Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Utility > NATOPS > Flashcards

NATOPS Flashcards

1
Q

Overall Length

A

64’ 10”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Height

A

17’ 0”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Main Rotor Diameter

A

53’ 8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TR Diameter

A

11’ 0”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wheelbase

A

29’ 0”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ground Clearance

A

19” (15” with MTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Engine Type

A

T700-GE-401C, front driven turboshaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5 Sections of Engine

A

Inlet, Compressor, Combustor, Turbine, Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inlet Airflow

A

Inlet Cowling > Swirl Vanes > IPS/Collection Scroll > Deswirl Vanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IPS purpose

A

Prevents particles from entering the compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Compressor Section Stages

A

5 Stage Axial, 1 Stage centrifugal rotor/stator assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Engine Airflow Usage

A

30% Used for combustion process, remainder used for:

  1. Compressor Inlet Temperature (T2) air
  2. Compressor Discharge Pressure (P3) air
  3. Combustor and turbine cooling
  4. Engine oil seal pressurization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ng Turbine

A

Drives the compressor and AGB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Np Turbine

A

Turns inside the Ng Turbine drive shaft, extends through the front of the engine connecting to power turbine drive shaft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is sensed between Np & Ng turbines?

A

TGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AGB Components

A

Rear Face: Engine starter, HMU, IPS, ODV
Front Face: Alternator, Engine Driven fuel boost pump
Mounting Cavities: Lube/Scavenge pump, Chip detector
Face Pads: Oil cooler, fuel filter, oil filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PCL - OFF

A

PAS mechanically shuts off fuel at the shutoff valve within the HMU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PCL - IDLE

A

HMU automatically controls start sequence fuel flow allowing the engine to achieve self containing combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PCL - FLY

A

Sets the max level of power that could be supplied, if demanded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PCL - LOCKOUT

A

PCL is used to manually control Np and Ng.

*TGT Limiting, Np governing, and load sharing deactivated in LOCKOUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

LDS System

A

Responds to the collective position to automatically control engine speed and provide required power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Engine Driven Fuel Boost Pump

A
  1. Provides reliable suction feed from the fuel tank to engine
  2. Provides discharge pressure to satisfy minimum inlet pressure requirements of HMU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Engine Fuel Filter

A

Filters solid matter, but not water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HMU responds to the PCL for:

A
  1. Fuel Scheduling
  2. Fuel Priming
  3. Setting engine start fuel flow with auto acceleration to ground idle
  4. Setting permissible Ng up to maximum
  5. DECU Override capability (LOCKOUT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ng Overspeed

A

Trips at 110+/- 2% Ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

HMU Provides:

A
  1. Rapid engine transient response through collective compensation
  2. Automatic fuel scheduling for engine start
  3. Ng Overspeed protection
  4. Flameout/Compressor stall protection
  5. Acceleration limiting
  6. Ng governing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Engine Control Quadrant Contents

A

2 PCLs (w/ starter button)
2 Fuel Selectors
2 Engine T-Handles
Rotor brake interlock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ODV Functions

A
  1. Provides fuel to 12 main injectors during start/operation
  2. Purges main fuel manifold overboard, after engine shutdown, to prevent the coking of fuel injectors
  3. Traps fuel upstream, so system priming is not required on next start
  4. Returns fuel back to the HMU if the Np overspeed is energized or if DECU Hot Start preventer is activated.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Alternator

A

Provides all essential engine electrical functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Alternator Windings

A

Provide AC power to ignitor assembly, DECU, and Ng signal to vertical instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DECU receives the following inputs from the Cockpit:

A
  1. ENGINE SPD TRIM switch
  2. CONTGCY PWR switch
  3. ENG OVERSPEED TEST A and B buttons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DECU sends the following signals to the Cockpit:

A
  1. TGT
  2. Np
  3. Torque
  4. Contingency power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the DECU do?

A

Resets the HMU within acceptable engine limits to maintain Np governing while automatically limiting TGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does selecting Contingency Power switch ON do?

