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AICP - Meaghan 2020 > NASM - Practice Exam > Flashcards

NASM - Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?

Select one:

a. 75 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 150 minutes

A

150 minutes

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2
Q

Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?

Select one:

a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus

A

Glut Max

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3
Q

When performing a _____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.

Select one:

a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press

A

standing triceps extension

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4
Q

What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?

Select one:

a. A high protein diet is typically associated with higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease.
b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat.
c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.

A

A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.

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5
Q 
To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn:
Select one:
a. 1 CEU within 2 years.
b. 2 CEUs within 2 years. 
c. 3 CEUs within 3 years.
d. 3 CEUs within 4 years.
A

2 CEUs within 2 years.

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6
Q 
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?
Select one:
a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Medical physician
c. Nutritionist 
d. Performance Enhancement Specialist
A

Medical physician

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7
Q 
Which of the following information is considered objective?
Select one:
a. Occupation
b. Lifestyle behavior
c. Recreational activity
d. Movement assessment
A

Movement Assessment

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8
Q

Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
Select one:
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.

A

Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.

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9
Q 
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
Select one:
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae
A

Anterior deltoid

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10
Q 
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
Select one:
a. Rhomboids
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Upper trapezius 
d. Erector spinae
A

Upper trapezius

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11
Q 
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
Select one:
a. Activate the EMS system.
b. Check the scene for hazards. 
c. Open the airway.
d. Check for circulation.
A

Check the scene for hazards.

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12
Q

Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
c. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise.
d. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given. time

A

Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.

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13
Q 
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. Increase in waste excretion
b. Loss of body fat 
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Loss of water
A

Loss of water

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14
Q 
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
Select one:
a. 56% to 65%
b. 66% to 75%
c. 76% to 85% 
d. 86% to 95%
A

76% to 85%

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15
Q 
A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?
Select one:
a. Multiple set system
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system 
d. Circuit training system
A

Circuit Training System

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16
Q

Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive

A

12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive

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17
Q 
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
Select one:
a. Mechanical
b. Balance 
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular
A

Neuromuscular

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18
Q 
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
Select one:
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19
A

12 to 13

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19
Q

Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
Select one:
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.

A

Seeking a client’s perspective.

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20
Q 
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test 
b. Davies test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Overhead squat assessment
A

Shark skill test

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21
Q 
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Resistance development 
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization
A

Resistance development

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22
Q 
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve
A

Heart rate response

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23
Q 
A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Mid and lower trapezius
A

Mid and lower trapezius

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24
Q

Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown

A

Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization

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25
Q 
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
Select one:
a. power.
b. speed.
c. quickness.
d. agility.
A

quickness.

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26
Q 
Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin–Womersley formula?
Select one:
a. Calf
b. Mid-axillary line
c. Subscapular 
d. Thigh
A

Subscapular

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27
Q 
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
Select one:
a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
A

it allows lengthening of the muscle.

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28
Q

Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.
c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.
d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.

A

The result of two Z lines moving closer together.

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29
Q 
When manually monitoring a client's pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client's heart rate?
Select one:
a. 85
b. 104
c. 117
d. 170
A

170

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30
Q 
Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen?
Select one:
a. Baked potato
b. Oatmeal cookie
c. Avocado
d. Spinach
A

Baked Potato

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31
Q

When a client practices self-myofascial release, which of the following physiological changes is the goal?
Select one:
a. An increase in joint receptor activity results in an inhibition of muscles around a joint.
b. A decrease in neurotransmitter activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
c. A decrease in muscle spindle activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.

A

An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.

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32
Q 
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
Select one:
a. Powerful movements 
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load
A

Increasing load

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33
Q 
If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor longus 
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis
A

Adductor longus

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34
Q 
When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement?
Select one:
a. Femoral artery
b. Subclavian artery
c. Radial artery
d. Brachial artery
A

Radial artery

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35
Q 
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
Select one:
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces 
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces
A

16 to 24 ounces

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36
Q 
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:
Select one:
a. reflections.
b. affirmations. 
c. compliments.
d. judgments.
A

reflections.

