NAVIGATION TEST 1

Question 1

1 What does “cleared approach” mean?

Indicates that the pilot may execute any one of the authorized IAPs for that airport.
Indicates that the pilot may execute only the approach previously assigned by ATC.
This is not a valid instruction. Ask ATC for clarification.
You are cleared to enter the movement area.

Answer 1

Indicates that the pilot may execute only the approach previously assigned by ATC
Correct
Cleared Approach” means you may execute any one of the authorized IAPs at the airport. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary.
2 DIFFERENT ANSWERS FOR THE SAME QUESTION

Question 2

2 What does “cleared approach” mean?

Indicates that the pilot may execute any one of the authorized IAPs for that airport.
Indicates that the pilot may execute only the approach previously assigned by ATC.
This is not a valid instruction. Ask ATC for clarification.
You are cleared to enter the movement area.
Incorrect

Answer 2

Indicates that the pilot may execute any one of the authorized IAPs for that airport.
Cleared Approach” means you may execute any one of the authorized IAPs at the airport. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary.
TWO DIFFERENT ANSWERS FOR THE SAME QUESTION

Question 3

Can ATC vector you below MSA?

No.
Sometimes, but you assume terrain separation duties.
Only if you are being vectored for an approach.
Yes.

Answer 3

Yes.
Correct
Yes. The MVA is often below the charted MSA. The MVA is not available to the pilot in charted format. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossar

Question 4

How do I know if an ADF is required for the approach?

There is an NDB depicted in the plan view.
It is stated on the approach plate.
There is an NDB depicted in the profile view.
ADF is never required for an instrument approach.

Answer 4

It is stated on the approach plate.
Correct
If “NDB” is in the approach title or if “ADF required” is in the notes section, you are required to have operable ADF equipment onboard to fly the approach. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight

Question 5

If you experience vertigo, what should you do?

Transition onto flight instruments if you have been looking outside.
No specific actions required.
Transfer flight controls to the other pilot
Evaluate your symptoms. Be sure to fight the urge to maneuver the aircraft.

Answer 5

Transfer flight controls to the other pilot
Incorrect
If spatial disorientation leads to vertigo, it is imperative that you use good communication. Tell the other pilot what you are experiencing and positively transfer aircraft control. Reference: instrument Flying Handbook, Human Factors.

Question 6

L/D Max = 240 KIAS, Vflaps = 205 KIAS, VS = 149 KIAS. You get holding clearance for 7,000 feet. At what airspeed do you hold?

240 KIAS.
230 KIAS.
205 KIAS.
149 KIAS.

Answer 6

230 KIAS.
Correct
So long as you can maintain a safe speed, regulations trump efficiency. Fly the regulatory maximum holding speed. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures.

Question 7

On the DME arc what would your DME speed read out be?

Zero knots on the DME from the station.
It would accurately show the groundspeed of the aircraft.
100 knots.
It depends on groundspeed and return rate.

Answer 7

Zero knots on the DME from the station.
Correct
DME distance indications are predicated on the groundspeed computed by the unit, that is the change is distance over time. Since there is no change in distance, the DME GS readout would indicate zero. GPS and other area navigation technologies do not suffer from this error. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Navigation Aids

Question 8

The loss of what equipment under IFR requires ATC notification?

Any equipment.
An electrical generator.
A redundant flight instrument.
Navigational.

Answer 8

Navigational.
Incorrect
Any loss of navigation capability is required to be reported to ATC if operating on an IFR flight plan. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures

Question 9

What are the RVSM altitude limits?

  Active from FL240-FL410.
  Active from FL290 – FL410.
  Active by NOTAM only.
  Active from FL290-FL390.
Correct
Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) airspace extends from FL290-FL410. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Control

Answer 9

Active from FL290 – FL410.
Correct
Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) airspace extends from FL290-FL410. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Control

Question 10

What does the ATC light signal flashing red mean on the ground?

Exercise extreme caution.
Clear the runway.
Stop.
Return to the starting point on the airport.
Correct
On the ground, a flashing red light gun signal means “taxi clear of the runway in use.” Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Control

Answer 10

Clear the runway.

Question 11

What is an MEA gap?

There is a segment of the route without charted terrain clearance.
There is a segment of the route where the MEA temporarily changes.
There is a navigation signal gap in-between.
There is a segment of the route where only L/MF navigation can be used.

Answer 11

There is a navigation signal gap in-between.
Correct
An MEA gap indicates a lack of ground-based navigational signal coverage over a section of airway. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, The National Airspace System

Question 12

What is CAS?

IAS corrected for position and installation error.
IAS corrected for compressibility.
IAS corrected for non-standard temperature.
TAS corrected for wind.

Answer 12

IAS corrected for position and installation error.
Correct
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is IAS corrected for position and installation errors. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Airspeed Measurement

Question 13

What is indicated altitude?

Altitude with 29.92 set.
Altitude above ground level.
Altitude corrected for installation and calibration errors.
Altitude with local altimeter setting.

Answer 13

Altitude with local altimeter setting.
Incorrect
Indicated altitude is your altitude above mean sea level (MSL), as indicated on your altimeter. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Flight Instruments.

Question 14

What is the distance between touchdown zone markings?

Normally 500 feet.
Normally 1,000 feet.
It is variable depending on location.
500 feet, but only if there is more than 6,000 feet of runway available.
Correct
The distance between the touchdown zone markings is 500 feet. On precision instrument runways, these marks extend 3,000 feet from the approach end. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Aeronautical Lighting and Other Airport Visual Aids

Answer 14

Normally 500 feet.

Question 15

What is the first step you should take when experiencing hypoxia?

Evaluate you symptoms and wait five minutes.
Use diluted demand oxygen to conserve the supply.
Ask the other crew members how they feel and check the pressurization.
100% oxygen.

Answer 15

100% oxygen.
Correct
If hypoxia is suspected, ensuring the use of 100% O2 is critical. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Medical Facts for Pilots.

Question 16

What is the spacing of runway centerline lights?

Spaced at 50-foot intervals.
Spaced at 100-foot intervals.
Spaced at 25-foot intervals.
Spaced at 150-foot intervals.

Answer 16

Spaced at 50-foot intervals.
Correct
Runway lights are spaced at 50 foot-intervals. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Aeronautical Lighting, and Other Airport Visual Aids

Question 17

What is transition altitude in the United States?

18,000 feet.
19,000 feet.
4,000 feet.
It is variable with location and altimeter setting.

Answer 17

18,000 feet.
Correct
The transition altitude in the United States is 18,000 feet. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Safety of Flight

Question 18

What is WAAS and how does it work?

A system to ensure that adequate taxiway width exists for wide body aircraft.
Air navigation aid that augments VORs and NDBs to ensure accurate airway tracking.
Air navigation aid to augment the GPS with the goal of improving its accuracy, integrity and availability.
A GPS system that uses laser ring gyros to ensure accurate position capabilities.
Correct
The Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) is a ground-based GPS correction system. The goal of the system is to ensure very accurate GPS signal coverage for en route and terminal operations. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Navigation Aids

Answer 18

Air navigation aid to augment the GPS with the goal of improving its accuracy, integrity and availability.

Question 19

When is an alternative not required for flag operation?

Plus or minus 1 hour of the ETA, destination weather at least 1,500 ft. ceiling above MDA for a circling approach.
Plus or minus 1 hour of the ETA, destination weather will be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
At the ETA, the destination weather will be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and at least 3 miles visibility.
At the ETA, destination weather at least 1,500 ft. ceiling above circling MDA if using circling approach.

Answer 19

At the ETA, destination weather at least 1,500 ft. ceiling above circling MDA if using circling approach.
Correct
The ceiling must be at least 1,500 feet above the circling MDA at the ETA. Reference: FAR 121.621

Question 20

When is an ILS critical area in effect?

Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 1 mile or less and/or the ceiling is 400 feet or less.
Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 3 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 1000 feet or less.
Only when ATC requests that you hold short of the ILS critical area.
Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 2 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 800 feet or less.

Answer 20

2 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 800 feet or less.
Correct
Anytime the weather on the field is less than 2 miles visibility and/or 800-foot ceilings, aircraft are expected to hold short of the ILS critical area. ILS critical areas can also be activated by ATC via an ATIS message or specific instruction. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Aeronautical Lighting, and Other Airport Visual Aids
YOUR ONLY SUPPOSE TO HOLD SHORT OF ILS CRITICAL AREA IF TOWER TELLS YOU TO.

Question 21

Why does one DME distance have a D with an arrow and the other have a D, arrow and number?

“D” with the arrow is the DME segment distance from navaid to the first fix.
“D” denotes the across the ground distance between fixes.
“D” denotes the class of airspace of the airway in the direction of travel
“D” denotes a mandatory departure route.
Correct

Answer 21

“D” with the arrow is the DME segment distance from navaid to the first fix.
The “D” with an arrow indicates DME distance to a fix. Reference: Jeppesen Chart Legend

Question 22

Why does one DME distance have a D with an arrow and the other have a D, arrow and number?

“D” with the arrow is the DME segment distance from navaid to the first fix.
“D” denotes the across the ground distance between fixes.
“D” denotes the class of airspace of the airway in the direction of travel
“D” denotes a mandatory departure route.
Correct
The “D” with an arrow indicates DME distance to a fix. Reference: Jeppesen Chart Legend

Answer 22

“D” with the arrow is the DME segment distance from navaid to the first fix.

Question 23

You are flying a low visibility approach and don’t have the touchdown zone in sight but have the approach lights visible. You continue to 100 feet above following the approach lights. What do you base your 100 feet above on?

Threshold Crossing Height (TCH).
Airport elevation.
Runway end elevation.
Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE).

Answer 23

Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE).
Correct
According to the FARs, with the approach lights in sight, you can descend to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE). Reference: FAR 91.175

Question 24

You are instructed to hold NE of the 225 radial at 10 DME. Your current heading is 200 direct to the fix. What direction do you turn in holding?

Parallel entry.
Direct entry.
Teardrop entry.
Straight entry.

Answer 24

Direct entry.
The entry that requires the least heading change is normally the proper entry to use. In this case, a direct entry is the proper choice. This will also keep the aircraft securely on the holding side of the fix. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight.

Question 25

You are on the 090 radial at 20 DME. What heading would you fly to go directly to the 60 DME fix on the 190 radial of the same VOR?

270.
185.
300.
205.

Answer 25

205.

Question 26

What airspeed do you maintain when diverting?

Best range cruise speed.
L/D max
Normal cruise speed.
The airspeed that ensures arrival at the alternate at the ETA.

Answer 26

Normal cruise speed.
Correct
A normal cruise speed would be maintained when proceeding to an alternate. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Range Performance.

Question 27

There is a thunderstorm 5 miles from the departure end of the runway. During your takeoff roll, your airspeed indicator stops increasing 3 knots below V1. What do you do?

Continue the approach, but apply windshear precautions.
Continue the takeoff. 5 miles is more than sufficient separation.
Immediately initiate a windshear escape maneuver.
Abort the takeoff.

Answer 27

Abort the takeoff.
Correct
Wind shear during takeoff represents a significant hazard. In this case, a high-speed abort is safer than continuing the takeoff. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Safety of Flight.

Question 28

What is the maximum holding airspeed from 14,001 feet MSL and above?

230 Knots.
250 Knots.
265 knots.
200 Knots.

Answer 28

265 knots.
Correct
The maximum holding speed above 14,000 feet is 265 knots. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures

Question 29

When is an ILS critical area in effect?

Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 1 mile or less and/or the ceiling is 400 feet or less.
Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 3 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 1000 feet or less.
Only when ATC requests that you hold short of the ILS critical area.
Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 2 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 800 feet or less.

Answer 29

Approaches are being conducted with the visibility being 2 miles or less and/or the ceiling is 800 feet or less.
Correct
Anytime the weather on the field is less than 2 miles visibility and/or 800-foot ceilings, aircraft are expected to hold short of the ILS critical area. ILS critical areas can also be activated by ATC via an ATIS message or specific instruction. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Aeronautical Lighting, and Other Airport Visual Aids

Question 30

What altitude is associated with RVSM airspace?

Top at FL290.
Top at FL350.
Top at FL390.
Top at FL410.

Answer 30

Top at FL410.
Correct
Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) airspace extends from FL290-FL410. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Control.

Question 31

Cleared to the ABC VORTAC. Hold west on the 270 radial. Your inbound heading is 155 degrees. What is your entry into holding?

  Direct entry.
  Teardrop entry.
  Parallel entry.
  Straight entry.
Correct
The entry that requires the least heading change is normally the proper entry to use. In this case, a direct entry is the proper choice. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight.

Answer 31

Direct entry.

Question 32

You are entering a hold, and your L/D max speed is above the maximum holding speed for FAR 91. What speed do you hold at?

You can fly the speed of your L/D max without advising ATC.
You can fly L/D max speed, but you must advise ATC.
The maximum holding speed for FAR 91 as long as it is 1.3 times VS.
The minimum prescribed holding speed for the altitude you are at.

Answer 32

The maximum holding speed for FAR 91 as long as it is 1.3 times VS.
Correct
So long as you can maintain a safe speed, regulations trump efficiency. Fly the regulatory maximum holding speed. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures

Question 33

You are taking off Runway 09 with the winds 360 @ 15 knots. Runway magnetic heading is 092, and the actual aircraft heading on runway is 088. What heading do you fly on take-off if told to fly runway heading?

Fly heading 092.
Fly heading 088.
Fly heading 080, or whatever you need to maintain a straight ground track relative to the extended runway centerline.
Ask ATC.

Answer 33

Fly heading 092.
Correct
When instructed to fly the runway heading, you fly the runway heading provided on the airport diagram. ATC is expecting you to drift with the wind. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary

Question 34

What is the maximum speed in class C airspace within 4 nm of an airport?

250 KIAS.
265 KIAS.
200 KIAS.
180 KIAS.

Answer 34

200 KIAS.
Correct
The maximum speed in Class C airspace within 4 NM of the primary airport is 200 KIAS. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Airspace

Question 35

You are instructed to hold NE of the 225 radial at 10 DME. Your current heading is 200 direct to the fix. What direction do you turn in holding?

Parallel entry.
Direct entry.
Teardrop entry.
Straight entry.

Answer 35

Direct entry.
Correct
The entry that requires the least heading change is normally the proper entry to use. In this case, a direct entry is the proper choice. This will also keep the aircraft securely on the holding side of the fix. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight.

THIS IS A BOGUS HOLD.

Question 36

Define Minimum En route Altitude (MEA).

IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 500 feet of obstacle clearance within 2 NM of the route centerline.
IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountains) within 4 NM of route centerline.
IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountains) within 2 NM of route centerline.
Is indicated by green grid numbers on a low altitude en route chart.
Correct

Answer 36

IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountains) within 4 NM of route centerline.
Minimum en route altitude guarantees 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain) and signal coverage, so long as the aircraft remains established within the confines of the airway. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary

Question 37

What would you do if you were flying into a very strong jet stream and want to lower fuel consumption?

  Descend lower and decrease airspeed.
  Descend lower and increase airspeed.
  Climb higher and increase airspeed.
  Climb higher and decrease airspeed.
Correct
The jetstream typically is limited by the troposphere. If you can climb above it, its effects can be mitigated. Increasing airspeed can help as well, fuel permitting. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Weather Theory.

Answer 37

Climb higher and increase airspeed.
Correct
The jetstream typically is limited by the troposphere. If you can climb above it, its effects can be mitigated. Increasing airspeed can help as well, fuel permitting. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Weather Theory.

Question 38

What is the definition of Mach number?

The ratio of IAS to the speed of sound.
The ratio of TAS to the speed of sound.
The ratio of EAS to the speed of sound.
The ratio of CAS to the speed of sound.
Correct
Mach number is the ratio of the TAS to the local speed of sound. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aerodynamics of Flight.

Answer 38

The ratio of TAS to the speed of sound.

Question 39

What is CAS?

IAS corrected for position and installation error.
IAS corrected for compressibility.
IAS corrected for non-standard temperature.
TAS corrected for wind.

Answer 39

IAS corrected for position and installation error.
Correct
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is IAS corrected for position and installation errors. Reference: Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators, Airspeed Measurement

Question 40

On an ILS, the aircraft in front of you report a loss of 20 knots on final. What do you do?

Continue the approach, but apply windshear precautions.
Continue the approach. This does not constitute a risk.
Discontinue the approach.
Prepare to discontinue the approach. Go around no later than 500 feet AGL.
Correct

Answer 40

Discontinue the approach.
A loss of 20 knots is indicative of severe windshear and represents a substantial risk. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Weather Theory.

Question 41

What is the maximum holding airspeed at 6,000 feet MSL and below?

230 Knots.
265 Knots.
250 Knots.
200 Knots.

Answer 41

200 Knots.
Correct
The maximum holding speed from the surface to 6,000′ MSL is 200 knots. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures

Question 42

If indicated Mach number stays constant as you climb, what happens to true airspeed?

TAS decreases.
TAS remains the same.
TAS increases.
TAS is not related to Mach number.

Answer 42

TAS decreases.
Correct
TAS decreases with a constant Mach number as altitude is increased. As you climb, air density decreases. Since Mach is ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound; if Mach stays the same and the speed of sound decreases with a decrease in air density, there must also be a corresponding decrease in TAS. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Aerodynamics of Flight.

Question 43

How would you attempt to deviate around a thunderstorm?

Pass it by at least 10 NM on the upwind side.
Pass it by at least 20 NM on the downwind side.
Pass it by at least 20 NM on the upwind side.
Remaining clear of clouds is sufficient.

Answer 43

Pass it by at least 20 NM on the upwind side.
Correct
Passing a thunderstorm by 20 NM on the upwind side avoids most turbulence and is a good avoidance strategy for associated hazards, such as hail. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Safety of Flight.

Question 44

You determine the most efficient holding speed is 234kts. You are assigned holding at 6,000 feet. What do you do?

Hold 234 knots.
Hold 234 knots and advise ATC.
Configure and hold at 200 kts.
Hold 265 knots.

Answer 44

Configure and hold at 200 kts.
Correct
If you are safely able to, hold at 200 knots. Regulation trumps efficiency. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Correct

Question 45

If you encounter wind shear in a jet, what do you do?

Increase pitch angle to maintain V2.
Maintain level until airspeed recovers to avoid a stall.
Increase pitch, but only enough to initiate a climb.
Increase pitch angle to the stick shaker.

Answer 45

Increase pitch angle to the stick shaker.

Follow the manufacturer’s windshear escape guidance, which typically requires maximum available thrust and increasing pitch incrementally towards the stick shaker. Reference: Pilot’s Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge, Weather Theory Procedures.

Question 46

When can you descend below the MDA/DH?

Aircraft continuously in a position to land at normal rate of descent within the touchdown zone.
So long as you can make the touchdown zone, you can leave the MDA/DH.
You may maneuver as necessary to land from MDA/DH, so long as you are stable by the runway threshold.
It is the pilot’s choice. It depends on experience and comfort level.

Answer 46

Aircraft continuously in a position to land at normal rate of descent within the touchdown zone.
Correct
Assuming the runway environment is in sight, you must be continuously in a position to land at a normal rate of descent within the touchdown zone. Reference: FAR 91.175

Question 47

Define Minimum Safe/Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA).

MSA provides 2,000 ft obstacle clearance over all obstructions and ensures adequate NAVAID coverage.
The MSA provides 500 feet of obstacle clearance over all obstructions and ensures adequate NAVAID coverage.
The MSA is equal to the MVA, and provides adequate terrain separation as long as you are in radar contact.
MSA provides 1,000 ft obstacle clearance over all obstructions but may not assure NAVAID coverage.

Answer 47

MSA provides 1,000 ft obstacle clearance over all obstructions but may not assure NAVAID coverage.
Correct
Minimum safe altitude provides 1,000 feet of clearance from the highest obstacle (2,000 feet in mountainous terrain). Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Air Traffic Procedures

Question 48

Which is a heavy class for the purpose of wake turbulence?

Above 255K lbs.
Below 300K lbs.
Above 250K lbs.
Above 300K lbs.

Answer 48

Above 300K lbs.
Incorrect
The “heavy” class for the purposes of wake turbulence separation is aircraft above 300,000 lbs MGTOW, with the exception of the Boeing 757, which is placed into the heavy category. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary.

Question 49

What requirement qualifies as a departure alternate for aircraft with two engines?

An airport not more than 1/2 hour away with one engine inoperative at single engine cruise in still air.
An airport not more than one hour away with one engine inoperative, considering winds.
An airport not more than one hour away with one engine inoperative at single engine cruise in still air
The closest possible airport with good weather.

Answer 49

An airport not more than one hour away with one engine inoperative at single engine cruise in still air
Correct
For an aircraft with two engines, the takeoff alternate must be not more than one hour away at single engine cruise speed in still air. Reference: FAR 121.617

Question 50

Hold east of the ABC VORTAC on the 090 radial with left-hand turns. Your inbound heading to the fix is 055 degrees. What is your entry into holding?

Direct entry.
Teardrop entry.
Straight entry.
Parallel entry.

Answer 50

Parallel entry.
Incorrect
The entry that requires the least heading change is normally the proper entry to use. In this case, a parallel entry is the proper choice. Reference: Instrument Flying Handbook, IFR Flight.

Question 51

What is the airway width communication range guaranteed by MOCA?

Normal airway width is 2 miles on either side (4 miles total).
Normal airway width is 8 miles on either side (16 miles total).
Normal airway width is 4 miles on either side (8 miles total).
There are no specific standards regarding airway width.
Correct
Adequate navigation/communication reception is guaranteed at the MOCA within 4 NM of the airway centerline, within 22 miles of the VOR. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary.

Answer 51

Normal airway width is 4 miles on either side (8 miles total).
Correct
Adequate navigation/communication reception is guaranteed at the MOCA within 4 NM of the airway centerline, within 22 miles of the VOR. Reference: Aeronautical Information Manual, Pilot/Controller Glossary.