A

TGT limit is increased to 903 C, by a signal sent from the DECU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Np Overspeed

A

Activated at 120% Np, when exceeded, a signal is sent from the DECU to ODV causing engine flameout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What could happen if you reset a No. 1/No.2 ENG OVSP circuit breaker in flight?

A

May initiate engine overspeed signal and result in engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

EDECU vs DECU

A
  1. TGT limiting
  2. Auto Contingency Rated Power
  3. Dual Auto Contingency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Engine Ignitor

A

When in NORM and either starter button depressed, Ignition system operates until starter dropout (52-65% Ng) occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Engine Oil System

A

Self contained, pressurized, recirculating dry sump system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Engine Oil Sumps

A

6 main sump bearings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Thermal Lockout

A

Below 38 C, prevents the PDI from popping out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Engine Start options

A
  1. APU
  2. Crossbleed Air
  3. External pneumatic power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Crossbleed Start Ng requirements

A

Donor Engine Ng: 90-94%

Ng on receiving engine: 24% before PCL to IDLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 Ways to Anti-Ice Engines

A
  1. Vent bleed air into swirl vanes and IGVs
  2. Vent bleed air into engine inlet anti ice valve
  3. Continuous pump engine oil through scroll vanes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Engine Anti-Ice/Start bleed valve Open/Closed

A

Open: Below 90% Ng to prevent compressor stability
Closed: Above 90% Ng

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Indications of Malfunctioning Anti-Ice/Start bleed valve

A
  1. ENG-ANTI ICE ON w/ Ng above 90% OR above 94% Ng when OAT is 15 degrees C or greater
  2. No advisory when Ng drops below 88% Ng
  3. No illumination when switch selected
  4. No rise in TGT when switch is on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Max torque available reduced with malfunctioning ENG ANTI-ICE?

A

Up to 18% per engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inlet Anti-Ice Valve operates at?

A

Less than 4 degrees C: Valve open INLET ANTI-ICE ON advisory when inlet temp reaches 93 degrees C

4-13 degrees C: Freon bellows control

Above 13 degrees C: Valve closes, advisory gone when cowling temp drops below 93 C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Np/Torque Sensors

A

Right: Torque computation and Np Overspeed
Left: Np signal to DECU and Cockpit vertical instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ng Sensor

A

Alternator provides Ng signal to vertical instruments in the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

TGT Sensors

A

Thermocouple harness, 7 thermocouples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rotor Subsystems

A
  1. Main blades
  2. Hub
  3. Flight Controls
  4. Bifilar vibration absorber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Head Check

A
  1. Blade Lock Pins - Engaged
  2. Pitch Lock Pins - Retracted
  3. Gust Lock - Disengaged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Elastomeric bearings

A

Per blade, allow flap, lead, lag, and permit blade to move about its axis for pitch change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Swashplate

A

Outer: Stationary
Inner: Rotates, transmits flight control movement through 4 pitch control rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Anti-Flap restraints

A

@ 35% Nr or greater, permit flapping or coning of the blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Droop stops

A

Engagement: 70% Nr pulls out
Shutdown: 50% droops seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rotor Blades

A

Pressurized hollow spar, honeycomb core, outer skin, abrasion strips, deicing mats. 20 degree swept tips provide sound attenuation and rotor blade efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Gust Lock primary purpose

A

Lock the rotor brake disc in an indexed position and prevent the brake disc from turning inadvertently should rotor brake hydraulic pressure bleed off while rotors are spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MGB

A

Drives and supports the main rotor. Modular design, 3 degree forward tilt, pressure lubricated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Input Module

A

Take power delivered by the Np turbine, change angle of drive, and transfer power to the main module and provide drive for respective Accessory Module.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Freewheeling Unit

A

Allows engines to be disengaged from the transmission when Nr exceeds Np (autorotation) and single engine operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Accessory Module