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37
Q 
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
Select one:
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
A

Functional

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38
Q

Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set.
b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise.
c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.

A

It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.

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39
Q 
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
Select one:
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl 
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
A

standing cable row

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40
Q 
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
Select one:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition. 
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.
A

reciprocal inhibition.

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41
Q

A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-minute step test. This is achieved by:
Select one:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220.
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220.
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate.
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%.

A

subtracting the client’s age from 220.

42
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance 
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
A

Multiplanar dumbbell step-up

43
Q 
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:
Select one:
a. six months.
b. twelve months. 
c. two years.
d. four years.
A

four years.

44
Q 
Which of the following is a category of subjective information?
Select one:
a. Body composition
b. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c. Medical background 
d. Performance assessment
A

Medical background

45
Q

Which of the following statements indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. “I want to lose weight and trim down.”
b. “I want to build muscle and bulk up.”
c. “I want the ability to climb the stairs without getting winded.”
d. “I want to run a 5k in 45 days.”

A

“I want to run a 5k in 45 days.”

46
Q 
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
Select one:
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate 
c. Cardiac output
d. Expiration
A

Cardiac output

47
Q 
All of the following make up the five kinetic chain checkpoints EXCEPT the
Select one:
a. foot-ankle complex.
b. lumbo-pelvic hip complex.
c. shoulder complex.
d. hand-wrist complex.
A

hand-wrist complex.

48
Q 
Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
Select one:
a. EPOC
b. ATP-PC 
c. Oxidative
d. Glycolysis
A

ATP-PC

49
Q 
Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
A

Synergistic dominance

50
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.

A

Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.

51
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise?
Select one:
a. RER
b. EPOC 
c. HRR
d. RPE
A

EPOC (Excess postexercise oxygen consumption)

52
Q 
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop 
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
A

Single-leg squat touchdown

53
Q

Which of the following movement dysfunctions will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?
Select one:
a. Over-pronation of the foot
b. Neutrality of the umbo-pelvic-hip complex
c. Patella tracking parallel with the foot
d. Neutrality of the scapulae

A

Over-pronation of the foot

54
Q 
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboids 
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Upper trapezius
A

Rhomboids

55
Q

The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets

A

Strength exercises with stabilization supersets

56
Q 
Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrate 
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Water
A

Carb

57
Q

Which of the following is an example of an appropriate spotting technique?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client’s elbows when performing a barbell exercise.
b. The spotter should grab the handles on a machine-based exercise.
c. When spotting a barbell squat, the spotter should stand in front of the client.
d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.

A

The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.

58
Q 
Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training?
Select one:
a. Increased lean body mass
b. Enhanced control of posture 
c. Improved peak force
d. Improved prime mover strength
A

Enhanced control of posture

59
Q 
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Select one:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestines 
d. Esophagus
A

Stomach

60
Q 
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
Select one:
a. Kneeling hip flexor
b. Standing calf 
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps
A

Standing calf

61
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
Select one:
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

A

60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate

62
Q 
Which of the following should a trainer determine during the first step in the Ten Steps to Success?
Select one:
a. Weekly session needs
b. Desired annual income 
c. Number of clients needed
d. Closing percentage
A

Desired annual income

63
Q

Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride

A

Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc

64
Q

A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression?
Select one:
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball.
c. Perform a back extension.
d. Perform a stability ball crunch.

A

Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.

65
Q 
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad 
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
A

Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

66
Q 
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
Select one:
a. Knee over second toe 
b. Adduction of the hip
c. Pronation of the foot
d. Internal rotation of the hip
A

Knee over second toe

67
Q 
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
Select one:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity.
A

Specificity.

68
Q 
Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:
Select one:
a. objective information.
b. subjective information. 
c. movement assessment.
d. fitness assessment.
A

subjective information.

69
Q 
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
Select one:
a. Bicep femoris 
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominus
d. Latissimus dorsi
A

Latissimus dorsi

70
Q

Davis’s law states which of the following?
Select one:
a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist.
d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.

A

Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.

71
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester. Correct
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.

A

Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.

72
Q 
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity?
Select one:
a. High
b. Low 
c. Maximal
d. Moderate
A

Low

73
Q 
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
Select one:
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium
A

Endomysium

74
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.

A

Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.

75
Q 
A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders?
Select one:
a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Restrictive lung disease
c. Peripheral edema condition
d. Coronary heart disease
A

Metabolic syndrome

76
Q 
"From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?” This statement is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Nondirective question
b. Close-ended question
c. Invitational question 
d. Probing question
A

Close-ended question

77
Q 
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
Select one:
a. Attainable 
b. Realistic
c. Specific
d. Timely
A

Attainable

78
Q 
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4 
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
A

2 to 4

79
Q 
Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on:
Select one:
a. price.
b. knowledge. 
c. pressure.
d. emotion.
A

emotion.

80
Q 
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
Select one:
a. Flexion
b. Abduction 
c. Extension
d. External rotation
A

Abduction

81
Q 
Which of the following is part of the marketing mix?
Select one:
a. Prominence
b. Public
c. Place 
d. Professionalism
A

Place

82
Q

Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.

A

Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.

83
Q 
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
Select one:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
A

20 seconds

84
Q 
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented?
Select one:
a. Periodization 
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Vertical loading
A

Periodization

85
Q 
To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of:
Select one:
a. plantarflexion.
b. eversion.
c. dorsiflexion.
d. inversion.
A

dorsiflexion.

86
Q 
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
Select one:
a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds 
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds
A

3 to 5 seconds

87
Q 
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
Select one:
a. Latissimus dorsi 
b. Posterior deltoid
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
A

Latissimus dorsi

88
Q 
Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
Select one:
a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes
d. 3 to 5 minutes
A

3 to 5 minutes

89
Q 
Which of the following muscles is part of the core local stabilization system?
Select one:
a. Transverse abdominis
b. External oblique
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectineus
A

Transverse abdominis

90
Q 
Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?
Select one:
a. Psoas minor
b. Rectus femoris
c. Erector Spinae
d. Transverse abdominis
A

Transverse abdominis

91
Q 
Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client?
Select one:
a. Ball Crunch
b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw
c. Reverse Crunch
d. Prone Iso-ab
A

Prone Iso-ab

92
Q 
Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation
A

Preparation

93
Q

In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
Select one:
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes.
c. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension.
d. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy.

A

When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.

94
Q

It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Massage a client.
b. Apply ultrasound to a client.
c. Design a nutrition plan for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.

A

Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.

95
Q 
Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?
Select one:
a. 80 mm Hg
b. 95 mm Hg
c. 120 mm Hg 
d. 135 mm Hg
A

120 mm Hg

96
Q 
A high-protein diet consisting of more than 35% of total caloric intake from protein can potentially lead to which of the following adverse health effects?
Select one:
a. Increased resting heart rate
b. Additional stress on the kidneys
c. Excess belly fat 
d. Decreased ATP production
A

Additional stress on the kidneys

97
Q 
After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training?
Select one:
a. 86% to 95% of HR max
b. 76% to 85% of HR max 
c. 65% to 75% of HR max
d. 55% to 60% of HR max
A

76% to 85% of HR max

98
Q 
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
Select one:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet. 
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.
A

external rotation of the feet.

99
Q 
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
Select one:
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch 
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
A

Adductor static stretch

100
Q 
Dehydration affects the body by increasing:
Select one:
a. blood volume. 
b. performance.
c. heart rate.
d. sweat rate.
A

heart rate.

AICP - Meaghan 2020 (6 decks)

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