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Mission Checkride Guide > Navigation > Flashcards

Navigation Flashcards

1
Q

What is proper crew rest?

A

12-hour rest opportunity prior to beginning the flight duty period

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2
Q

Alcohol rule?

A

12 hour bottle to throttle or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance (effects and after-effects)

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3
Q

When will a physical or psychological condition prevent one from flying?

A

When it is detrimental to the safe performance of flight duty

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4
Q

Is self-medicating permitted for flight ops?

A

No, unless cleared IAW para 3.7.2

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5
Q

Blood, plasma or bone marrow donation DNIF

A

72 hours

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6
Q

Compressed gas diving (SCUBA), surface supplied diving, aircraft pressurization checks exceeding 10 minutes in duration below sea level or hyperbaric chamber exposure DNIF

A

24 hours

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7
Q

What is crew rest?

A

free time and includes time for meals, transportation, opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.
cannot begin until the completion of official duties
it is compulsory; minimum of 12 hours

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8
Q

When can crew rest be reduced to 10 hours?

A

3 or more consecutive FDPs of at least 12 hours are scheduled to maintain a 24 hours work/rest schedule; used for 24 hour clock cycles, not convenience

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9
Q

What is required for any reduction in the 12 hour crew rest period?

A

Transportation, meals and quarters for 8 hours of uninterrupted rest

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10
Q

When does the FDP begin and end?

A

When air crew first reports for official duty and ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission

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11
Q

How long can the FDP be extended for unforeseen delays?

A

2 hours

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12
Q

Consider reducing the FDP when?

A

post-flight duties may exceed 2 hours

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13
Q

Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)

A

NAS only, term used by pilots and controllers to indicate flight plan type
Also indicates weather conditions that are less than VFR minimum requirements

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14
Q

Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)

A

conditions (vis, distance from clouds and ceilings) less than VMC minima

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15
Q

Visual Flight Rules (VFR)

A

procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions
used in US to indicate conditions equal to or greater than min VFR requirements; also type of flight plan

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16
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)

A

conditions (vis, distance from clouds and ceilings) equal to or better than specified minima

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17
Q

Weather Information Prioritization
MROOF

A
  • MAJCOM-approved weather source (OSS)
  • Regional Operational Weather Squadron (OWS)
  • Other DOD weather sources
  • Other US Government weather facilities/services
  • Foreign civil or military services if above options aren’t available
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18
Q

When to file a flight plan?

A

Either on the ground or airborne whenever practicable (IFR or VFR)

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19
Q

Who signs the flight plan?

A

The PIC

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20
Q

When can a destination be filed to?

A
  • When weather conditions at destination +/- 1 hour from ETA is forecasted to be at or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums
  • TEMPO conditions may be below this criteria
  • MAJCOMs may authorize filing below this minima with appropriate recovery procedures
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21
Q

When is an alternate required?
(Think backup plan/fuel)

A
  • compatible instrument approach procedure is not available at the destination airfield
  • weather forecast +/- 1 hour from ETA at destination including TEMPO conditions are less than 2,000 ft AGL ceilings, 3SM and winds are out of limits.
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22
Q

What disqualifies an alternate?

A
  • unmonitored navaid
  • does not report weather observations
  • alternate note authorized (ANA symbol)
  • any not disqualifying the airfield/ compatible approaches in the “A IFR Alt Mins” section
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23
Q

When to declare min/emer fuel?

A

When aircraft may land at intended destination with less than MDS-specific minimum reserve or emergency fuel

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24
Q

Fuel reserves requirements?

A

Enough usable fuel to increase total planned flight time between refueling points by 10% (up to a maximum of 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater

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25
Q

Alternate fuel requirements?

A
  • fuel required for an approach and missed approach at intended destination if vis only weather criteria is used at destination
  • fuel required for missed is not required when ceiling and vis criteria is used
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26
Q

Minimum weather for departure (IFR)

A
  • When weather conditions at destination +/- 1 hour from ETA is forecasted to be at or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums
  • TEMPO conditions may be below this criteria
  • MAJCOMs may authorize filing below this minima with appropriate recovery procedures
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27
Q

Circling approach requirements

A

forecast weather must meet both ceiling and prevailing vis minimums

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28
Q

Leading level offs?