A

Mounting and drive for AC electric generator and hydraulic pump module

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Right Accessory Module

A

Nr sensor for vertical instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Left Accessory Module

A

Nr sensor for TDI and main transmission pressure sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

IGB

A

Splash lubricated, transmits torque, reduces shaft speed, changes angle of drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

TGB

A

Splash lubricated, transmits torque to the TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Main Transmission Oil system type

A

Wet sump, AC generators also use transmission oil for cooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Main Transmission Oil Pressure Sensor

A

Located on the No. 1 Accessory module (furthest from pumps), activates caution at 14 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Main Transmission Oil Temperature Sensor

A
  • Located at oil cooler input to MGB, activates caution at 117 degrees C or greater
  • Chip detector for for readings to cockpit display
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

IGB/TGB Oil Temperature sensor

A

Embedded in the chip detectors, when temperature reaches 140 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Main Transmission Chip Detectors

A

5 total (1 in each module) using magnetic plugs to attract ferrous metal particles, fuzz burnoff, MGB has 30 second time delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When is fuzz burnoff deactived?

A

When oil temperature reaches 140 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Fuel System Type

A

Crash worthy, suction type, self sealing breakaway valves capable of pressure, gravity, and HIFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Fuel Selector positions

A

OFF/ DIRECT/ CROSSFEED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Main Fuel Tanks

A

2, 180 Gallon tanks.
Lower 1/3: 14.2mm
Upper 2/3: 7.62mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Aux Tanks

A

Up to 2, 200 gallon (194 Usable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Fuel Transfer Rate

A

350 lbs/ Minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

FUEL LOW caution

A

300 lbs in a single tank, 600lbs or less total, 300+/-15 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Fuel dump rate

A

800 lbs/ minute minimum, down to 300 per side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

precheck lever left in PRECHECK

A

Fuel will not transfer from aux tanks, attempting to transfer in this condition may cause transfer/dump pumps to lose prime.
*If holding XFR INT AUX doesnt work, AC must be pressure refueled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

APU fuel consumption

A

150 lbs/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Acceptable in-flight APU usage

A
  1. EPs
  2. Single Engine Training
  3. Practice Autos
  4. Powering the ECS during extreme temps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What controls and monitors the APU

A

ESU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Primary AC Power

A

2, Oil cooled, 115 vAC generators driven by the accessory modules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Secondary AC power

A

Air cooled, 115 vAC generator driven by the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

GCU

A

Connects each respective generator to ac bus system, regulates generator output, and protects components

88
Q

GCU % On deck, In Flight, reconnect

A

On deck: Nr below 94%
In flight: Nr below 80%
Reconnect: 97% Nr or greater

89
Q

5 AC Buses

A
  1. No. 1 AC Primary
  2. No. 2 AC Primary
  3. AC Essential
  4. AC
  5. AC Secondary
90
Q

Major load on No. 1 AC primary bus?

A

Backup Hydraulic Pump (will always be powered if required)

91
Q

External Power Receptacle

A

Located on right side, automatically disconnects when Main or APU generator brought online

92
Q

5 DC Buses

A
  1. No. 1 DC Primary
  2. No. 2 DC Primary
  3. DC Essential
  4. Battery Bus
  5. Battery Utility Bus
93
Q

Converters

A

2 Converters powered by No. 1/No. 2 AC primary buses supply 28 vDC to DC bus system

94
Q

Battery

A

24 vDC located under copilot (Left) seat installed to start the APU, power battery utility bus, emergency DC power

95
Q

Battery analyzer/conditioner

A

Located next to the battery, monitors for fault conditions, charge, temperature, cell conditions, and provides battery charge capability

96
Q

What happens with a dual converter failure?

A

Both FDs and MDs are lost, If battery has >35% charge will take over

97
Q

Normal Battery life

A

With 80% charge, 9 min night, 11 day

98
Q

What function is lost with battery below 30% charge?

