AIRPORT OPERATIONS Flashcards
Runway numbers are in reference to _______ north.
magnetic
When the threshold is relocated, the closed portion of the runway is not available for use by aircraft for takeoff or landing, but it is available for ______.When a threshold is relocated, it closes not only a set portion of the approach end of a runway, but also shortens the length of the opposite direction runway. _________ heads are placed across the width of the runway just prior to the threshold bar.
taxi
Yellow arrow
When exiting the runway, the same markings will be seen except the aircraft will be approaching the double dashed lines. [Figure 14-14] In order to be clear of the runway, the entire aircraft must cross both the dashed and solid lines. An ATC clearance is____ needed to cross this marking when exiting the runway.
not
If ATC does not instruct you to hold at the ILS critical area, do you have to hold short?
When instructed to “hold short of Runway (XX) ILS critical area,” you must ensure no portion of the aircraft extends beyond these markings. [Figure 14-25] If ATC does not instruct you to hold at this point, then you may bypass the ILS critical area hold position markings and continue with your taxi.
AIRPORT BEACON LIGHT Flashing white and green 1. Flashing white and yellow 2, Flashing white, yellow, and green 3. Two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash 4.
- for civilian land airports
- for a water airport WATER THAT PEE PEE
- for a heliport COME ON GUYS 2 GREEN
- identifying a military airport 2 WHITE THINK TWICE
LIGHT SIGNALS
STEADY GREEN
FLASHING GREEN
STEADY RED
FLASHING RED
FLASHING WHITE
ALTERNATING RED AND GREEN
GROUND IN FLIGHT
CLEARED TO TO. CLEARED TO LAND
CLEARED TO TAXI RETURN FOR LDG
Fill LOWED BY A STEADY
STOP GIVE WAY CONTINUE TO CIRCLE
CLEAR TAXI WAY OR AIRPORT UNSAFE DO NOT
RUNWAY. LAND
RETURN TO STARTING POINT NOT APPLICABLE
EXERCISE EXTREME CAUT EXCERCISE EXTREME CAUT
ATC CROSSING RUNWAY INSTRUCTIONS
ATC Instructions—Explicit Runway Crossing
As of June 30, 2010, ATC is required to issue explicit instructions to “cross” or “hold short” of each runway. Instructions to “cross” a runway are normally issued one at a time, and an aircraft must have crossed the previous runway before another runway crossing is issued. Exceptions may apply for closely spaced runways that have less than 1,000 feet between centerlines. This applies to all runways to include active, inactive, or closed.
Whenever a pilot observes the red lights of the Runway Entrance Lights, that pilot will stop at the hold line, or along the taxiway path and remain stopped. The pilot will then contact Air Traffic Control for resolution if the clearance is in conflict with the lights.
Contact tower for resolution
Should pilots note illuminated lights under circumstances when remaining clear of the runway is impractical for safety reasons (i.e., aircraft is already on the runway), the crew should proceed according to their best judgment while understanding the illuminated lights indicate the runway is unsafe to enter or cross. Contact Air Traffic Control at the earliest possible opportunity.
Contact ATC at the earliest possible opportunity.
How far can you descend with ALSF-1 in sight? __________ or all the way with red side row or terminating bars visible
100 above TDZE
(c) Operation below DA/ DH or MDA. Except as provided in paragraph (l) of this section, where a DA/DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the United States, below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless –
(1) The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;
(2) The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and
(3) Except for a Category II or Category III approach where any necessary visual reference requirements are specified by the Administrator, at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
(i) The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.
(ii) The threshold.Screen Shot 2016-08-08 at 1.08.57 PM
(iii) The threshold markings.
(iv) The threshold lights.
(v) The runway end identifier lights.
(vi) The visual approach slope indicator.
(vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
(viii) The touchdown zone lights.
(ix) The runway or runway markings.
(x) The runway lights.
PAPI
The visual glidepath will be at least 1 degree above all obstacles in the final approach area. The VGSI must provide clearance above all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume.
Flight inspection does verify that specific VGSI below path indications clear all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume.
When VGSI and electronic glide path information serve the same runway, the visual approach path will coincide with the one produced electronically
The default PAPI glidepath angle is 3 degrees.
The PAPI glidepath for the typical Air Carrier airport with a TCH of 50 ft, will produce a touchdown point at 954 feet from the threshold regardless of runway length, assuming no flare maneuver is used.
