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NASM A WEEK TILL EXAM! > NASM TEST Q'S > Flashcards

NASM TEST Q'S Flashcards

1
Q

Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause what?

A

Reciprocal inhibition of the TFL

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2
Q

What term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?

A

Gluconeogenesis

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3
Q

What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?

A

Autogenic inhibition

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4
Q

A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?

A

Motor learning

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5
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which vessel?

A

Pulmonary arteries

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6
Q

Around which axis does frontal plane motion occur?

A

anterior & posterior

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7
Q

Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?

A

Muscle spindle

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8
Q

What gland releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?

A

Pituitary gland

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9
Q

During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into which important molecule in metabolism?

A

Acetyl coenzyme A

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10
Q

What describes the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?

A

Relative flexibility

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11
Q

This is a voluntary muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

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12
Q

What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?

A

Gluteus maximus

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13
Q

Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?

A

Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

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14
Q

According to sliding filament theory, when does muscular contracting occur?

A

Actin and myosin filiments slide past each other, shortening the entire sarcomere

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15
Q

What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?

A

Mechanoreceptors

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16
Q

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of symptoms characterized by what conditions?

A

Obesity, insulin resistance, hypertension, dyslipidemia

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17
Q

A formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?

A

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

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18
Q

Body mass index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine what?

A

Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height

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19
Q

What concept is demonstrated when a tight psoas decreases the neural drive of the gluteus maximus?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

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20
Q

During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client’s knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

A

Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)

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21
Q

What method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?

A

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

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22
Q

The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying what?

A

An individual’s level of risk for cardiovascular disease

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23
Q

What is designed to assess dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control?

A

Overhead squat assessment

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24
Q

A system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate a variety of bodily functions and consists of host organs, chemical messengers, and target cells?

A

Endocrine system

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25
Q

What are the kinetic chain checkpoints for the OHS, when assessing from the lateral view

A 
Excessive forward lean
Low back arches
Arms fall fwd
Shoulder complex
Head protruding fwd
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26
Q

What term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary?

A

Balance

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27
Q

Which have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

a. Blood pressure and oxygen release
b. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
c. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
d. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

A

B. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

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28
Q

Which of the following micronutrients should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?

A

Calcium

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29
Q

If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which muscles should be foam rolled?

A

Adductor complex
Bicep Femoris
Tensor fascia latae
Vastus lateralis

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30
Q

How should a client prepare for the upper extremity strength assessment?

A

Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance

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31
Q

What pulse is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?

A

Radial pulse

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32
Q

What pulse is recorded on the side of the neck?

A

Carotid pulse

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33
Q

What assessment provides an estimation of a client’s cardiorespiratory fitness level?

A

YMCA step test

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34
Q

During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?

A

Ball cobra

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35
Q

A personal trainer observes a client’s knees moving inward while performing the OHS. What muscles are probably underactive?

A

Gluteus maximus
Gluteus medius
Vastus medialis oblique (Vmo)

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36
Q

What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?

A

They decrease the heart rate.

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37
Q

During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. What muscles is likely to be shortened?

A

Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Hip flexor complex
Abdominal complex

38
Q

When assessing a client’s overhead squat, what is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

A

External rotation of the feet

39
Q

Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which system?

A

Central nervous system

40
Q

What is the hip joint inferior to?

A

The shoulders

41
Q

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. What muscle groups are most likely tight?

A

Quadriceps

42
Q

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?

A

Estimated oxygen consumption

43
Q

The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client’s awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating ..?

A

Controlled instability

44
Q

In addition to SMR, which flexibility technique is used for corrective flexibility?

A

Static stretch

45
Q

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?

A

Lat pull down

46
Q

High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?

A

metabolic rate

47
Q

In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, how is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed?

A

Slow repetitive tempo

48
Q

Low-volume training with high intensity increases which of the following?

A

Rate of force production

49
Q

Romanian deadlifts, pull-ups, and hammer curls are what type of exercises?

A

Strength

50
Q

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?

A

Core-power

51
Q

What is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?

A

Never spot under the weight stack

52
Q

What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?

A

Posterior hip

53
Q

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

A

Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

54
Q

Dynamic stretching uses what concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

55
Q

In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client’s thoughts and attitudes?

A

cognitive strategies

56
Q

What is the product a personal trainer must ultimately deliver to a client?

A

The result that is trying to be achieved

57
Q

How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?

A

4 yrs

58
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of?1

A

30 reps

59
Q

Holding a static stretch for 30 seconds will cause what neuromuscular phenomena ?

A

Autogenic inhibition

60
Q

How does metabolism behave during EPOC?

A

Remains elevated

61
Q

What micronutrients distribution range is 45-65% total calorie intake?

A

Carbohydrates

62
Q

Smr by foam rolling creates autogenic inhibition by what?

A

Stimulating the GTO

63
Q

What term refers to movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position when the joint is in an anteriorly flexed position?

A

Horizontal adduction

64
Q

What scenario would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?

A

When an athlete beings an activity

65
Q

What physiological characteristic should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client?

A

Decreased lean body mass

66
Q

Where is the sternum in relation to the shoulder?

A

Medial

67
Q

Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which secondary respiratory muscle ?

A

Scalenes

68
Q

A client taking beta blockers for hypertension should avoid what type of workout position?

A

Avoid prone positions

69
Q

How to correctly assess a first time client?

A

Perform cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire

70
Q

Am obese client who had been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

A

Strive for 20-30 minutes of continues aerboic daily

71
Q

Appropriate percentage to increase by set when performing the upper extremity assessment?

A

5-10%

72
Q

How many exercises per body part should a first time client perform in resistance training?

A

1-2

73
Q

Decreasing resting heart rate is a benefit of what type of training?

A

Cardiorespiratory training

74
Q

What training type uses entire action/contraction-velocity spectrum?

A

Plyometric power training

75
Q

To properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which muscle during knee extension?

A

Quadriceps

76
Q

During sprinting, backside mechanics are:

A

Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

77
Q

What body position should you be in when performing the static latissimus dorsi stretch?

A

Posteriorly rotated pelvis

78
Q

What position should the ankles, knees, and hip be during the takeoff position of a squat jump?

A

Flexion

79
Q

An individual has a membership and visits sporadically, but not frequently enough to maintain well rounded exercise program. What state of change is this client in?

A

Preparation

80
Q

A father decides that there is too much injury risk for his overweight son to partake in personal training. What type of what

A

Behavioral reactants

81
Q

What are the two type of fitness goals??

A

Process and product

82
Q

What type of support is expressed through encouragement, caring empathy and concern ?

A

Emotional support

83
Q

What type of support is tangible and practical to help a person adhere to exercise?

A

Instrumental support

84
Q

Whats the cognitive strategy to help change a clients thoughts or attitude towards exercise?

A

Imagery

85
Q

What is a side effect of caffeine?

A

Increase in urine production

86
Q

A precursor to hormone production is called what?

A

Lipids and their functions

87
Q

Decrease in thyroid hormones decrease what?

A

Resting metabolic rate

88
Q

What will help decrease resting heart rare ?

A

Cardiorespiratory training

89
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which exercise ?

A

Standing cable chest press

90
Q

What along side dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility??

A

Reciprocal inhibution

91
Q

What are influences that involve cohesion in an exercise setting?

A

Exercise group

NASM A WEEK TILL EXAM! (7 decks)

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