A

Battery power may not be able to activate fire extinguisher CADs

99
Q

FAULT caution

A

Battery Overtemperature or Cell Dissimilarity exists

100
Q

Hydraulic System PSI

A

3,000 psi with exception of the pitch and roll trim actuators (1,000 psi)

101
Q

No. 1 Hydraulic system supplies:

A

Driven by left accessory module. First stage primary servos and First stage TR servo

102
Q

No. 2 Hydraulic system supplies:

A

Driven by right accessory module. Second stage primary servos and Pilot assist Servos

103
Q

Primary SERVO shutoff

A

(1st OFF/2nd OFF) SERVO switches, one on each collective secure fluid to respective servo. Electric interlock prevents dual securing/or to operating stage

104
Q

Backup hydraulic pump supplies:

A

Driven by ac electric motor. APU Accumulator, Rescue Hoist, No.1/No.2 Backup, 2nd stage TR

105
Q

LDI system

A

No. 1 System: Leak assumed to be in 1st Stage TR
No. 2 System: Leak assumed to be in Pilot Assist Servo
SERVO shutoff switch

106
Q

Hydraulic Leak Test Criteria

A
  1. Ac power
  2. BACKUP HYD PMP in AUTO
  3. All hydraulic reservoirs full
  4. Weight on wheels
  5. Rotors engaged
107
Q

Flight Controls: 3 Sections

A
  1. Mechanical Control System
  2. Flight control servo system
  3. AFCS
108
Q

TR Spring cylinders

A

Connected to the quadrant, allow cable tension to be maintained if either tail rotor cable becomes severed.

109
Q

Pilot Assist Servo assembly

A

Boost servos, SAS acutators, hydraulic (pitch and roll) trim actuators
*Turned on/off by SAS/BOOST pushbutton

110
Q

Boost Servos

A

Collective, yaw, pitch reduce cockpit control forces and SAS system feedback

111
Q

AFCS

A

Electrohydromechanical system that provides inputs to the flight control system to assist the pilot in maneuvering and handling the helicopter.

112
Q

AFCS Subsystems

A

SAS, AFCC, Stabilator

113
Q

4/2/1

A

SAS 1 / SAS 2 / TRIM / AUTO PLT
SAS/BOOST / CMPTR PWR Reset
Stabilator

114
Q

AFCC

A

Commands the SAS actuators and the TRIM actuators in all 4 control channels. Inner loop (SAS) and Outer loop (Autopilot)

115
Q

Primary purpose of the Stabilator

A

Provide angle of attack stability

116
Q

What positions the stabilator?

A

Two electric jackscrew actuators

117
Q

Stabilator travel

A

42 degrees trailing edge down (hover)

10 degrees trailing edge up (cruise and maneuver flight)

118
Q

Inputs required to position the stabilator

A

Collective Position
Lateral Acceleration
Airspeed
Pitch Rate

119
Q

Restriction of travel in event of stab actuator failure

A

If fails in full up: 30 degrees

If fails in the full down: 35 degrees

120
Q

SAS

A

Provides increased stability by sensing acceleration rate in the pitch, roll, and yaw axes and applying proportionate control inputs to dampen out the sensed rate.

121
Q

What type of systems are SAS 1 & SAS 2

A

Inner loop system
SAS 1 - Analog
SAS 2 - Digital

122
Q

Difference between SAS 1 and SAS 2?

A

SAS 2 has CILA (Collective inner-loop actuator) which is required for:

  • hover augmentation/gust alleviation
  • turn coordination
  • roll, altitude holds
  • coupler functions
123
Q

SAS control authority

A

+/- 10% control authority which each channel providing +/-5%

124
Q

Trim system servos

A

2 Electric servos for yaw and collective

2 hydraulic servos (1,000 psi) for pitch and roll

125
Q

Trim control authority

A

100% at a rate of 10% per second

126
Q

Automatic Approach Profile

A

Starts @ 200 ft, 80 kts
>40 KTs : 2.5 kt Deceleration / 215 ft./min descent
<40 KTs: 1.5 kt Deceleration / 130 ft./min descent
Ends at 50 ft

127
Q

Automatic Depart Profile

A

From a coupled hover accelerates to 120 KIAS / 150 ft (RADALT Hold is then engaged)

128
Q

What authority does crew hover have?

