what?
Fund Administrator
96
The Recreation Committee shall consist of not less than how many enlisted personnel designated in writing by the Fund Administrator?
Six
97
On small commands (less than how many personnel), the Enlisted Safety Committee may be
combined into the Safety Council?
300
98
What will assist the Commanding Officer in developing and executing long range plans for
enhancing the acoustic environment of the ship?
Ship Silencing Board
99
Inspect the brig daily to ascertain the condition of the prisoners and to care for their needs.
When the Brig Officer is absent for any reason for a period in excess of 24 hours, who will make
this daily inspection?
Command Duty Officer
100
The Command Fitness Coordinator (CFC) will be designated in writing by the Commanding
Officer to plan, organize, and administer the commands implementation of the Navy's physical
readiness program as defined in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 6110.1J
101
One assistant shall be designated for every how many members being tested during PRT for
the CFC?
Twenty-five
102
The Communications Security Material (CMS) Custodian, under the supervision of whom,
will be responsible to the Commanding Officer for the maintenance of the current allowance of
CMS material?
Communications Officer
103
The Engineering Officer of the Watch or Engineering Duty Officer will have custody of the
Engineering Department what, which will be kept in locked stowage?
Cleaning alcohol
104
Who will be responsible to the Commanding Officer for coordinating the planning,
execution, and documentation of ship maintenance requirements at the depot, intermediate, and
organizational levels?
Ships Maintenance Management Officer (SMMO)
105
Officers or enlisted personnel E-6 and above charged with the custody or disbursement of
public funds are not eligible to serve as what?
Mess Treasurer
106
The Mess Treasurer will normally be elected for periods of not less than six months nor
more than how long?
One year
107
No stores will be procured by a mess whereby the supplier permits payment upon what?
Consumption
108
Daily operations of the wardroom mess(es) will be under the direct supervision of the
Wardroom Mess what?
Caterer
109
Ensure that NWPs in the library are inspected at least once every six months and that the
entire NWP library is inspected at least once every how often?
Annually
110
Who is the vital element of the Nuclear Weapon Safety Program?
Nuclear Weapons Safety Officer (NSO)
111
The Photographic Officer will coordinate usage of assigned photographic equipment in
accordance with what instruction, Naval Imaging Program?
SECNAVINST 5290.1B
112
The Radiation Health Officer will provide consultation regarding the health aspects of
exposure to radiation sources and supervise the radiation health protection program following
what?
NAVMED P5055 (NOTAL)
113
When the Recreational Fund Custodian is absent from the activity for any period beyond 15
days and less than how many days, the Fund Administrator shall detail in writing another officer
to act for the custodian?
46
114
Which words are intended to allow deviations from the general rule that there is one TSCO for the command?
"for which responsible"
115
There will be no "standard routing" for what material in a command?
Top Secret
116
The Wartime Information Security Program (WISP) Officer will be the head of the what?
Censorship Board
117
Who will be responsible, under the Communications Officer, for electronic exterior
communications and the administration of the internal systems pertaining thereto, including the
operation and preventive maintenance of communications equipment?
Radio Officer
118
Who will be responsible, under the Communications Officer, for visual exterior
communications and the administration of the internal systems pertaining thereto, including the
operation and preventive maintenance of communications equipment?
Signal Officer
119
Control of aircraft fires is the responsibility of whom in ships having an Air Department?
Air Officer
120
Who will be responsible, under the Engineer Officer, for establishing and maintaining effective damage control organization and for supervising repairs to the hull and machinery, except as specifically assigned to another department or division?
Damage Control Assistant (DCA)
121
Who will be responsible, under the Engineer Officer, for the proper operation and maintenance of the electrical power generating, storage and distribution systems, and auxiliary electrical systems and equipment?
Electrical Officer
122
Who will be responsible, under the Engineer Officer, for operation, care and maintenance of the ship's propulsion machinery, related auxiliaries, and such other auxiliaries as may be assigned?
Main Propulsion Assistant (MP A)
123
In ships with a Deck Department, the head of the department will be designated the what?
First Lieutenant
124
Who conducts routine inspections of the unit's messing, food service, living, berthing, brig, and working spaces to ensure sanitary conditions exist?
Medical Officer
125
Medical treatment and assignment of HIV(+) personnel shall be in accordance with what
instruction?
SECNAVINST 5300.30C
126
Guidance concerning smoking in eating facilities, working spaces, and berthing spaces, and its potential impact on health, as described in what instruction?
SECNAVINST 5100.13A
127
When a medical officer department head is not embarked, enlisted medical personnel will
represent whom, through delegated authority, in all medical functions performed?
Surgeon General
128
What forbids the assignment of medical personnel to duties unrelated to their specialties while assigned to a combat area during a period of armed conflict?
NAVREGS 1990
129
The head of Navigation Department or Division of a ship will be designated the what?
Navigator
130
The Navigator will report in writing to the Commanding Officer, when underway, the ship's
position at what times each day and other times required by the Commanding Officer?
0800, 1200, and 2000
131
Who, under the Operations Officer, will be responsible for the organization, operation, and
coordination of electronic support measures (ESM), electronic counter-measures (ECM), electronic counter countermeasures (ECCM), and cryptologic electronic support measures (CESM) in ships equipped for this function?
Electronic Warfare Officer
132
Who is the Contracting Authority for the command?
Commanding Officer
133
On ships without Supply Corps officers assigned, contracting responsibilities may be delegated to the Supply Officer per what?
NAVSUP560
134
During General Emergency/Abandon Ship, who is responsible for ensuring destruction/salvage of ADP material?
Supply Officer
135
Who, under the Commanding Officer, will be responsible for the operation, care,
maintenance and inspection of the armament, armament appurtenances, magazine spaces, fire
control equipment, guns and gun directors, missile batteries, and weapons direction equipment?
Weapons Officer
136
Who, under the Commanding Officer, will be responsible for the operation, care, maintenance, and inspection of the armament, armament appurtenances, and magazine spaces?
Combat Systems Officer
137
Who is responsible, under Combat Systems Officer, for the integration and management of
combat system maintenance efforts, evaluation of combat systems material and operational
readiness, and combat system alignment?
System Test Officer (STO)
138
Who is responsible for evaluating the operational readiness and monitoring the maintenance
of the combat systems, including the unit's search and detection equipment and command and
control equipment?
Electronics Readiness Officer
139
Chaplains are responsible for submitting required reports regarding religious ministries aboard the command per what instruction?
OPNAVINST 1730.1B
140
In CV/CVNs the head of the Maintenance Management Department will be designated the
what?
Maintenance Management Officer
141
The training assistant, normally the junior division officer, will aid whom in administering training within the division and incorporates the program into departmental and unit-wide training programs?
Division officer
142
Who will be the senior petty officer in charge of a maintenance group and will be responsible to the department head, via the division officer, for 3-M system operation within the work center?
Work Center Supervisor
143
Work center supervisors in aviation units should refer to what instruction for additional duties unique to aviation?
OPNAVINST 4790.2E (NOTAL)
144
The primary duty of whom afloat is the security of weapons per OPNAVINST C8126.1?
Marine detachments
145
Where personnel and facilities permit, personnel of the staff and flagship who are assigned to oceanography duties will become a single unit under the supervision and management of whom?
Staff oceanographer
146
What is defined as any period of time during which an individual is assigned specific,
detailed responsibilities on a recurring basis?
Watch
147
Marine officers below the grade of what may be assigned as Officer of the Deck (OOD) in port?
Major
148
What is that force which a person uses with the purpose of causing- or which he/she knows,
or should know, would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm?
Deadly force
149
The length of time for continuous watches is normally how many hours?
Four
150
Which watch is known as the Mid Watch?
0000-0400
151
Which watch is known as the Morning Watch?
0400-0800
152
Which watch is known as the Forenoon Watch?
0800-1200
153
Which watch is known as the Afternoon Watch?
1200-1600
154
Which watch is known as the First dog Watch?
1600-1800
155
Which watch is known as the Second dog Watch?
1800-2000
156
Which watch is known as the Evening Watch?
2000-0000
157
In-port duty personnel are normally assigned a day's duty from what time to what time the
following day?
0800-0800
158
Oncoming watch should be on station to make inspection, read logs and turn-over sheets,
and obtain information from relief what time frame before the hour?
One-half hour
159
Watch members should be relieved how many minutes before the hour?
Fifteen
160
Supervisors such as the OOD, EOOW, Etc. should be relieved when?
On the hour
161
The Deck log shall be prepared in the manner and form prescribed by the Chief of Naval
Operations as directed in what instruction?
OPNAVINST 3100.7B
162
What record shall be a log of gyro and magnetic compass courses, adjustments, and tests?
Magnetic Compass
163
What book shall be a chronological record of orders pertaining to the speed of the propulsion
engines or motors?
Engineers Bell Book
164
What doctrine aligns responsibilities within the force for surveillance and reaction, and
emphasizes the decentralization of authority for tactical decisions in combat?
Composite Warfare Commander (CWC)
165
What underway readiness level is the condition of readiness for optimum peacetime cruising?
Condition IV
166
What underway readiness level is the condition of readiness for combatting single warfare area threats for extended periods?
Condition III
167
What underway readiness level is the highest degree of readiness and is intended primarily
to combat the ship's primary area threat or multiple threats?
Condition I
168
Who is the Commanding Officer's representative concerning the tactical employment and the defense of the unit?
Tactical Action Officer (TAO)
169
Who underway has been designated by the Commanding Officer to be in charge of the ship
including its safe and proper operation?
Officer of the Deck (OOD)
170
Who is responsible for the reliable, rapid, and secure conduct of external visual and radio
communications?
Communications Watch Officer (CWO)
171
The Damage Control Watch Officer must notify the OOD, DCA, and Weapons Department Duty Officer when the fire alarm board shows the temperature of any magazine is above what
temperature?
105 degrees F
172
What watches are set to ensure that each ship is capable of rapidly recovering personnel from the sea?
Lifeboat
173
A qualified helmsman, as recorded in the service record, will steer courses ordered by whom?
Conning Officer
174
Who will stand watch at the engine order telegraph on the bridge and will ring up the Conning Officer's orders to the engines ensuring that all bells are correctly answered?
Lee Helmsman
175
When in defense condition (DEFCON) five, ships moored pier-side in U.S. ports should maintain how many duty sections?
Six
176
The Duty MAA will perform his/her duties in accordance with what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5580.1
177
U.S. Navy Regulations article 1162 discusses the prohibition of alcoholic liquors for
beverage purposes onboard any ship, craft, aircraft, or in, any vehicle of the Department of the
Navy, except as modified by what instruction?
SECNAVINST 1700.11C
178
All late sleepers will tum out at what time?
0700
179
At the completion of a motion picture, all persons will remain at what until the Commanding
Officer and the flag officers have departed?
Attention
180
Painting will conform to the instructions contained in Naval Ships’ Technical Manual(NSTM), Chapter what?
631
181
Supervision of the paint locker and the control and issue of paint, paint pots, and brushes is the responsibility of whom?
First Lieutenant
182
No person shall discharge unpulped garbage, when underway, in navigable waters of the U.S; plus the coniguous zone out to how many nautical miles?
12
183
No person will discharge oils or oily waste, when underway, within how many nautical
miles from any shoreline?
50
184
Before any unit's equipment or spare parts are removed permanently (over what time frame),
the Commanding Officer must grant permission?
1 week
185
The Security Manager will maintain a current record of combinations for all safes onboard a naval unit except the safe assigned to whom for safeguarding public funds?
Paymaster
186
All persons will use the following routes when proceeding to their general quarters or
emergency stations; What are the routes?
Forward and up on the starboard side; aft and down on the port side.
187
No person will be issued arms until he/she has qualified with assigned weapons under what
instruction?
OPNAVINST 3591.1C
188
Prior to firearms qualification and annually thereafter, all personnel will receive training in
the use of deadly force and will sign a statement to be entered in their training record that such
training was received under what instruction?
SECNAVINST 5500.29B
189
Requests for exchange of duty will be made only between people fully qualified to stand each other's watches and will be for only how long?
Full day
190
Whenever swimming parties are authorized at least how many swimmers, qualified as life guards, will be posted?
2
191
What sets forth policy for assigning personnel to duties or stations for execuuting specific
evolutions or accomplishing certain functions?
Unit bill
192
Who is responsible to the Executive Officer for maintaining the Berthing and Locker Bill?
Personnel Officer
193
No ship's officer shall be moved from his/her stateroom to accommodate another officer
except as directed by whom?
Executive Officer
194
Which officer (or any officer designated by the Executive Officer) is responsible for cleaning, preserving, and maintaining flag spaces when the staff is not embarked?
Operations Officer
195
Cleaning gear will be issued to divisions periodically under the supervision of whom?
First Lieutenant
196
What shall never be used to clean electrical equipment?
Steel wool
197
General visiting shall be as specified in the Navy Information and Personnel Security Program Regulation under what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
198
When scheduled, general visiting normally will occur between what hours?
1300 and 1600
199
What refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups, as differentiated from
general public?
Casual visiting
200
What refers to specifically authorized occasions when the unit hosts the general public and is on an unclassified basis only?
General visiting
201
Requests for what visits are submitted following Chapter 18, OPNAV 5510.1H in sufficient time to process?
Classified
202
What provides additional guidance for foreign nationals visiting nuclear powered ships?
SECNAVINST 5510.34
203
As required, personnel from each department shall be detailed to conduct tours of the unit.
One person shall be assigned to a readily manageable group of visitors (ordinarily how many
people)?
15
204
An annual what day will be established at each command where a portion of the work
performed in each office will be devoted to the disposal or destruction of unneeded classified
holdings?
Clean-out
205
Accountability for incoming material shall be maintained by the use of sequentially assigned
activity control numbers (ACNs) (commonly known as what?)
Route slip numbers
206
The yeoman shall normally receive all incoming mail except what?
Top Secret
207
Mail requiring control is routed by the what (OPNAV 5211/7)?
Correspondence Document Control Card
208
Secret and Confidential material may be reproduced only upon specific approval of whom?
Security Manager
209
Classified material shall be handled per what instruction and shall be under constant
surveillance by appropriately cleared personnel with the proper need to know when outside of the
safes?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
210
What type of signature of the Commanding Officer, Executive Officer , and department heads may be used for routine correspondence, routine service record entries, and receipt of enlisted personnel?
Facsimile
211
Per what instruction does not require a record of destruction for Confidential material?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
212
A certification of destruction of Top Secret and record of destruction of Secret documents
shall be prepared and retained for a period of how long?
Two years
213
Publications distributed under the Communications Security Material System shall be signed and accounted for following what?
CMS 4L
214
The Executive Officer shall have custody of the what for use as directed by the Commanding Officer?
Ship's seal
215
What bill sets forth the procedures for indoctrination of newly reported enlisted personnel?
Orientation
216
Which Officer, under the direction of the Executive Officer, is responsible for the Orientation Bill?
I-Division
217
The Executive Officer shall select a chief petty officer to serve as what?
Chief Master-at-Arms (CMAA)
218
Naval units are what type of areas and internal entry shall be restricted and controlled as
prescribed in the General Visiting Bill and the Security from Unauthorized Visitors Bill?
Level One
219
All watch standers bearing arms shall be qualified following OPNAVINST 3591.1C and weapons will be loaded per what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5580.1
220
All armed personnel must be properly trained. An attrition rate of up to what percent is authorized for crew transfers, untoward circumstances, non-effectives, etc?
45
221
What is the direct, immediate, and moral responsibility of all persons assigned to the ship?
Security
222
The self-defense force (one squad of 13 persons per how many crew members - maximum of
three squads) will augment the normal watch force and/or other on-board security forces?
200
223
Arms, ammunition, and law enforcement equipment required by this bill shall be issued to
the first watch how many minutes before posting the watch?
15
224
In assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests, Department of Defense
intelligence agencies use a scale of how many steps to describe the severity of the threat?
Five-step
225
Assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests factors of existence, capability, and targeting must be present. History and intention may or may not be present would be defined as what severity level?
Critical
226
Assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests factors of existence, capability,
history, and intention must be present would be defined as what severity level?
High
227
Assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests factors of existence, capability, and history must be present. Intention may or may not be present would be defined as what severity level?
Medium
228
Assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests existence and capability must be
present. History may or may not be present would be defined as what severity level?
Low
229
Assessing the terrorist threat to U.S. personnel and interests existence and/or capability may or may not be present would be defined as what severity level?
Negligible
230
Which condition is declared when a general, threat of possible terrorist activity is directed
toward installations and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable, and where
circumstances do not justify full implementation of higher measures?
THREATCON ALPHA
231
Which condition is declared when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
THREATCON BRAVO
232
Which condition is declared when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating
that some form of terrorist action against installations and personnel is imminent?
THREATCON CHARLIE
233
Which condition is declared when a terrorist attack has occurred in the immediate area or
intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely?
THREATCON DELTA
234
Periodic what ensure that proper measures are taken to keep machinery, spaces, and equipment operational, clean, and in a satisfactory state of preservation?
Zone inspections
235
A Zone inspection with no discrepancies is assigned an adjective grade as what?
Outstanding
236
A Zone inspection with minor discrepancies; no damage control discrepancies is assigned an
adjective grade as what?
Excellent
237
A Zone inspection with no major discrepancies which have not had corrective action
initiated is assigned an adjective grade as what?
Satisfactory
238
A Zone inspection with major discrepancies noted in any inspection area is assigned an adjective grade as what?
Unsatisfactory
239
Ensure that designated engineering department personnel fuel and inspect the boats prior to
what time daily?
0800
240
Rules of the Road must be obeyed strictly. Especially important is the Rule of what which
requires that boats give way to ships and seaplanes?
Good Seamanship
241
Whale boats used as lifeboats should not have what?
Rigged canopies
242
In what type of relief, units may deal with demoralized, hysterical, or apathetic survivors
who are incapable, temporarily at least, of intelligent action in their own behalf?
Civil disaster
243
In civil disaster relief, what period begins with the ordering of a unit to a disaster area and
extends until the unit's arrival?
PHASE I, PLANNING PHASE
244
In civil disaster relief, when is a qualified group sent to the scene to determine what is most urgently needed?
PHASE II, INVESTIGATION OF EXTENT OF DISASTER
245
In Civil disaster relief, rescue, firefighting, and medical aid shall be administered in what phase?
PHASE III, INITIAL DISASTER RELIEF
246
In Civil disaster relief, in what phase will medical and rescue work be continued. Food
and supplies shall be distributed as directed by the senior officer present, and an attempt shall be
made to restore disrupted public utilities?
PHASE IV, AID AND ASSISTANCE
247
In Civil disaster relief, in which phase following the relief efforts, and when directed, units
shall withdraw from the disaster area. Equipment used in the rescue work shall be recovered prior
to leaving unless otherwise directed?
PHASE V, WITHDRAWAL
248
If ambient temperatures below what are expected, substitute refrigerator fluorescent lighting
tubes for the normal ones installed in cargo spaces?
20 degrees F
249
Who under the Executive Officer, is responsible for the Darken Ship Bill?
Damage Control Assistant (DCA)
250
Ensure that all of these fittings within division responsibility are stenciled on both sides with
a red "Z" encircled with a black "D"?
DOG-ZEBRA
251
Ensure that personnel working over the side and in the superstructure comply with what instruction?
OPNAVINST 5100.19C
252
What restricts electromagnetic transmissions to prevent dudding, loss of reliability, ignition,
or possible warhead detonation of ordnance?
HERO (Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance)
253
What heavy weather condition must be set when trends indicate heavy weather and/or high
seas within 72 hours?
Condition Four
254
What heavy weather condition must be set when heavy weather is possible within 48 hours?
Condition Three
255
What heavy weather condition must be set when heavy weather and or high seas are anticipated within 24 hours?
Condition Two
256
What heavy weather condition must be set when heavy weather is anticipated within 12 hours?
Condition One
257
The seismic sea wave or tsunami (often mistakenly called a tidal wave) generates from a
submarine earthquake or volcanic eruption and moves out from the generation area at speeds up
to how many miles per hour?
500
258
The storm surge is frequently the most dangerous aspect of a coastal storm as heights tri1ty
reach how many feet or more?
20
259
What shipboard teams, composed of one officer and five enlisted technicians, have diving equipment organic to team equipment allowances?
EOD
260
Divers shall not enter the water until permission is granted by the OOD and what international signal is flying from the ship and the diving boat?
"CODE ALPHA"
261
All boats will stay outside what radius of diving operations
50-yards
262
Except in extreme emergencies, no diving operation will commence unless how many
qualified divers are present?
Four
263
What is simply defined as unwanted sound?
Noise
264
There are how many general areas or methods of reducing own ship's noise?
Four
265
In addition to individual qualifications, all shore fire control party personnel shall be familiar with the pertinent portions of what?
SECNAVINST 5060.22
266
What is the primary U.S. maritime agency charged with the enforcement of all federal laws
on the high seas and in waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States?
USCG
267
The Nuclear Reactor Security Team will consist of a minimum of two people who can reach the scene of possible sabotage within 5 minute notice with a backup force of three people armed with firearms who can respond within how long of the initial alert?
10 minutes
268
When evacuating civilian personnel men and women evacuees shall be divided into separate
groups. The groups shall be further divided into units of how many persons for administration and
processing?
10
269
General quarters stations for evacuees shall be in their assigned what?
Berthing spaces
270
Shipboard materials required for the attainment of the ship's missions regardless of flammability category are known as what?
VITAL MATERIALS
271
Shipboard materials important to support, but not absolutely mandatory for, the performance
of the ship's mission are known as what?
SEMI-VITAL MATERIALS
272
Shipboard materials which do not directly support a ship's mission and serve solely as a
convenience or habitability function are known as what?
NON-VITAL MATERIALS
273
Shipboard materials so readily flammable, toxic, or of such hazardous nature to endanger life or a ship's mission accomplishment or survivability if major damage occurs are known as
what?
EXTREMELY HAZARDOUS MATERIAL
274
Although perhaps all materials might be construed as hazardous, these materials shall be those which would support or accelerate fires or cascading damage from major battle damage, or when burning would produce highly toxic smoke, vapors, or gases, what are they?
HAZARDOUS MATERIAL
275
Division officers shall appoint a senior petty officer (what pay-grade or above) as the division safety petty officer to assist in the responsibilities and provide appropriate on-board indoctrination to ensure satisfactory performance in the safety field?
E-5
276
An interim or final response in writing to the originator of the reported condition will be
provided under the authority of the Safety Officer within how many working days of the receipt
of the report?
10
277
The mental consideration of the process as part of the operationally estimate." Assessment on the run.", is known as what?
Hasty Risk Assessment
278
What is a personalized means of teaching and developing professional skills?
On the job training (OJT)
279
What program is designed to qualify officer and enlisted personnel to perform portions of
their assigned duties?
Personnel Qualifications Standards (PQS)
280
What system is the nucleus for managing maintenance aboard all ships and shore stations of
the Navy?
3-M
281
What provide the detailed procedures for performing the preventive maintenance and state
who, what, when, how, and with what resources a specific requirement is to be accomplished?
Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs)
282
What provides a means for recording the expenditure of resources (personnel, material, and
time) associated with maintenance actions?
Maintenance Data System (MDS)
283
From the deferred maintenance reported, what file is developed by the ship or automated data processing facility designated by the TYCOM?
Current Ships Maintenance Project (CSMP)
284
What has been designated the focal point for receipt and distribution of the maintenance and
material information reported?
NAVSEALOGCEN
285
There are how many levels of ships maintenance and modernization?
Three
286
Organizational level maintenance and intermediate level maintenance are within the capability and are the responsibility of whom?
Operating forces
287
The greatest industrial capability resides within what level, comprised of naval and private
shipyards, the ship repair facilities, and designated overhaul points?
Depot
288
What level maintenance is the corrective and preventive maintenance which is the responsibility of and performed by the ship's crew on its assigned equipment?
Organizational
289
What level maintenance is preventive and corrective maintenance which is the responsibility
of and performed by designated maintenance activities for direct support of using organizations,
such as that performed by qualified personnel with specialized facilities and training aboard
tenders, repair ships, and aircraft carriers, and at fleet support bases, and Shore Intermediate
Maintenance Activities (SIMA)?
Intermediate
290
What level maintenance is maintenance which is the responsibility of and performed by
designated maintenance activities to support organizational level maintenance and intermediate
level maintenance activities by the use of more extensive shop facilities, equipment and personnel
of higher technical skill than are available at the lower levels of maintenance?
Depot
291
What has been implemented by OPNAVINST 4790.2H (NOTAL), provides an integrated system
for performing aeronautical equipment maintenance and all related support functions?
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
292
What include orders, regulations, instructions, and notices which serve as guides for controlling the decisions and actions of subordinates in the organization?
Directives
293
A military what prescribes the course of action to be followed in a given situation?
Policy
294
What contains authority or information of a one time or brief nature with a self-canceling provision?
Notice
295
A notice will normally remain in effect for less than what time frame?
Six months
296
A notice cannot remain in effect for longer than how long?
1 Year
297
What instruction requires that directives control points be established to control the issuance
of directives?
SECNAVINST 5215.1C
298
How many basic distribution lists are required for unit use?
Three
299
For internal distribution use which basic distribution list?
List I
300
For other units of the same type use which basic distribution list?
List II
301
For higher authority use which basic distribution list?
List III
302
The use of binders using what, permits compiling all directives on the same subject and
allows ready reference to material within the system by individuals with a need to know?
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSIC)
303
What prescribes the standard format for instructions and notices?
SECNAVINST 5215.1C
304
What prescribes the Forms Management Program for the Navy?
SECNAVINST 5213.10D