A
  • pitch corrections = VVI of 1x to 2x the amount of altitude deviation prevents overshoots
  • begin pitch change to level off 10% of the VVI rate
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29
Q

IFR climb performance

A
  • ensure aircraft can meet/exceed climb gradient of 3.3% or 200fpm or published climb gradient, whichever is higher
  • all engines operating to enroute structure or altitude at or above minimum IFR altitude within the enroute structure (1000ft above tallest obstacle within 4nm of the course to be flown)
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30
Q

Minimum turn altitude after takeoff?

A

400 feet above DER altitude, unless required by published procedure/ATC

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31
Q

What do published/ATC climb gradients not account for?

A

Low close-in obstacles; low close-in obstacle clearance not assure when complying with IFR climb gradients

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32
Q

IFR DER crossing restrictions

A
  • TERPS = 0ft
  • ICAO = 16ft
  • NAS (hardened >/= 6000ft) = 0ft
  • NAS (Unhardened Rwy + Rwy < 6000ft) 0-35ft
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33
Q

How is an obstacle departure procedure (ODP) described in the Trouble T section?

A
  • OBSTACLE is included in the procedure title
  • Aircraft cannot be vectored off of an ODP/issued altitude lower than published ODP altitude until at min vectoring altitude (MVA) or min IFR altitude
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34
Q

When will a pilot not fly a diverse departure? (ODP)

A
  • When a standalone graphic ODP is present
  • published ODP listed in Trouble T section of the terminal procedures publication
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35
Q

What is the obstacle identification surface surface ratio/climb gradient?

A

OIS is equivalent to 152 feet per nautical mile or 40:1

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36
Q

Non-standard IFR takeoff Minimums

A
  • provided for pilots to see and avoid obstacles when they penetrate 40:1 OIS within 3SM from DER
  • wx must be at least published minimums for departure (ceiling and vis)
  • climb gradient of 200ft/NM or greater
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37
Q

Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)

A

departure for IFR aircraft operating in VMC wanting to conduct climbing turns over the airfield

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38
Q

Reduced Takeoff Runway Length Procedure (RTRL)

A
  • artificial limit of TO distance available due to obstacles penetrating OIS by 35 feet or less to achieve standard climb gradient
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39
Q

Diverse Vector Area (DVA)

A
  • created to use radar vectors in lieu of an ODP when an ODP has already been established
  • assessed for departures without a specified ground track
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40
Q

Specific ATC Departure Instructions

A
  • include a heading and altitude
  • do not apply wind drift corrections
  • must be above
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41
Q

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

A
  • simplifies clearance delivery procedures
  • provide protection from obstacles
  • are not ODPs and may not be flown unless approved by ATC
  • Heavy black line = SID
  • thin black line = transition route
  • higher than standard climb gradients are published on the SID
  • if unable to fly SID, include “NO SID” in flight plan
  • adhere to published speed restrictions
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42
Q

MAJCOM Certified Procedures

A
  • created for restricted areas/contingency operations
  • for specific aircraft at specific locations w/
  • MAJCOM-specific training required before flying
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43
Q

What are Takeoff Obstacle Notes (climb gradient/distance required)

A
  • obstacles within 3SM of DER/climb gradient greater than 200 ft/NM
  • listed in the “TAKE-OFF OBSTACLE NOTES” in the trouble-T section
  • obstacles to be seen and avoided
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44
Q

What are low close-in obstacles?

A
  • Obstacles requiring a climb gradient greater than standard for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is 200 feet above the DER
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45
Q

When is supplemental oxygen use required?

A
  • Supplemental O2 will be used anytime the cabin pressure exceeds 10,000 ft
  • Cannot operate above 14’000 feet MSL without supp. O2
  • Not exceed 1 hour between 10,000 and 12,500 without supp. O2
  • Not exceed 30 minutes between 12,500 and 14,000 without supp. O2
  • Supp O2 will be used by all occupants operating between 14000 and FL250
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46
Q

Right of way rules

A
  • Distress aircraft
  • Same category, altitude and converging; aircraft to right has right of way
  • right of way category priorities = balloons, gliders, aircraft towing/refueling other ac, airships, rotary/fixed-wing aircraft
  • head on collision aircraftavoid each other
  • overtaken aircraft has right of way; overtaking aircraft must alter course
  • established on final approach; if 2 aircraft are established on final, then the lower ac has priority (do not use to cut in front of or take advantage of other aircraft)
47
Q

Minimum IFR altitude

A
  • On airways, no lower than published mins
  • off air ways no lower than, Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA), Off Route Terrain Clearance Altitude (ORTCA)
  • altitude that provides at least 1000ft of clearance above all obstacles within 4NM of course to be flown non mountainous (2000ft mountainous)
48
Q

Aircraft speed restrictions

A
  • 250 KIAS below 10,000 (exceeding 250 only permitted in international airspace/mission requirements dictate, ICAO or host nation rules permit, necessary to maintain the min safe airspeed as prescribed by flight manual)
  • Will not exceed 200 knots below 2500 AGL and 4NM of primary airport (class C/D airspace) unless authorized by ATC/required for safe operation
  • 200 knots in airspace below class B airspace or VFR corridor through class B airspace
49
Q

Hazard avoidance; severe conditions & thunderstorms

A
  • PIC will not operate in forecast or actual severe conditions, includes areas of moderate to occasional severe/moderate to severe turbulence
  • PIC will not intentionally fly into a thunderstorm/IMC near thunderstorms without operable wx radar
50
Q

VFR Weather minimums

A
  • Do not operate VFR unless able to maintain flight vis or cloud clearances listed in tables 12.1 and 12.2
  • No VFR within lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface when ceilings are less than 1000 feet
  • When conditions prevent completing the mission under VFR, alter route, obtain an IFR clearance, or land at a suitable location
  • VFR flight plans still require closure (not automatic)
51
Q

VFR hemispheric altitudes

A
  • Only fly VFR hemispheric altitudes when operating above 3000 AGL unless authorized by ATC
  • exception = military aircraft conducting hurricane recon
  • do not apply these altitudes with holding in pattern holds of 2 minutes or less (NAS)
52
Q

Altitude over non-congested, congested, national recreational area

A
  • 500 feet of any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
  • 1000 foot vert separation above highest obstacle within 2000ft radius
  • No lower than 2000 AGL over national parks, monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation areas etc (n/a to MTRs, low levels, special use airspace)
53
Q

Flight following services

A
  • provided if requested, ATC workload/equipment permitting
  • provides separation from IFR traffic and participating VFR
  • ultimate traffic separation still rests on PIC
54
Q

Options if unable to maintain VFR

A
  • anticipate IMC and alter route to maintain VMC unless safety dictates
  • if unable to maintain VMC, transition to inst. coord IFR clearance and cancel VFR flight plan
  • land at another suitable location
55
Q

Closing a VFR flight plan

A
  • not automatically closed, PIC must ensure flight plans are closed to prevent SAR efforts from being coordinated
56
Q

Flying direct

A
  • Pilots will not file direct/accept a clearance that requires navigating direct to a nav fix unless primary nav equipment is certified for appropriate RNAV capability
  • must reply unable if equipment not available
  • request radar vectors/alternate routings
57
Q

Alternate vs substitute use RNAV

A
  • Suitable RNAV equipment may be used as substitute means of nav/alternate means of nav on conventional routes and procedures
  • Comply with RNAV MAJCOM guidance
58
Q

Allowed use (RNAV)

A
  • determine aircraft position from a NAVAID
  • nav to and from a NAVAID
  • hold over a NAVAID/DME nav fix
  • ## fly an arc based on DME
59
Q

Prohibitions (RNAV)

A
  • substituting for a NAVAID providing lateral course guidance on final for a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach (may be approved through MAJCOM if NAVAID is OOS)
  • lateral nav on localizer based courses without referencing raw localizer data
  • use of a procedure identified as NA without NOTAM exception
60
Q

Standard holding pattern

A

Racetrack design consisting of 2 180 degree turns to the right and two straight legs; nonstandard is to the left

61
Q

Maximum holding airspeeds (NAS)

A
  • 6000 to 14000 is 200 KIAS
  • 14000 to 19999 is 230 KIAS
  • 20000 and above is 265 KIAS
62
Q

Maximum holding speeds (ICAO)

A
  • 6000 to 14000 = 170 (A/B) & 230 (C/D/E)
  • 14000 to 20000 = 240
  • 20000 to 34000 = 265
  • +34000 = 0.83 mach
63
Q

Holding Length

A
  • At or Below 14000 MSL = 1 minute legs
  • Above 14000 MSL = 1.5 minute legs unless otherwise told by ATC
  • Can also be determined by a limiting radial for shorter hold lengths
64
Q

What is the timing based on? (ICAO)

A
  • outbound legs, beginning over or abeam the fix whichever occurs later
  • is abeam cannot be determined, begin once turn outbound is complete
65
Q

What is timing based on? (NAS)

A
  • timing is based on inbound leg; timing adjusted as necessary to achieve proper inbound leg time
66
Q

Drift corrections?

A

Triple the drift: triple the inbound calculated drift correction; allows for constant AOB turns when turning inbound/outbound while holding

67
Q

IFR alternate weather minimums

A
  • some civil/foreign approaches have alternate mins/alternate not authorized “ANA” in remarks (nonstandard)
  • USAF pilots are not required to comply with these minimums; other requirements may apply however
  • See IFR alternate mins for pertinent info
68
Q

ANA symbol

A

informs pilots that specific approach cannot be used to qualify airfield as an alternate due to unmonitored navaid/lack of weather reporting service

69
Q

Straight in/sidestep approach weather

A
  • forecast weather must meet required mins
70
Q

Circling approach weather

A
  • forecast weather must meet both the ceiling and prevailing vis minimums
71
Q

“Cleared Tyler One arrival”

A
  • follow lateral profile of arrival, descent not authorized
72
Q

“Cleared Tyler One arrival, descend and maintain FL240”

A
  • follow lateral profile
  • descend to cleared altitude until told otherwise/”descend via”
73
Q

“Cleared Tyler One arrival, descend pilots discretion, maintain FL180”

A
  • follow lateral profile of arrival
  • descend at pilots discretion to FL180 until told otherwise/”descend via”
74
Q

“descend via the Tyler One arrival”

A
  • descend at pilots discretion while meeting altitude restrictions and later profile restricitons
75
Q

descend via the Tyler One arrival, except after GRANT maintain 9k

A
  • lateral profile
  • descend at pilot’s discretion and comply with altitude restrictions until at ATC assigned altitude
76
Q

descend via the Tyler One arrival, except cross SCOTT at 9k then maintain 6k

A
  • lateral profile
  • descend at discretion and comply with published altitude restrictions, cross point at ATC assigned altitude then descend to ATC “maintain” altitude
77
Q

proceed directly to DILLY, cross DILLY at/above FL200, then descend via the Tyler One arrival

A
  • proceed direct to point
  • follow lateral arrival of arrival
  • descend at pilots discretion to published or ATC assigned altitude to ATC assigned point then comply with published altitudes
78
Q

Vectors to intercept final approach

A
  • unless requested by pilot, vectors provide at least 3 miles from FAF at max angle of 45 degrees (30 degrees in NAS)
79
Q

Altitude prior to the approach

A
  • maintain last assigned altitude when cleared until established on published segment of the instrument approach procedure
  • may descend once inside TAA sector to minimum altitude depicted unless otherwise told by ATC
80
Q

Airspeed prior to the approach

A
  • approach clearance = previously assigned airspeeds unless adjustments are restated
  • speed adjustments should not be assigned inside of the FAF/5 miles from rwy, whichever is closer
  • can always be rejected by pilot
81
Q

TORA

A
  • Takeoff run available
  • suitable for ground run of aircraft
  • typically physical length of runway
82
Q

TODA
TO+DA

A
  • TakeOff Distance Available
  • takeoff run + any remaining runway/clearway beyond the TORA
  • pilots will not use TODA without MAJCOM guidance
  • certs, perf data, and operating rules must allow for TORA to be used
83
Q

ASDA

A
  • Accelerate-Stop Distance Available
  • rwy + length suitable for acceleration or deceleration when aborting a TO
  • may be longer or shorter of physical length of rwy
84
Q

LDA

A
  • Landing Distance Available
  • length available for landing an aircraft
  • less than physical length or length remaining beyond displaced threshold
85
Q

Practice approaches under VFR requirements

A
  • VFR cloud clearances/visibilities
  • terminal radar services when available
  • make all position reports
  • receive ATC approval to fly the published missed
86
Q

Required NTA calls

A
  • Departing the FAF inbound
  • established on the approach after being released by ATC
  • completion/termination of the approach
  • executing the missed
87
Q

Circling Only approach

A
  • name of approach is followed by a single letter beginning with the letter “A” (circling mins will only be available)
88
Q

Visual Approach

A
  • IFR procedure conducted in VMC under IFR clearance
  • radar service automatically terminated once freq change approved
89
Q

If glideslope fails

A
  • reverts to an approach without glidepath guidance
90
Q

If unestablished

A
  • approach must be discontinued
91
Q

ILS critical area

A
  • ceilings less than 800ft and 2 miles vis, no aircraft/vehicles are allowed within/over the critical area (ILS FAF and rwy)
92
Q

Flying a localizer BC

A
  • set published front course prior to beginning the approach
  • LOC BC (back course)
  • front course refers to the inbound course
93
Q

Descent below DH/MDA/DA

A
  • only descend if sufficient visual references (rwy environment) exists
  • aircraft in safe position to safely land
94
Q

Descent below 100ft AGL

A
  • only descend if red termination bars or red side row bars are visible /identifiable
95
Q

Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA)

A
  • provides 1000ft of obstacle clearance (2000 mountainous) within 100 NM of facility/fix
96
Q

Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)

A
  • at least 1000 ft of obtacle clearance with 25nm of facility/fix
  • can be expanded on conventional nav systems to 30 nm
  • can be divided into 4 sectors/subsectors
97
Q

precision and non precision FAF ID

A
  • precision approach FAF = glideslope intercept (lightning bolt symbol)
  • Non-precision FAF = maltese cross w/ minimum recommended altitude or when established inbound on final approach course where no maltese cross is depicted
  • cross the FAF at final approach speed and configured
98
Q

When to start timing?

A
  • timing required when approach does not terminate at a published fix; begin timing when passing the FAF/start timing point (indicated by timing block)
  • OM, NDB or crossing radial, DME fix maybe a timing point
  • speeds in timing charts are based on ground speed
99
Q

When is timing not allowed

A
  • when it is not specifically depicted on an approach
100
Q

What constitutes the rwy environment
RRRVTTA

A
  • Rwy or rwy markings
  • rwy end identifier lights
  • rwy lights
  • visual glideslope indicators
  • threshold/threshold markings/threshold lights
  • touchdown zone/touchdown zone markings/touchdown zone lights
  • approach light system
101
Q

Executing the missed prior to the MAP

A
  • pilot will adhere to published altitude restrictions/ground track unless told otherwise
  • no turns allowed until reaching the MAP
102
Q

Circling missed approach

A
  • loss of visual reference/unsafe landing = missed approach
  • execute a climbing turn, remain within protected circling area, turn to toward rwy of intended landing and return to circling altitude/higher
  • continue turn until established on missed approach course/alternate instructions
103
Q

Inop approach lighting system

A

DOD > Legends > Gen Info and Legends

104
Q

Calculating descent rate

A

Figure 16.7 pg 202 of v3

105
Q

Use of constant descent final approach

A
  • used for non-precision approaches
  • begins at or above the FAF alt to approx 50 feet above the rwy threshold/flare maneuver should begin
  • if CDFA is not used height mins are increased (ICAO)
106
Q

Industry practice derived decision altitude

A
  • altitude above the MDA where a missed approach should be initiated
107
Q

Landing gear reporting procedures

A
  • must report gear down before crossing the threshold; no response necessary from ATC
  • may omit the call if multiple crew positions are onboard and it has been verified interplane priolr to crossing threshold
108
Q

Land and hold short operations (LAHSO)

A
  • do not accept LAHSO clearance without MAJCOM training
  • PIC has final authority to continue TO, landing, touch and go when LAHSO in effect
109
Q

Class A vis and cloud clearances

A

not applicable

110
Q

Class B vis and cloud clearances

A
  • 3SM clear of clouds
111
Q

Class C & D vis and cloud clearances

A
  • 3SM
  • 500 below
  • 1000 feet above
  • 2000 horizontal
112
Q

Class E & G below 10,000 MSL vis and cloud clearances

A
  • 3SM
  • 500 below
  • 1000 feet above
  • 2000 horizontal
113
Q

Class E & G above 10,000 MSL vis and cloud clearances

A
  • 5SM
  • 500 below
  • 1000 feet above
  • 2000 horizontal
114
Q

Standard Formation

A
  • 10 feet vert separation and no more than 1 mile lat/long

Mission Checkride Guide (9 decks)

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