A

+/- 5 KGS from LONG VEL/LAT VEL switches

129
Q

Right WOW Functions

A

Generator Under Frequency Protection

Fuel Dump

130
Q

Left WOW Functions

A 
Hydraulic Leak Test
ENG OUT Warning
Automatic Backup Pump Operations
Digital Clock (Flight Time)
Rescue Hoist/Cargo hook CADs
AFCS
IFF Mode 4 Responses
LOW ROTOR RPM Warning
LAWS
131
Q

Blade Lock Pin Purpose

A

Lock/Unlock the fold hinge

132
Q

Pitch Lock Pin Purpose

A

Fix the pitch of the rotor blades to maintain clearance

133
Q

Gust Lock Purpose

A

Lock the rotor brake disc in an indexed position and to prevent the rotor brake disc from turning inadvertently should rotor brake hydraulic fluid pressure bleed off while rotors are spread.

134
Q

Automatic Preflight Checks Requirements

A
  1. Both EGI attitudes valid
  2. Rotor brake on
  3. Engine torques below 10%
  4. WOW
  5. SAS 1 Pushbutton engaged
135
Q

RADALT provides precise information up to:

A

5,000 ft AGL and pitch and roll angles up to 45°

136
Q

RADALT declutters at

A

1,050 ft AGL

137
Q

Pitot Static system

A

Provides static and dynamic pressure to the FDs and AFCS via the ADT, AST, and ADCs. Also directly to the backup instruments

138
Q

How many fire detectors are there/where?

A

5, two in each engine and 1 in the APU

139
Q

How do the fire detectors work?

A

When a detector senses Infrared Radiation (fire) and no blue light (sunlight) it sends a signal to the associated control amplifier, activates master warning panel FIRE light, and lights associated T-Handle

140
Q

What are the fire bottles filled/charged with?

A

Filled with Nitrogen charged with Halon

141
Q

Where is the fire compartment located?

A

Aft of the APU compartment

142
Q

What does pulling aft on an Engine T-Handle do?

A

Mechanically places the fuel selector OFF, logic module selects proper compartment for charge

143
Q

What does pulling the APU T-Handle do?

A

Removes electrical power from the APU airframe, fuel shutoff valve, removes power from prime-boost pump, sends stop signal to ESU, arms system.

144
Q

FIRE EXTGH switch positions

A

OFF, MAIN, RESERVE - Spring-loaded to off position

145
Q

FIRE EXTGH - MAIN when held:

A

With AC power:
Forward bottle: No. 1 Engine or APU
AFT: No. 2 Engine

146
Q

FIRE EXTGH - RESERVE when held:

A

Forward bottle: No. 2 Engine

AFT: No. 1 engine or APU

147
Q

What is unique about the No. 2 Fire department

A

Does not work with no ac power and the RESERVE position must be used on the switch

148
Q

When activating No. 1 Engine or APU handle, which one is armed if both are pulled?

A

The last T-Handle pulled is the system to be armed.

149
Q

Fire Extinguisher Impact sensor

A

Activates at 10gs impact

150
Q

What automatically shuts down the ECS?

A
  1. Contingency (C-Power) is selected on collective
  2. No. 1 or No. 2 Engine starter engaged
  3. An ECS heating duct overtemperature exists
151
Q

When shall pitot heat be turned on?

A

Less than 5°C OAT or visible moisture

152
Q

How many troop seats may be installed in addition to the Gunners seats?

A

AGS: 11
Legacy: 12

153
Q

What electrical bus supplies power to the hoist?