The visual glidepath will be at least 1 degree above all obstacles in the final approach area. The VGSI must provide clearance above all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume.
Flight inspection does verify that specific VGSI below path indications clear all obstacles within the commissioned operational service volume.
When VGSI and electronic glide path information serve the same runway, the visual approach path will coincide with the one produced electronically
The default PAPI glidepath angle is 3 degrees.
The PAPI glidepath for the typical Air Carrier airport with a TCH of 50 ft, will produce a touchdown point at 954 feet from the threshold regardless of runway length, assuming no flare maneuver is used.
Decision Altitude (DA) Is a specified altitude on a precision approach at which a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ approach must be initiated if the required visual references to continue the approach have not been established. Decision altitude is charted in feet above\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and is read on the altitude tape
CAT I
missed
above mean sea level and is read on the altitude tape
Decision Height: (DH)
Is a specified altitude on a precision approach, charted in ____________, radio altitude above ground level at which a decision must be made either to continue the approach or to execute a missed approach.
Decision height is read on the___________Decision heights are normally associated with CATII and CATIII approaches.
CAT II OR III
height above threshold elevation
radio-altimeter.
Alert Heights (AH)The FAA and ICAO define alert height as the height above a runway, based on airplane fail operational systems, above which a ______ approach must be discontinued and a missed approach initiated if a failure occurs in one of the redundant parts of the flight control or related aircraft systems, or if a failure occurs in any one of the relevant ground systems.Above Alert height, if lost system redundancy results in a downgrade of the airplane’s capability, the crew must execute a missed approach.Alert height is read on the_________.
CAT III
radio-altimeter.
MDA is referenced to____________ and MDH is referenced to the ________________ elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An MDH for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation.
mean sea level
aerodrome elevation or to the threshold
Decision height is read on the __________Decision heights are normally associated with CATII and CATIII approaches.
radio-altimeter.
Decision altitude is charted in feet above_________ and is read on the altitude tape.
mean sea level
The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the _________________.
runway environment.
Aircraft overflying the upper limit of any class B airspace must have an operating_________
Mode C transponder.
Localizer. The localizer (LOC) ground antenna array is located on the extended ________ of the instrument runway of an airport, remote enough from the opposite (approach) end of the runway to prevent it from being a collision hazard.
centerline
These are called the front and back courses, respectively. The localizer provides course guidance, transmitted at _________ MHz (odd tenths only), throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of _______ from the antenna to an altitude of ______ feet above the elevation of the antenna site.
108.1 to 111.95
18 NM
4,500
The localizer course is very narrow, normally ___ This results in high needle sensitivity. With this course width, a full-scale deflection shows when the aircraft is____to either side of the centerline. This sensitivity permits accurate orientation to the landing runway. With no more than one-quarter scale deflection maintained, the aircraft will be aligned with the runway.
5°.
2.5°
Unlike the localizer, the glide-slope transmitter radiates signals only in the direction of the final approach on the front course. The system provides no vertical guidance for approaches on the back course. The glide path is normally 1.4° thick. At _____ from the point of touchdown, this represents a vertical distance of approximately _____ feet, narrowing to a few feet at touchdown.
10 NM
1,500
Minimum Sector Altitude named MSA is the lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of 300 m ______ above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km ______ NM) radius centered on a radio navigation aid .
1000ft
25
Route MORA’s give at least _______ feet altitude clearance above terrain, and _______ feet in mountainous (an area of changing terrain were the changes of terrain elevation exceed 3000 feet within a distance of 10NM) terrain.
Route MORAs provided an obstacle clearance within ____ nautical miles (19 km) on both sides of the airways and within a 10-nautical-mile (19 km) radius around the ends of the airways.
1,000
2,000
10
Grid MORAs provide an obstacle clearance altitude within a latitude and longitude grid block, usually of one degree by one degree. They are presented in feet (ft), omitting the last two figures. Example: 7,600 feet is given as 76.
Grid MORA values clear all terrain and obstructions by ______ feet in areas where the highest elevations are ______ feet MSL or lower. MORA values clear all terrain by ______ feet in areas where the highest elevations are ______ feet MSL or higher.
