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Yeoman Advancement March 2014 > NavyBMR.com (BUPERSINST 1430.16) > Flashcards

NavyBMR.com (BUPERSINST 1430.16) Flashcards

1
Q

Personnel meeting minimum time-in-rate (TIR) requirements will be advanced automatically
to what ranks without local action?

A

E2 andE3

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2
Q

Advancement candidates E4 through E7 take competitive examinations that are used as part of
a what?

A

FMS

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3
Q

Advancement to E7, E8, and E9 requires what action?

A

Selection board

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4
Q

What candidates are designated SBE on the basis of their CO/OIC recommendation and the TIR eligibility?

A

E8 andE9

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5
Q

Selection boards are convened annually by what?

A

Chief of Naval Personnel (CHNAVPERS)

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6
Q

What are normally held annually, or as required, to consider any member who was eligible but not properly considered by the last regular board?

A

Special Boards

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7
Q

Applicants must submit a request for a special enlisted selection board to NAVPERSCOM no
later than how many months after the regular board convened?

A

9

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8
Q

What is the sole approval authority for convening special enlisted selection boards?

A

CHNAVPERS

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9
Q

E6 personnel must pass the E7 advancement-in-rate examination prior to submitting a package
for what selection board?

A

LDO

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10
Q

What provides information on selection of senior enlisted personnel for promotion to commissioned officer status?

A

OPNAVINST 1420.1A

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11
Q

What is responsible for developing, publishing, and distributing Navy-wide advancement-in-rate
Examinations for the purpose of testing and rank -ordering personnel who are qualified for
advancement?

A

NETPDTC

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12
Q

NETPDTG Will publish a quarterly schedule with exact dates of upcoming AEDCs no later than how many days prior to the first AEDC in that quarter?

A

120

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13
Q

NPUC will coordinate with COMUSFLTFORCOM and applicable Type Commanders (TYCOMs) to designate the best-qualified rating SMEs (usually how many) covering a wide diversity of experience in the rating for participation in the rating AEDCs?

A

6

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14
Q

Major commands will use a command nomination process for SME selection, and nominations should be received by NETPDTC no later than how many days prior to the scheduled AEDC?

A

45

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15
Q

Major commands will advise the SME’ s command that NETPDTC will provide accounting data and arrange lodging approximately how long prior to the commencement of the AEDC?

A

2-weeks

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16
Q

To participate in the associated ratings AEDC, normally six chief petty officers with practical
experience will attend an AEDC and determine the content of the rating’s advancement exam by
developing a how many-year (for most ratings) Topic/Sub-topic Subject/Sub-Subject Matrix for
exam planning?

A

2

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17
Q

What is the most important advancement eligibility requirement?

A

CO/OIC recommendation

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18
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E1-E2?

A

9 months

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19
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E2-E3?

A

9 months

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20
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E3-E4?

A

6 months

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21
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E4-E5?

A

12 months

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22
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E3-E4?

A

36 months

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23
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E6-E7?

A

36 months

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24
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E7-E8?

A

36 months

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25
Q

What are the basic TIR requirements for advancing from E8-E9?

A

36 months

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26
Q

Path of advancement is that path from E1 through E9, as stipulated in what, Manual of Navy
Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classifications and Occupational Standards?

A

NAVPERS 18068F

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27
Q

For rating conversions in the same pay grade, enter the actual date of designation on only what?

A

NAVPERS 1070/604

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28
Q

Designation of all personnel other than those graduating from “A” school will be per what?

A

MILPERSMAN 144-050

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29
Q

What, regarding Rating Entry for General Apprentices (REGA) and Career Reenlistment
Objectives (CREO), and Enlisted Career Management Objectives (ECMO) ALNAVRESFORs
for drilling Navy Reservists, contain procedures for establishing eligibility for entry into
closed/open ratings?

A

NAVADMINs

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30
Q

Personnel who are Selection Board Eligible who submit for a change of rating must be effected how long prior to board convening, in order to receive a review by the selection board in the new rating?

A

1 month

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31
Q

MILPERSMAN 1440-010 and what else contain methods for changing from one path of
advancement to another?

A

1160-090

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32
Q

What authority is required to participate in Navy-wide examinations for change in rating?

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

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33
Q

What is an alien who has been lawfully admitted to the U.S. for permanent residence under an
immigration visa?

A

Immigrant alien

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34
Q

The residency requirement for naturalization is 5 years, but is reduced to how many years
after 3 year’s honorable service in the U.S. Armed Forces?

A

3

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35
Q

What contains instructions for naturalization of service members?

A

MILPERSMAN 5352-010

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36
Q

What are defined as aliens who are other than immigrant aliens?

A

Foreign nationals

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37
Q

All ACs must possess a valid what, Air Traffic Control Specialist (ATCS) Certificate?

A

FAA 7220-1

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38
Q

Requirements for entry into the PC rating are contained in what?

A

OPNAVINST 5112.6C

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39
Q

Reserve personnel in what status are NOT eligible for participation in a Navy-wide advancement examination?

A

Records Review

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40
Q

Except for Fleet Reservists recalled to active duty, E6, E7, and E8 members who have submitted formal written requests for transfer to the FLTRES are ineligible for further advancement consideration, unless the request is what?

A

HYT-mandated

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41
Q

What mobilized personnel are not required to complete the LDP requirement for advancement
due to the limited duration of active duty?

A

Individual Ready Reserve (IRR)

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42
Q

. As directed by what, nondesignated personnel who have an “A” school request approved are
not authorized to participate in advancement examination for any other rating?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

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43
Q

Personnel in what paygrades who are ordered to a Class “A” school that incorporates a lengthy course of instruction shall be converted in rating at an equal paygrade after successful completion of the basic or A-1 phase of that course of instruction?

A

E1 through E5

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44
Q

What is the date which an advancement candidate’s Service in Paygrade (SIPG) is
computed for advancement purposes?

A

TED

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45
Q

Department of Defense (DOD) prescribes what as the minimum active service a person must
have to compete as a regular candidate for advancement?

A

TAFMS

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46
Q

What date is the date from which an advancement candidate’s total service in paygrade is
considered to have commenced for the purpose of computing advancement eligibility for the next
higher paygrade?

A

TIR

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47
Q

What is defined as those members not under a Navy contract at time of reentry to naval
service or Navy Reservists attached to the IRR?

A

Break in service

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48
Q

NAVETs who return to active duty or to Drilling Reserve in the same paygrade held at
discharge, release, or transfer to the IRR after a break in service in excess of how long will have
an adjusted TIR date?

A

24 hours

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49
Q

Lost time in excess of how long as a result of unauthorized absence, sick-misconduct,
misconduct, or confinement is not creditable in computing service in paygrade?

A

15 days

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50
Q

COs/OICs have the authority to reinstate members to what paygrade (one paygrade only) anytime after reduction in rate, without referral to higher authority?

A

E2 orE3

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51
Q

Only what has reinstatement authority to paygrades E4 and through E6?

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

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52
Q

COs/OICs may waive up to what of the required TIR for Sailors in paygrades E5 and E6 who
received a promotion recommendation of “Early Promote” on their most recent observed periodic
evaluation in their current paygrade?

A

1 year

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53
Q

CO’s can authorize the Early TIR waiver for up to how many consecutive examination cycles
covered by the most recent observed periodic evaluation report?

A

Two

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54
Q

. E6 personnel who meet the eligibility requirements for the LDO program, have completed all
requirements for E7, but do not meet the minimum E7 TIR requirements, are authorized to participate in the E7 examination for LDO consideration provided they will have served as an E6 for at least how long?

A

1 year

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55
Q 
What is responsible for preparation of a Worksheet for each candidate participating in a Navy-wide
advancement cycle (E4 through·E7), including LDO Program candidates?
A

Educational Service Office (ESO)

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56
Q

ESO prepares Worksheets for eligible candidates at least how long prior to the scheduled examination?

A

1 month

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57
Q

Approximately how long prior to the scheduled date of examination, the ESO will review the
Worksheet for each advancement exam candidate?

A

10 Days

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58
Q

Maximum award points authorized for E4/5 candidates is 10 points and how many points for
E6?

A

12

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59
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Medal of Honor worth?

60
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Navy Cross worth?

61
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Distinguished Service Medal or Cross worth?

62
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Silver Star Medal worth?

63
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Legion of Merit worth?

64
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Distinguished Flying Cross worth?

65
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Navy and Marine Corps Medal worth?

66
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Bronze Star Medal worth?

67
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Purple Heart worth?

68
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Defense Meritorious Service Medal worth?