A

No. 2 DC primary

DC essential for BACKUP

154
Q

Hoist limit switches

A 
50fpm at:
Full Up
Full down
5 from floor
10 from door
155
Q

Cockpit hoist control speed

156
Q

Backup control speed

157
Q

Cyclic Emergency Release caution

A

Pressing the cyclic EMER REL with CARGO HOOK CTRL armed and RSQ HOIST PWR/ARMED will fire both CADs

158
Q

ADHEELS activation

A

45 minute

  1. Water immersion
  2. Impact of 9gs or greater
  3. Attitude changes of 90° or greater
  4. Manual activation
159
Q

IHEELS activation

A

20 minutes

  1. Water immersion
  2. Attitude changes of 90° or greater
160
Q

Overhead rings/Deck rings

A

23 Deck rated at 5,000 lbs

9 Overhead rated at 3,500 lbs

161
Q

JP-5

A

Primary
F-44
6.8 lbs/gallon

162
Q

JP-8

A

Primary
F-34
6.7 lbs/gallon

163
Q

JP-4

A

Restricted
F-40
6.5 lbs/gallon

164
Q

Fuel mixture for shipboard hangaring

A

70% JP-5, 30% JP-8 or 100% JP-5 to ensure flashpoint is greater than 120° F

165
Q

PRIST

A

Fuel system Icing Inhibitor (FSII) available premixed and discharged via aerosol can. Aerosol can is not authorized due to it settling to the bottom of the tank damaging system

166
Q

Primary fuel

A

A fuel the aircraft is authorized to use for continuous, unrestricted operations

167
Q

Restricted fuel

A

A fuel that imposes operational limitations to the helicopter

168
Q

JP-4/JET-B operational limitations

A
  1. Single engine training prohibited
  2. Operating conditions may change
  3. Next two refuels shall be with primary fuel
169
Q

Emergency fuel

A

A fuel which may be used for a minimum time when no other fuels are available in case of emergency or operational necessity

170
Q

Fuel changeover procedure when JP-4 was in the tank

A
  1. Assume all tanks filled with 100% JP-4
  2. Empty Aux tanks into main tanks before refueling
  3. Operate in DIR only
171
Q

How much fuel to be considered rid of JP-4?

A

Cumulative total of at least 360 gallons per tank (720 total)

172
Q

What does fuel flow in PRECHECK mean?

A

A shutoff system malfunction, fueling shall only be continued if necessary

173
Q

What is a start cycle defined as?

A

Starter initiation, Acceleration in Ng, and Starter dropout/disengagement.

174
Q

How long between start attempts?

A

60 seconds minimum

175
Q

APU acceptable in flight uses

A
  1. EPs
  2. Single Engine training
  3. Practice Autorotations
  4. Powering the ECS during extreme temperature
176
Q

Autorotation maximum speed

177
Q

Hovering turn rate limitation

A

30° per second

178
Q

External load rate of descent limitation

179
Q

Prohibited Maneuvers

A
  1. Aerobatic Flight
  2. Practice Full Autos
  3. Intentional approaches inducing retreating blade stall
180
Q

Rotor brake operating limitations

A

Max Nr: 76%
Routine: 30-50%
180 psi

181
Q

With PCL in LOCKOUT, which functions are disabled?

A

TGT limiting, Np Governing, Load sharing

182
Q

DECU Functions

A
  1. Np Governing
  2. Np Overspeed Protection
  3. TGT Limiting
  4. Engine Load Sharing
  5. Engine Speed Trim
  6. C-Power
  7. Np Overspeed Test
  8. DECU LOCKOUT
  9. Cockpit Signals
  10. Fault Diagnostic System
  11. Hot Start Prevention
  12. 400 Hz airframe power capability
  13. TDI
  14. Auto-ignition system
  15. Ng decay rate relight
183
Q

Rescue Hoist 3 Limits

A
  1. 40 KIAS
  2. 30 AOB
  3. 20 ft above obstacles
184
Q

Rotor Brake operating limits

A

Max: 76% Nr
Routine Stops: 30-50% Nr
Limit to 180 psi to extend service life

185
Q

Max Rate of Descent (Level and Sloped)