1000
5000
2000
5001
Minimum en route altitude (MEA),alternately spelled as Minimum enroute altitude,is the lowest published altitude between radio navigation fixes that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. Pilots should know that MEA will assure: 1. 2. 3. 4.
- proper reception of navigation aids
- two-way communication not necessarily guaranteed with ATC
- safe clearance or margin from obstacles
- adherence to ATC or local procedures
Pilots flying in the USA should know that the MOCA assures also _____ reception range
At the same time, certain aspects could affect this value, factors like terrain or mountainous areas could change this value according to the following circumstances.
22NM VOR
The MCA (Minimum Crossing Altitude) is related with signal reception and obstacle clearance; this will be indicated by a flagged\_\_\_\_ on NOS and Jeppesen charts as an airway number and altitude. The pilot should climb to the MCA before reaching the intersection; in that way the MCA will not be violated.
[X]
The minimum vectoring altitude in each sector provides _______ above the highest obstruction in non- mountainous areas and_______ above the highest obstacle in designated mountainous areas.
1000ft
2000ft
Required Reporting Points in Radar Contact: HUMANSS
[H] [U] [M] [A] [N] [S] [S]
Other reports, including non-radar: TUF
[T]
[U]
[F]
Required Reporting Points in Radar Contact: HUMANSS
[H]old (entering, leaving) STUDENTS ALWAYS FORGET
[U]nable (to climb or decend at 500 ft/min) RJ 200
[M]issed Approach I WILL WAIT FOR EVER FOR CALL
[A]ltitude change (ifr or vfr on top) I SAY IT
[N]avigational Capability Lost DIDN’T KNOW
[S]peed change of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater
[S]afety of flight (anything)
Other reports, including non-radar: TUF
[T]ime estimate change of more than 3 minutes
[U]nforcast Weather
[F]inal Approach Fix
LOCALIZERS ARE MORE PRECISE AND EXTEND ABOUT ________ DEGREES. WHEREAS SDF APPROACHES ARE LESS PRCISE AND ARE __________ DEGREES
3 TO 6 DEGREES
6 TO 12 DEGREES.
HOLDING
Slow down to hold if no clearance beyond a fix has been given within ____minutes of the fix
Maximum holding speeds
HOLDING TIMES
Slow down to hold if no clearance beyond a fix has been given within 3 minutes of the fix
Maximum holding speeds<
At or below 6,000ft: 200 KIAS<
6,001 to 14,000ft: 230 KIAS<
Above 14,000ft: 265 KIAS<
Holding time is 1 minute up to 14,000ft, 1.5 minute above 14,000ft
Navigation referencing the ground is called?
A: Pilotage
Dead reckoning is__________ “Dead” comes from shortening “deduced” to “ded”
headings and time.
Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway (DER) at least____ feet above the DER elevation, climbing to _____ feet above the DER elevation before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of _____ feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction until the minimum IFR altitude is reached.
35
400
200
A FB (fly by) waypoint typically is used in a position at which a change in the course of procedure occurs. Charts represent them with four-pointed stars. This type of waypoint is designed to allow you to anticipate and begin your turn prior to reaching the waypoint, thus providing smoother transitions. Conversely, RNAV charts show a FO (fly over) waypoint as a four-pointed star enclosed in a circle. This type of waypoint is used to denote a missed approach point, a missed approach holding point, or other specific points in space that must be flown over
Fly by a four pointed star
Fly over a four pointed star in a circle
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN TAKE OFF RUNWAY AVAILABLE (TORA) AND TAKE OFF DISTANCE AVAILABLE (TODA)
TODA = NOT ONLY INCLUDES RUNWAY BUT CLEARWAY.
THE RUNWAY PLUS STOP WAY LENGTH DECLARED AVAILABLE AND SUITABLE FOR ACCELERATION AND DECELERATION OF AN AIRPLANE ABORTING A TAKE OFF IS CALLED?
ASDA = ACCELERATE STOP DISTANCE AVAILABLE
Transition altitude: Altitude while CLIMBING where you set your altimeter to _________
When DESCENDING Transition level you set your altimeter to ______.
TRANSITION ALT OR QNE = 29.92 CLIMBING
TRANSITION LEVEL OR QNH = LOCAL DESCENDING
Transition altitude: Altitude while CLIMBING where you set your altimeter to QNE (29.92)
Memory aid…QNE (everywhere), QNH (here…local)
Transition level: Altitude while DESCENDING where you set QNH
Going up thru TA (“A” points up), going down thru TL (“V” in “level” points down)
LOST RADIOS 1 WHAT DO YOU DO?
Fly the AVEnue of FAME
Route:
A: Route assigned in last ATC clearance received;
V: If being vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
E: By the route that ATC has advised you may be expected in an EFC;
F: By the route filed on the flight plan
Fly the HIGHEST of the following altitudes for the FOR THE ROUTE SEGMENT BEING FLOWN:
M: Minimum altitude for IFR operations (MEA) (as prescribed in 19.121(c))
E: The altitude ATC has advised you may expect in an EFC
A: Last assigned
LOST RADIOS 2. CONTINUE
Do not descend below MSA until established on the approach
Note: The intent of the rule is that a pilot who has experience two-way radio failure should select the appropriate altitude for the particular route segment being flown and make the necessary altitude adjustments for subsequent route segments. If the pilot received an “expect further clearance” containing a higher altitude to expect at a specified time or fix, maintain the highest of the following altitudes until that time/fix:
1.The last assigned altitude; or
2.The minimum altitude/flight level for IFR operations
Upon reaching the time/fix specified, the pilot should commence climbing to the altitude advised to expect. If the radio failure occurs after the time/fix specified, the altitude to be expected is not applicable and the pilot should maintain an altitude consistent with 1 or 2 above. If the pilot receives an “expect further clearance” containing a lower altitude, the pilot should maintain the highest of 1 or 2 above until that time/fix specified to leave the clearance limit
If you are below your ESA (25-100 miles) or the MSA (0-25 miles) and not established on a part of the approach than make a climb above that altitude until established
LOST RADIOS 3 CLEARANCE LIMIT
Leaving a clearance limit:
When the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins (IAF):
Commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) Estimated Time En Route (ETE)
If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins:
Leave the clearance limit at the expect further clearance time if one has been received, or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route
LOST RADIOS 4 RADAR APPROACH
Radar Approaches:
Initiate lost communication procedures if no transmissions are received for approximately 1 minute while being vectored to final, 15 seconds while on ASR final approach or 5 seconds while on PAR final approach
If unable to reestablish comm and unable to maintain VMC proceed with a published IAP or previously coordinated instructions
Maintain the last assigned altitude or the MSA (ESA if beyond 25 NM) whichever is higher, until established on a segment of an IAP
You need to be aware of your location for executing the missed approach instructions, you can climb to whatever altitude assigned but you cannot turn until you are at the MAP as best you can determine it
WHAT IS THE QUICKEST WAY TO GET FROM POINT TO POINT ON A SHPERE?
•Great circle and relationship to aircraft navigation
Navigating an aircraft along a great circle track. A great circle track is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of a sphere
For an RNAV track to a fix (TF) leg:
Defines a great circle track over the ground between two known database fixes and the preferred method for specification of straight legs (course or heading can be mentioned on charts but designer should ensure TF leg is used for coding)
Altitudes and airspeeds
Below 10,000 and within 12Nm of the coast, ____ kts max
Below Class B, _____ kts
Within 4NM, _____ kts
Altitudes and airspeeds
Below 10,000 and within 12Nm of the coast, 250 kts max
Below Class B, 200kts
Within 4NM, 200kts
WHAT ARE SOME INDICATIONS OF WINDSHEAR?
Other indications: Airspeed changes of 15kts or more VSI excursions of 500fpm or more Pitch changes of 5 deg or more Glideslope deviations of 1 dot or more Heading variations of 10 degrees or more
WHAT IS? MOCA OROCA MEA MSA MCA MORA MTA MRA MAA
MINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALT (MOCA)
OFF ROUTE OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALT (OROCA)
MINIMUM ENROUTE ALT
MINIMUM SAFE ALT
MINIMUM CROSSING ALT
MINIMUM OF ROUTE ALT.
MINIMUM TURNING ALTMinimum Reception Altitude
MINIMUM RECEPTION ALT
MAXIMUM AUTHORIZED ALT.
You can fly up to ____nm over water without flotation/water survival equipment on board
50
Navigational aids and distance scales
Deviations
VOR:___ degrees per dot with full scale deflection equal to____ degrees
ILS localizer: ___ degrees per dot with full scale deflection _____ degrees
ILS glidepath: ___ degrees per dot with full scale deflection ____ degrees
ILS localizer ROT: 50’/NM per dot deviation
ILS glidepath ROT: 24’/NM per dot deviation off glidepath
Navigational aids and distance scales
Deviations
VOR: 2 degrees per dot with full scale deflection equal to10 degrees
ILS localizer: 0.5 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 2.5 degrees
ILS glidepath: 0.14 degrees per dot with full scale deflection 0.7 degrees
ILS localizer ROT: 50’/NM per dot deviation
ILS glidepath ROT: 24’/NM per dot deviation off glidepath
If you have an increasing headwind, you need to _________ descent rate to maintain a glidepath
The increasing headwind decreases your ground speed. Since your ground speed is slower, you will need to descend at a _________ rate to maintain glidepath.
DECREASE
SLOWER
If you have an increasing headwind, you need to decrease descent rate to maintain a glidepath
The increasing headwind decreases your ground speed. Since your ground speed is slower, you will need to descend at a slower rate to maintain glidepath.
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN
LPV
LNAV/VNAV
LNAV
(LPV) are the highest precision GPS (WAAS enabled) aviation instrument approach procedures currently available without specialized aircrew training requirements, such as required navigation performance (RNP). Landing minima are usually similar to those of a Type I instrument landing system (ILS), that is, a decision height of 200 feet (61 m) and visibility of 1/2 mile.[1
LNAV/VNAV Some aircraft equipped with GPS and FMS (with approach-certified barometric vertical navigation, or Baro-VNAV) can fly to the LNAV/VNAV MDA.
LNAV GPS ONLY.
After passing the final approach fix on final approach, aircraft are expected to ______ inbound on the final approach course and complete the approach or effect the missed approach
continue
Two-bar VASI installations provide one visual glide path which is normally set at___ degrees. Three-bar VASI installations provide two visual glide paths. The lower glide path is provided by the near and middle bars and is normally set at ___degrees while the upper glide path, provided by the middle and far bars, is normally ___ degree higher. This higher glide path is intended for use only by ____ cockpit aircraft to provide a sufficient threshold crossing height
3
3
1/4
high
These lights are visible from 3-5 miles during the day and up to 20 miles or more at night. The visual glide path of the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus___ degrees of the extended runway centerline and to___ NM from the runway threshold. Descent, using the VASI, should not be initiated until the aircraft is visually aligned with the runway.
10
4
You can taxi and takeoff on a displaced threshold, but you must _____ past it.
land
Displaced thresholds are not obvious incredibly obvious on an airfield diagram. There is a question about JFK runway 31L, and the answer appears to be that a displaced threshold exists beyond runway 4L/22R (see diagrams)
DISPLACED THRESHOLD EXISTS BEYOND RWY 4L/22R
These takeoff minimums are listed by airport in alphabetical order in the front of the TPP booklet. If an airport has non-standard takeoff minimums, a (referred to by some as either the “triangle T” or “trouble T”) is placed in the notes sections of the instrument procedure chart
A TRIANGLE T MEANS TROUBLE
NON STANDARD T/O MINIMUMS
On AeroNav Products charts, standard alternate minimums are not published. If the airport has other than standard alternate minimums, they are listed in the front of the approach chart booklet. The presence of a triangle with an A on the approach chart indicates the listing of alternate minimums should be consulted. Airports that do not qualify for use as an alternate airport are designated with an A N/A
AN A ON THE APPROACH CHART MEANS OTHER THAN STANDARD ALTERNATE MINIMUMS.
For two engine aircraft, the alternate must be within ___ hour
The alternate must be within 2 hours flying time for an aircraft with three or more engines with an engine out in normal cruise in still air
1
2
For airports with at least one operational navigational facility that provides a straight-in non-precision approach, a straight-in precision approach, or a circling maneuver from an instrument approach procedure determine the ceiling and visibility by:
Adding___ feet to the authorized CAT I height above airport (HAA)/height above touchdown elevation (HAT) for ceiling
Adding ____ mile to the authorized CAT I visibility for visibility minimums
400
one
If a minimum distance stop is required, apply thrust reversers as soon as the aircraft hits the ground/slowly and steadily increase them reaching maximum just before the aircraft comes to a complete stop
However some airplanes tend to pitch nose up and reverse shouldn’t be selected until the nose wheel is _______
down.