69
Q

. For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Meritorious Service Medal worth?

70
Q 
For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Air Medal (Strike/Flight) worth?
71
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Joint Service Commendation Medal worth?

72
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal worth?

73
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Executive Letter of Commendation worth?

74
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Joint Service Achievement Medal worth?

75
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal worth?

76
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Combat Action Ribbon worth?

77
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Gold Life Saving Medal worth?

78
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Good Conduct Medal (Navy or Marine Corps) worth?

79
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a
Navy Reserve Meritorious Service Medal worth?

80
Q

For calculating FMS for E4-E6 advancement exam candidates how many award points is a Letter of Commendation (Flag/Senior Executive Service) worth?

81
Q

A maximum of how many points for letters of commendation signed by a flag, general or
Senior Executive Service (SES) officer will be credited to the awards factor for E4, E5, and E6
candidates only?

82
Q

What awards signed by flag officers are considered Letters of Commendation?

A

Gold and Silver Wreath

83
Q

A PMA is required for each advancement candidate except for E8/9 and E7 PEP candidates
who have already achieved an advancement examination standard score of what or greater and
have been identified as Selection Board Eligible?

84
Q

What is a Early Promote eval recommendation worth?

85
Q

What is a Must Promote eval recommendation worth?

86
Q

What is a Promotable eval recommendation worth?

87
Q

What is a Progressing eval recommendation worth?

88
Q

What is a Significant Problems eval recommendation worth?

89
Q

Requests for correction or addition to awards factor after the advancement exam should be
submitted to what?

90
Q

The preferred method for ordering examinations is via verification of what eligibility listing on the Internet at the NETPDTC examination ordering Web site?

A

Time in Rate

91
Q

What examinations will be used for candidates who did not take the examination on the regularly scheduled day?

A

Substitute

92
Q

The integrity of what is dependent on the security of the examinations and is of paramount
importance to equitable advancement opportunity?

93
Q

lf an examination is transferred to another activity, it must be carried by an authorized individual with custody authorization, or transmitted by what method or the current holder of the GSA contract for overnight delivery as available?

A

U.S. Registered Mail

94
Q

In the case of missing examinations, evidence of tampering, or any other discrepancies, submit
a detailed message or letter report to what?

A

NAVPERSCOM

95
Q

When examinations are received from activities other than what, send a receipt to the forwarding command, as the examinations remain charged to the original receiving activity?

A

NETPDTC (N321)

96
Q

Do not transfer examinations to non-Navy activities/other services without prior approval from
what?

A

NAVPERSCOM

97
Q

The border color on the cover identifies the classification of examinations: SECRET - RED;
CONFIDENTIAL -BLUE; and FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY (FOUO) -what color?

98
Q

Stow examinations and completed answer sheets in a safe, vault, or other securely locked space
fastened with what type of combination lock?

A

Three-tumbler

99
Q

Who will review all directives pertinent to the advancement system with all other designated
personnel prior to examination administration?

100
Q

Exam Candidates MUST use what type of pencil or electrographic black lead pencil?

101
Q

What ratings are not authorized to use preprogrammed construction, electrician, plumbing and other calculators designed specifically for tradesman use?

102
Q

What candidates are authorized to use general scientific calculators that are not programmable?

A

Engineering Aid (EA)

103
Q

What are not authorized to be worn during the examination?

A

Wristwatches

104
Q

An operational commander may authorize a delay of no more than how long in the administration of examinations for seagoing or aviation units operating in company or based outside continental United States (OCONUS), provided candidates have no means of communicating with personnel who take the examination in the interim?

105
Q

CO/OIC of ships proceeding independently may administer examinations as soon as possible
but not more than how many days past the regularly scheduled examination date? (Page 6-5)

106
Q

Never administer examinations prior to the scheduled date unless specifically authorized by
what?

A

NAVPERSCOM

107
Q

All substitute examinations must be administered and answer sheets forwarded to NETPDTC
(N322) within how many working days of receipt, but not later than the date specified in the
applicable NAVADMIN?

108
Q

If more than how many questions are missing, do not use the examination, but request a
substitute examination?

109
Q

Assign proctors to assist in sufficient number to achieve a ratio of not less than one proctor to
how many candidates?

110
Q

Give completed answer sheets the same handling and stowage afforded to what documents?

A

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

111
Q

Request authority for oral administration of examinations from what with justification from a
medical officer?

A

NAVPERSCOM

112
Q

When personnel from more than one activity have been examined, group the candidates names by what?

113
Q

Forward examination returns for each paygrade to what by close of business the day after
administration of each examination?

114
Q

CONUS Installations and Ships Inport CONUS will send answer sheets via overnight delivery under the current what?

A

GSA contract

115
Q

Overseas Shore Commands will send answer sheets via what mail service?

A

USPS 3-day express

116
Q

Who is solely responsible to ensure all examination booklets and related testing materials are
accurately accounted for and destroyed?

117
Q

After administering examinations, destroy all examination booklets, used and unused, and
scratch paper by burning or shredding per what in the presence of at least two personnel
designated by the CO/OIC to handle examinations?

A

SECNAV M-5510.36

118
Q

Copies of reports of destruction and receipts for transfer of examinations shall be maintained
locally at the command for how long?

119
Q

Unused Inactive Reserve examinations shall be destroyed within how many days after last drill weekend of examination month?

120
Q

An eligible assignment is one in which the Sailor is required to serve at least how many
consecutive days in one of the eligible areas?

121
Q

Regular examinations are administered for Active duty E7 on what day in January?

A

Third Thursday

122
Q

Regular examinations are administered for Active duty E6 on what day in March and September?

A

First Thursday

123
Q

Regular examinations are administered for Active duty E5 on what day in March and September?

A

Second Thursday

124
Q

Regular examinations are administered for Active duty E4 on what day in March and September?

A

Third Thursday

125
Q

Sailors eligible in all other respects for participation in the E4 to E7 advancement examinations are authorized to take early examinations if they are within how many days of a pending deployment to Iraq, Afghanistan, or the Horn of Africa?

126
Q

No more than how many days prior to deployment date (to include the indoctrination and training pipeline but not including any personal leave), commands will submit early examination
request in the same format as a substitute examination request?

127
Q

NETPDTC automatically validates all personnel who are TIR eligible for E8/9 per the EMF and what else?

128
Q

Approximately how long prior to the convening date of E8/9 selection boards, NETPDTC
will forward an Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR), listing all E7 /8 TIR eligible
personnel?

129
Q

There are how many annual advancement cycles for E4 through E6 candidates?

130
Q

Results for advancement to pay grades E4 through E9 are available online to whom?

131
Q

How many days after publication of advancement exam results, individual Sailor have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheet?

132
Q

NETPDTC (N321) issues examination results by Internet posting or what in addition to the
Profile Sheet?

A

Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR

133
Q

Advancements and striker designation authorities are issued on what as well as the Profile Sheet?

A

Rating Change Authorization (RCA)

134
Q

The ESVR will list those candidates who are eligible to be considered (SELBD ELIGIBLE) by
a selection board to be convened by what?

135
Q

Upon conclusion of the selection board, an official list of personnel selected for advancement
will be disseminated by CHNAVPERS via what?

136
Q

Following each Navy-wide advancement examination, NETPDTC (N321) will forward what
for all E4 through E7 candidates?

A

Examination Profile Information Sheet

137
Q

What point factor is included in the FMS ofE4 through E6 candidates who achieve a relatively
high score on a Navy-wide advancement examination/have relatively high PMAs during an
examination cycle in which the candidate competed for advancement but was not advanced
because of quota limitations?

138
Q

PNA points are comprised of written examination SS and what else?

139
Q

PNA points are only creditable from how many of the most recent exam cycles in that
paygrade?

140
Q

A candidate may receive a maximum of how many PNA points for any one advancement cycle?

141
Q

The maximum cumulative PNA point total that may be credited to candidates is what?

142
Q

PNA points are multiplied by two to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of how many points)
for FMS calculations?

143
Q

When the advancement exam candidate scores in the top 25th percentile but does not advance,
they will be credited with how many PNA points towards future exams?

144
Q

NETPDTC (N321) uses only what to track PNA point credit?

A

Social security number

145
Q

Advancements to pay grade E2/E3 are automatically posted on what day of a month by
NAVPERSCOM?

146
Q

Striker identification is governed by what?

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050

147
Q

If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to pay grade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be established “as
of’’ the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the
backdating does not under any circumstance exceed how long?

Yeoman Advancement March 2014 (13 decks)

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