A

Level: 540 fpm
Sloped: 360 fpm

186
Q

Tailwheel Locked/Unlocked

A

Locked: 60 KGS
Unlocked: 20 KGS

187
Q

Braking Speed

188
Q

Slope Landing Limits

A

Up: 9°
Down: 6°
Cross: 12°

189
Q

Internal Weight Limits

A

Max: 5,500 lbs
Palletized Cargo: 4,733 lbs
Single Pallet: 3,000 lbs

190
Q

External Weight Limits

A

Cargo Hook: 6,000 lbs

Hoist: 600 lbs

191
Q

Flight into Icing conditions

A

No blade de-ice: Prohibited into forecast or known icing conditions
Operable Anti-Ice: Known moderate or severe prohibited (trace/light conditions okay)

192
Q

What is required for Passenger Transfer Overwater?

A

ADHEELS/IHEELS

193
Q

Backup Pump Limitations

A

33°-38° C: 24 minutes (72 minute cool down)

39°-60° C: 16 minutes (48 minute cool down)

194
Q

APU Operating Limits

A

Rotors not engaged: Continuously up to 51°C

Rotors Engaged: Continuously up to 43°C
43-60°C is limited to 30 minutes

195
Q

Nontactical/FAM Flights Crew Requirements

A

Two H2Ps or 1 HAC and a qualified observer

196
Q

FCF Crew Requirements

A

1 FCP and 2 qualified observers

197
Q

Orientation Flights Crew Requirements

A

One HAC, one qualified observer, one aircrewman

198
Q

Utility Mission (passenger transfer/cargo) Crew Requirements

A

One HAC, One PQM, One Utility Aircrewman

199
Q

SAR Mission Crew Requirements

A

One HAC, One PQM, One MH-60S Utility Aircrewman, and One H-60 Rescue swimmer

200
Q

Ferry Flight

A

One HAC, One PQM, one aircrewman or TFO

201
Q

How many swirl vanes are there?

202
Q

Abort start criteria

A
  1. Ng does not reach 14 psi within 6 seconds
  2. No oil pressure within 30 seconds
  3. No light-off within 30 seconds after moving PCL to IDLE
  4. ENG STARTER light disappears prior to 52% Ng
  5. TGT is likely to exceed 851 C
203
Q

Aircrewman responsibilities during an emergency

A
  1. Provide pilots with necessary verbal calls to continue safety of flight
  2. Complete applicable CMIs
  3. Utilize PCL to complete non-CMIs
  4. Backup pilots with PCL to max extent possible
  5. Assist PNAC with troubleshooting
204
Q

Primary purpose of the main transmission

A

Take power from the engines, reduce RPMs and transfer to the main rotors

205
Q

Secondary function of the main transmission

A

Drive for electrical and hydraulic power generation

206
Q

What does the main power train consist of?

A

Main transmission modules, tail rotor drive shafts, oil cooler, IGB, TGB

207
Q

How are the generators cooled?

A

Transmission oil

208
Q

Tair drive shaft sections, couplings, viscous dampers

A

6 sections, 5 Thomas couplings, 4 viscous dampers

209
Q

How many chip detectors in the transmission?

A

7 - Main module, each input, each accessory, IGB, TGB

210
Q

How many PDIs in the helicopter?

A

12
7 Hyds bay
2 each engine
MGB

211
Q

Can you remove chip detectors without loss of oil?

212
Q

What is fuzz burnoff?

A

Burn off false particles to prevent false indications and is deactivated when oil temperature reaches 140 C

213
Q

Nr Limitations

A

96% - 101% : Continuous
101% - 120%: Precautionary
120% Max

214
Q

Single engine TRQ Limitations

A

0-135 Continuous
135 - 144 (10 Sec)
144 Max

215
Q

Oil Pressure Limitations

A

30-65

45-60 for level, continuous flight

Utility (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions