NASM Flashcards

1
Q

Muscle imbalance

A

Alteration of a muscle length surrounding a joint.

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2
Q

Obesity

A

The condition of being considerably overweight, referring to a person with a body mass index of 30 or
greater, or who is at least 30 pounds over the recommended weight for their height.

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3
Q

Overweight

A

A person with a body mass index of 25 to 29.9, or who is 25 to 30 pounds over the recommended
weight for their height.

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4
Q

Blood lipids

A

Cholesterol and triglycerides, carried in the bloodstream by protein molecules known as high-density
lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL).

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5
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

Chronic metabolic disorder caused by insulin deficiency which impairs carbohydrate usage and
enhances usage of fats and proteins.

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6
Q

Deconditioned

A

A state of lost physical fitness which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.

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7
Q

Proprioception

A

The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement.

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8
Q

Proprioceptively enriched environment

A
An unstable (yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are
performed that cause the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.
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9
Q

Muscular endurance

A

A muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period of time.

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10
Q

Neuromuscular efficiency

A

The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work
together in all planes of motion.

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11
Q

Prime mover

A

The muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power

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12
Q

Superset

A

Set of two exercises that are performed back to back without any rest time between them.

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13
Q

Rate of force production

A

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time

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14
Q

Three main systems of human movement system

A

nervous, skeletal, muscular

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15
Q

Kinetic

A

Motion

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16
Q

The nervous system

A
A conglomeration of
billions of cells specifically
designed to provide a
communication network
within the human body.
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17
Q

Sensory function

A

The ability of the nervous
system to sense changes
in either the internal or
external environment.

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18
Q

Integrative function

A
The ability of the nervous
system to analyze
and interpret sensory
information to allow for
proper decision making,
which produces the
appropriate response.
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19
Q

Motor function

A

The neuromuscular
response to the sensory
information.

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20
Q

Neuron

A

The functional unit of the
nervous system.

Specialized cell that processes and transmits information
through both electrical and chemical signals.

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21
Q

Sensory (afferent) neurons

A

Respond to touch, sound, light and other stimuli and transmit nerve impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal
cord.

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22
Q

Interneurons

A

Transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another.

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23
Q

Motor (efferent) neurons

A

Transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites such as muscles or glands.

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24
Q

Efferent

A

conducted or conducting outward or away from something (for nerves, the central nervous system; for blood vessels, the organ supplied).

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25
Q

Afferent

A

conducting or conducted inward or toward something (for nerves, the central nervous system; for blood vessels, the organ supplied).

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26
Q

Three main functions of nervous system

A

Sensory, Integrative, Motor functions

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27
Q

Central Nervous System

A

consists of the brain and the spinal cord, and its primary function is to
coordinate the activity of all parts of the body

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28
Q

Peripheral nervous system?

How many nerves of each?

A
  • consists of nerves that connect the CNS
    to the rest of the body and the external environment.
  • nerves of the PNS are how the CNS receives sensory input and initiates responses.
  • consists of 12 cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves (which branch out from the brain
    and spinal cord), and sensory receptors
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29
Q

Two main functions of PNS?

A

1 - Motor function (connection for nervous system to activate different effector sites, such as muscles)
2 - Sensory function (peripheral nerves relay info from effector sites back to brain via sensory receptors)

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30
Q

Types of peripheral nervous system?

A

Somatic (voluntary systems of the body) and automatic (involuntary systems)

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31
Q

Types of Automatic nervous sytems?

A

sympathetic (increase activation to prep for activity)

parasympathetic (decrease activation during rest and recovery)

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32
Q

Endocrine glands

A

ductless glands of the endocrine system that secrete hormones, directly into the blood.

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33
Q

Sensory receptors

A

convert environmental stimuli (heat, light, sound, taste, motion) into sensory info the brain and spinal cord use to respond.

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34
Q

4 types of sensory receptors

A

mechanoreceptors, nociceptors, chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors

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35
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

respond to outside forces such as touch, pressure, stretching, sound waves,
and motion, and transmit impulses through sensory nerves, which enable us
to detect touch, sounds, and the motion of the body and to monitor the position of our muscles, bones, and joints (proprioception)

most important for personal training.

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36
Q

nociceptors

A

respond to pain receptors

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37
Q

chemoreceptors

A

respond to chemical interaction like smell and taste

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38
Q

photoreceptors

A

respond to light - vision

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39
Q

Where are mechanoreceptors located?

A

muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules and include muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors

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40
Q

Muscle spindles

A

Receptors sensitive to
change in length of the
muscle and the rate of
that change.

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41
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.

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42
Q

Joint receptors

A
Receptors surrounding
a joint that respond to
pressure, acceleration,
and deceleration of the
joint.
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43
Q

Kinetic Chain consist of what three systems?

A

human movement requiring the nervous, skeletal and muscular systems.

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44
Q

Skeletal System

A

The body’s framework, composed of bones and joints.

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45
Q

Bones

A
Provide a resting
ground for muscles and
protection of vital organs. 
& form junctions that are connected by muscles
and connective tissue
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46
Q

Joints

A
Junctions of
bones, muscles, and
connective tissue at which
movement occurs. Also
known as an articulation.
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47
Q

Articulation

A

Joints

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48
Q

Remodeling

A

The process of resorption and formation of bone.

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49
Q

Osteoclasts

A

A type of bone cell that removes bone tissue.

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50
Q

Osteoblasts

A

A type of cell that is responsible for bone formation.

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51
Q

Types of bones

A

long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoid

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52
Q

Periosteum

A
A dense membrane composed of fibrous connective tissue that closely wraps
(invests) all bone, except
that of the articulating
surfaces in joints, which
are covered by a synovial
membrane.
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53
Q

Medullar cavity

A

The central cavity of bone
shafts where marrow is
stored.

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54
Q

Articular (hyaline)

cartilage

A

Cartilage that
covers the articular
surfaces of bones.

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55
Q

Epiphysis

A
The end of
long bones, which is
mainly composed of
cancellous bone, and
house much of the red
marrow involved in red
blood cell production.
They are also one of the
primary sites for bone
growth.
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56
Q

Diaphysis

A

The shaft portion of a long bone.

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57
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A
The region of long bone
connecting the diaphysis
to the epiphysis. It is
a layer of subdividing
cartilaginous cells in
which growth in length of
the diaphysis occurs.
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58
Q

Long Bone sections

A

Epiphysis, Diaphysis

& Epiphyseal plate, Periosteum, Medullar cavity, Articular (hyaline) cartilage

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59
Q

Depressions

A

Flattened
or indented portions
of bone, which can be
muscle attachment sites.

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60
Q

Processes

A

Projections
protruding from the bone
where muscles, tendons,
and ligaments can attach.

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61
Q

Short Bones. Consist of? Examples?

A

They consist predominantly of spongy bone tissue to maximize shock absorption. Ex: the carpals of the hands and tarsals of the feet fit this category.

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62
Q

Flat Bones. Consist of? Examples?

A

Thin bones comprising two layers of compact bone tissue surrounding a layer of spongy bone tissue. Ex: sternum, scapulae, ribs, ilium, and cranial bones

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63
Q

Irregular Bones. Consist of? Examples?

A

Unique shape and function. Ex: the vertebrae, pelvic

bones, and certain facial bones.

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64
Q

Sesamoid Bones. Consist of? Examples?

A

Small bones embedded in a joint capsule or found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint. Ex: Patella

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65
Q

Tendon

A

Tissue that connects muscle to bone

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66
Q

Two types of bone markings

A

Depressions and Processes

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67
Q

Fossa, Supraspinous or infraspinous is an example of what?

A

Bone depression

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68
Q

Sulcus is an example of what? does what?

A

Bone depression. Groove that allows soft tissue (tendons) to pass through

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69
Q

Five common bone processes?

A

process, condyle, epicondyle, tubercle, and trochanter

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70
Q

Spinous processes found on the vertebrae and the acromion and coracoid processes found on the scapulae is an example of what?

A

Bone process

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71
Q

What type of bone process is located on the inner and outer portions at the bottom of the femur (thigh bone) and top of the tibia (shin bone) to form the knee joint?

A

Condyles

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72
Q

What type of bone process is located at the top of the humerus at the glenohumeral (shoulder)
joint?

A

Tubercles

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73
Q

What type of bones process is located at the top of the femur and are attachment sites for the hip musculature?

A

Trochanters

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74
Q

What type of bone process is located on the inner and outer portions of the humerus to help form
the elbow joint?

A

Epicondyles

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75
Q

posterior cervical curvature

A

posterior concavity of the cervical spine

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76
Q

anterior thoracic curvature

A

posterior convexity of the thoracic spine

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77
Q

posterior lumbar curvature

A

posterior concavity of the lumbar spine

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78
Q

Vertebral Column, top to bottom?

A
Cervical Spine (C1-C7)
Thoracic Spine (T1-T12)
Lumbar Spine (L1-L5)
Sacrum 
Coccyx
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79
Q

Arthrokinematics

A

Joint motion

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80
Q

Three major motion types of arthrokinematics?

A

roll, slide, spin

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81
Q

pronation

A

Inward

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82
Q

supination

A

Outward

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83
Q

Synovial joints

A

Joints that are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are
most associated with
movement in the body.

They have: synovial capsule (collagenous structure), synovial membrane (inner layer of the capsule) and hyaline cartilage with pads the ends of articulating bones.

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84
Q

Gliding (plane),

condyloid (condylar or ellipsoidal), hinge, saddle, pivot, and ball-and-socket joints are types of what joints?

A

Synovial Joints

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85
Q

Gliding (plane) joint? & Examples?

A

No axis of rotation; moves by sliding side-to-side or back and forth

Ex: carpals of the hand and in the facet (spine) joints

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86
Q

Condyloid (condylar or ellipsoidal) joints? & Examples?

A

Formed by the fitting of condyles of one bone into elliptical cavities of another; moves predominantly in one plane

Ex: Knee

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87
Q

Hinge Joint? Examples?

A

Uniaxial; moves predominantly in one plane of motion (sagittal)

Ex: elbow

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88
Q

Saddle Joint? Example?

A

One bone fits like a saddle on another bone; moves
predominantly in two planes (sagittal, joint of thumb frontal)

Only found in carpometacarpal joint in thumb.

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89
Q

Pivot Joint? Examples?

A

Only one axis; moves predominantly in one plane of motion (transverse)

Ex: radioulnar joint at the
elbow

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90
Q

Ball-and-socket joint? Examples?

A

Ball-and-socket joints allow movement in all three planes.

Ex: shoulder and hip

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91
Q

Synovial Joint? Examples?

A

Produces synovial fluid, has a joint cavity and fibrous
connective tissue.

Ex: Knee

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92
Q

Nonsynovial Joint? Examples?

A

No joint cavity and fibrous connective tissue; little or no movement

Ex: Sutures of the skull

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93
Q

Ligament? made up of?

A

Primary connective tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance, and the limitation of improper joint movement.

Made up of collagen & elastin

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94
Q

Two divisions of skeletal system?

A

axial and appendicular

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95
Q

Axial Skeleton

A

Bones located across central axis of body

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96
Q

Appendicular Skeleton

A

Bones mainly composed of limbs

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97
Q

Cortical Bones

A

Compact bone, dense outer layer

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98
Q

Cancellous Bones

A

Spongy bone, located beneath compact cortical bone

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99
Q

Muscular System

A

Series of muscles that moves the skeleton.

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100
Q

Muscle

A

Multiple bundles of muscle fibers held together by connective tissue.

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101
Q

Epimysium

A

A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle.

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102
Q

Perimysium

A

The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles.

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103
Q

Endomysium

A

The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers.

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104
Q

Fascia

A

Muscle’s outer layer of connective tissue

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105
Q

Fascicles

A

Made up of many individual muscle fibers wrapped by connective tissue (endomysium).

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106
Q

Neural Activation

A

Communication link btw nervous system and muscular system.

The contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation.

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107
Q

Motor Unit

A

A motor neuron and all of the muscle fiber it innervates.

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108
Q

Synapse

A

Neuromuscular junction, aka gap btw nerve and muscle fiber.

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109
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemical messengers that cross the synapse to transmit electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle.

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110
Q

Type 1 muscle fiber

A

Slow-twitch. Red Fibers.
For stabilization, long-term contractions.

Contain a large number of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin.

Increased oxygen delivery.

Smaller in diameter.

Slower to produce maximal tension and more resistant to fatigue.

Less force produced.

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111
Q

Type 2 muscle fiber

A

Fast-twitch. White fibers.

For force and power, short-term contractions.

Fewer capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin.

Decreased oxygen delivery

Larger in size

Quick to fatigue

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112
Q

Myoglobin.

A

A red protein that allows for improved delivery of oxygen.

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113
Q

Myoglobin

A

A protein in red blood cells that store and carry oxygen in muscle cells.

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114
Q

Hemoglobin

A

A protein in red blood cells that carry oxygen.

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115
Q

Capillaries

A

branching blood vessels that form a network between the arterioles and venules.

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116
Q

Type 2x muscle fibers

A

muscle fibers that have a low oxidative capacity (ability to use oxygen)

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117
Q

Type 2a muscle fibers

A

Intermediate fast-twitch fibers. higher oxidative capacity and fatigue more slowly than 2x. Can use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism to create energy.

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118
Q

Types of muscles (per function)

A

agonist, synergist, stabilizer, antagonist

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119
Q

Agonist muscles

A

act as prime movers

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120
Q

Synergist muscles

A

assist primer movers during movement

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121
Q

Stabilizer muscles

A

support or stabilize the body

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122
Q

Antagonist muscles

A

opposite action of the prime mover

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123
Q

Sarcomeres

A

a structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle

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124
Q

Myofibril

A

Muscle fibral / fiber

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125
Q

Steps in Sliding Filament Theory

A
  1. Sarcomere shortens (bc Z lines move together)
  2. Z line converges as result of myosin heads attaching to the actin filament and asynchronously pulling (power stroke) the actin filament across the myosin, resulting in shortening of the muscle fiber.
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126
Q

motor unit

A

one motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

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127
Q

innervate

A

supply with nerves

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128
Q

Endocrine System

A

system of glands that secrete hormones into blood stream to regulate bodily functions.

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129
Q

What bodily functions does the endocrine system regulate?

A

control of mood, growth and development, tissue function and metabolism.

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130
Q

endocrine

A

“hormone secreting”

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131
Q

Hormones produced by endocrine system will affect what human functions?

A

triggering muscle contraction

stimulating protein and fat synthesis

activating enzyme systems

regulating growth and metabolism

how body responds to stress physically and emotionally

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132
Q

Primary Endocrine Glands?

A

Pituitary, Hypothalamus, Adrenal, Thyroid

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133
Q

Pituitary Gland

A

‘Master’ Gland of Endocrine system. Controls the functions of the other endocrine glands.

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134
Q

Three different lobes of the pituitary gland

A

Anterior, intermediate and posterior

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135
Q

Pancreas produces what two hormones?

A

Insulin and glucagon

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136
Q

What does insulin do?

A

regulate energy and glucose metabolism

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137
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

raises blood glucose levels by triggering the release of glycogen stores from the liver back into the bloodstream

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138
Q

Glycogen

A

stored form of glucose

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139
Q

Increased activity levels cause insulin to what? and glucagon to what?

A

insulin levels drop and glucose increase

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140
Q

Where are the adrenal glands?

A

top of each kidney

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141
Q

What are the two catecholamines?

A

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine

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142
Q

What do catecholamine hormones do?

A

Hormones that prepare the body for activity, specifically the fight or flight response. The brain triggers adrenal glands to secrete more epinephrine.

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143
Q

What happens when epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal glands?

A

increase heart rate and stroke volume, elevate blood glucose levels, redistributes blood to working tissues, opens up the airways,

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144
Q

Testosterone plays a fundamental role in what?

A

growth and repair of tissue

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145
Q

Where is testosterone located?

A

males: testes
females: ovaries and adrenal glands

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146
Q

Cortisol

A

catabolic hormone (assoc. with tissue breakdown)

serves to maintain energy supply thru breakdown of carbs, fats and proteins.

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147
Q

High levels of cortisol can lead to?

A

significant breakdown of muscle tissue

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148
Q

What can cause high levels of cortisol?

A

overtraining, excessive stress, poor sleep, inadequate nutrition

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149
Q

Growth hormone. Released from? Responsible for?

A

Released from pituitary gland and regulated by hypothalamus.

Anabolic hormone that is responsible for most of the growth and development during childhood up until puberty

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150
Q

Where is the thyroid gland located?

A

base of the neck just below the thyroid cartilage,

sometimes called the Adam’s apple

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151
Q

Thyroid hormone. Released from? Responsible for?

A

Released from pituitary gland.

Main: Metabolism
Also: carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism, basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, sensitivity
to epinephrine, heart rate, breathing rate, and body temperature

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152
Q

Low thyroid function leads to?

A

low metabolism, fatigue, depression, sensitivity to cold, and weight gain.

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153
Q

What are the adrenal glands?

A

suprarenal glands. are endocrine glands that produce a variety of hormones including adrenaline and the steroids aldosterone and cortisol.

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154
Q

Anabolism

A

building up of metabolism

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155
Q

Cardio-respiratory system

A

a system of the body composed of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.

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156
Q

Cardiovascular system

A

a system of the body composed of the heart, blood and blood vessels.

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157
Q

Heart

A

a hollow muscular organ made up of involuntary cardiac muscle that pumps a circulation of blood through the body by means of rhythmic contraction.

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158
Q

Mediastinum

A

the space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs, including the heart, of the chest except the lungs.

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159
Q

Where is the heart located?

A

in the center of the chest (or thoracic cavity), area know as mediastinum

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160
Q

Size and weight of heart?

A

human fist and 300g or 10 ounces.

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161
Q

Types of muscles

A

smooth, cardiac and skeletal

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162
Q

What type of muscles have intercalated discs? from the three main types

A

Cardiac muscles

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163
Q

Typical resting heart rate?

A

70-80 beats per minute

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164
Q

The heart has it’s own built-in conduction system that does what?

A

sends electrical signal rapidly throughout all the cardiac cells.

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165
Q

What do intercalated discs do?

A

hold muscle cells together during contraction and create an electrical connection btw cells that allows the heart to contact as one functional units .

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166
Q

Sinoatrial (SA) node

A

‘Pacemaker for the heart’ A specialized area of cardiac tissue, located in the right atrium of the heart, which initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate.

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167
Q

Atrioventricular (AV) node

A

A small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, in the wall of right atrium of heart, that receives heartbeat impulses from the sinoatrial node and directs them to the walls of the ventricles.

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168
Q

Ventricle

A

the inferior chamber of the heart that receives blood from its corresponding atrium and forces blood into the arteries.

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169
Q

Atrium

A

the superior chamber of the heart that receives blood from the veins and forces it into the ventricles.

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170
Q

BMI

A

weight / (height X height) X 703

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171
Q

Which side of the heart carries oxygenated blood?

A

The left

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172
Q

The left side is known as the _____ side, pumps blood high in O2 and low is CO2.

A

systemic

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173
Q

The left atrium does what?

A

gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs.

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174
Q

The right atrium does what?

A

gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the entire body.

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175
Q

What does the right ventricle do?

A

receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to lungs to be saturated with incoming oxygen

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176
Q

What does the left ventricle do?

A

receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the entire body

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177
Q

types of chamber valves?

A
atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral valves)
and the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves)
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178
Q

stroke volume (SV)

A

the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction.

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179
Q

End-systolic volume (ESV)

A

residual volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after ejection.

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180
Q

End-diastolic volume (EDV)

A

the filled volume of the ventricle before contraction

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181
Q

Typical Stroke volume (SV)

A

the difference btw EDV (typically 120) and ESV (typically 50) = 70mL blood

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182
Q

Heart rate (HR)

A

the rate at which the heart pumps

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183
Q

Cardiac output (Q)

A

Heart rate x stroke volume, the overall performance of the heart

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184
Q

Average resting heart rate for an untrained adult

A

70 - 80 beats per minute (bpm)

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185
Q

Blood

A

fluid that circulates in the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins, carries nutrients and oxygen to all parts of the body and rids body of waste products.

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186
Q

Three functions of blood?

A

transportation, regulation and protection

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187
Q

Three kinds of cells in blood?

A

red, white and platelets

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188
Q

Percentage makeup of blood?

A

55% plasma and 45% red, white blood cells and platelets.

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189
Q

What do the red and white blood cells do?

A

Red blood cells carry oxygen from lungs thruout body and white blood cells help fight infection.

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190
Q

What do platelets do?

A

help with clotting

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191
Q

average adult has how much blood?

A

4 - 6L in body

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192
Q

Blood transportation includes what functions?

A
  • oxygen and nutrients to tissues
  • waste products from tissues
  • hormones to organs and tissues
  • heat throughout body
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193
Q

Blood regulation includes what function?

A

body temperature and acid balance in body

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194
Q

Blood protection includes what function?

A
  • body form excessive bleeding by clotting

- contains specialized immune cells to help fight disease and sickness

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195
Q

Blood vessels

A

network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout body

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196
Q

Arteries

A

vessels that transport blood away from the heart

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197
Q

Capillaries

A

smallest blood vessels. exchange chemicals and water btw blood and tissues.

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198
Q

three types of blood vessels?

A

arteries, capillaries, veins

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199
Q

veins

A

vessels that transport blood from capillaries toward heart

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200
Q

Arterioles

A

small terminal branches of an artery which end in capillaries

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201
Q

Venules

A

very small veins that connect capillaries to larger veins

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202
Q

What neurotransmitter is used by the neuromuscular system to initiate muscle contraction?

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

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203
Q

The heart is divided into what?

A

Four chambers: two atria (gather blood from body) & two ventricles (which pump blood out to the body)

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204
Q

Respiratory system

A

A system of organs (the lungs and respiratory passageways) that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream.

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205
Q

Respiratory system is also know as?

A

Pulmonary system

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206
Q

Primary role of the respiratory system?

A

to ensure proper cellular function

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207
Q

Respiratory pump

A

composed of structures (bones) and soft tissues (muscles) that work together to allow proper respiratory mechanics and to pump blood back to heart during inspiration

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208
Q

Inspiration

A

actively contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.

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209
Q

Expiration

A

actively or passively relaxing the inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body.

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210
Q

Inhalation

A

Inspiration

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211
Q

Exhalation

A

Expiration

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212
Q

Normal breathing requires what muscles?

A

primary respiratory (diaphragm, external intercostals)

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213
Q

Heavy breathing requires what muscles?

A

Primary respiratory and secondary respiratory muscles (scalenes, pectoralis minor)

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214
Q

Two categories of respiratory passages?

A

conducting airways and respiratory airways

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215
Q

Conducting airways?

A

structures that air travels thru before entering respiratory airways.

incoming air is purified, humidified and temperature regulated to match body

  • nasal and oral cavities, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
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216
Q

Respiratory airways?

A

collect channeled air from conducting airways.

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217
Q

Alveolar sacs?

A

where gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in and out of the bloodstream (diffusion)

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218
Q

Diffusion

A

The process
of getting oxygen from
the environment to the
tissues of the body.

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219
Q

Oxygen uptake

A

Oxygen consumption / the use of oxygen by the body

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220
Q

Resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is approximately __ of oxygen per ___ per ____

A

approximately 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute

1 metabolic (MET)

VO2 = Q X A - VO2 difference

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221
Q

Flick equation

A

oxygen consumption

(product of cardiac output) [Q, or HR x SV] X (Difference in the oxygen btw blood in arteries and blood in veins) [a-VO2]

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222
Q

Best measure of cardio-respiratory fitness?

A

Max oxygen consumption

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223
Q

Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max) definition

A

The highest rate of
oxygen transport and
utilization achieved at
maximal physical exertion.

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224
Q

VO2 max ranges

A

40 to 80 mL · kg –1 · min –1 , or approximately 11 to 23 METs

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225
Q

How to measure VO2

A

ventilation, oxygen consumption, and carbon
dioxide production during a maximal exercise test

sub: Rockport
Walk Test, the Step Test, and the YMCA bike protocol test

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226
Q

Potential abnormal breathing scenarios?

A
  • using secondary respiratory muscles
  • Postural role
  • excessive short shallow breaths
  • inadequate oxygen and retention of metabolic waste in muscles
  • inadequate joint motion of spine and rib cage
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227
Q

Bioenergetics

A

The study of energy in the human body.

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228
Q

Metabolism

A

All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself.
Metabolism is the process in which nutrients are
acquired, transported,
used, and disposed of by
the body.

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229
Q

Exercise metabolism

A
The examination of
bioenergetics as it relates
to the unique physiologic
changes and demands
placed on the body during
exercise.
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230
Q

Substrates

A

The material or substance on which an enzyme acts

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231
Q

Substrates? includes?

A

The material or substance on which an enzyme acts.

Includes carbohydrates, proteins and fats

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232
Q

Carbohydrates?

A
Organic
compounds of carbon,
hydrogen, and oxygen,
which include starches,
cellulose, and sugars,
and are an important
source of energy. All
carbohydrates are
eventually broken down
in the body to glucose, a
simple sugar.
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233
Q

Glucose

A
A simple sugar
manufactured by the
body from carbohydrates,
fat, and to a lesser extent
protein, which serves as
the body's main source
of fuel.
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234
Q

Glycogen

A

complex carb molecule that stores carbs in liver and muscle cells. Converted into glucose for energy when needed.

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235
Q

Fat?

A

class of food and source of energy for body.

helps with use some vitamins and keep the skin healthy.

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236
Q

Two types of fat?

A

saturated and unsaturated.

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237
Q

Three classes of food?

A

fat, protein, carbs

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238
Q

Triglycerides

A

Low density lipid (bad cholesterol) / The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists.

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239
Q

Protein

A
Amino acids
linked by peptide bonds, consisting of carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen,
oxygen, and usually
sulfur, and that have
several essential biologic
compounds.
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240
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

The formation of glucose from noncarb sources such as amino acids.

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241
Q

Adenosine Triphosphate

A

ATP - energy storage and transfer unit within body cells.

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242
Q

Adenosine Diphosphate

A

High-energy compound occurring in all cells from which adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed.

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243
Q

What is the energy process for ATP?

A

When chemical bonds holding ATP together are broken, energy is released for cellular work (like muscle contraction).

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244
Q

Function of energy metabolism with ATP and ADP?

A

harness enough free energy to reattach a phosphate group to an ADP and restore ATP levels back to normal to perform more work.

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245
Q

Any form of exercise can be defined by two factors?

A

intensity and duration

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246
Q

How much of the energy released from ATP is used for cell work and where does the rest go?

A

40%, released as heat.

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247
Q

Three metabolic pathways which cells can generate ATP?

A
  1. The ATP-PC system
  2. The glycolytic system (glycolysis)
  3. The oxidative system (oxidative phosphorylation)
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248
Q

phosphorylation?

A

adding another phosphate group to ADP b4 ATP can release additional energy

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249
Q

phosphagen?

A

ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) and PC (Phosphocreatine) together

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250
Q

Fastest and simplest of the energy systems?

A

Phosphocreatine molecule (ATP-PC system)

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251
Q

ATP-PC system with or without oxygen?

A

Anaerobic (no oxygen)

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252
Q

ATP-PC generally used for what type of excercise?

A

power and strength forms of training, like sprints

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253
Q

ATP-PC process?

____+____ —-> ____+_____

A

Creatine phosphate + Adenosine diphosphate —–> Creatine + Adenosine triphosphate

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254
Q

Glycolysis

A

Anerobic means of producing ATP through chemical breakdown of glucose.

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255
Q

Glycolysis is limited to how long?

A

30 - 50 seconds.

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256
Q

Oxidative System explained?

A

Process that uses substrates with the aid of oxygen to generate ATP (Aerobic)

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257
Q

3 oxidative or aerobic systems?

A
  1. Aerobic glycolysis
  2. The Krebs cycles
  3. The electron transport chain (ETC)
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258
Q

β-oxidation

A

the breakdown of triglycerides into FFA (free fatty acids, which are subunits) to convert FFAS to acyl-CoA molecules to be available for the Krebs cycles (production of ATP)

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259
Q

Pyruvic acid is converted into an important molecule in metabolism called ?

A

acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA)

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260
Q

NADH

A

“nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) + hydrogen (H).” This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that generates energy. People use NADH supplements as medicine.

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261
Q

ATP = ___ + ____

A

ADP + Pi

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262
Q

For one cycle of cross-bridge, how many ATPs?

A

2

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263
Q

Aerobic Metabolism:
Carbs into ?
Triglycerides into ?
Proteins into ?

A

Carbs into glucose
Triglycerides into fatty acids
Proteins into amino acids

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264
Q

The glycogen process of aerobic glycolysis?

Glycogen—>___—>___—>___ & ___+____

A

Glycogen —> Glucose —> Pyruvic Acid—> ATP & Co2+ H20

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265
Q

The glycogen process of anaerobic glycolysis?

Glycogen—>___—>___—>___

A

Glycogen —> Glucose —> Pyruvic Acid—> Lactic Acid

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266
Q

Process in both aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis?

A

ADP + Pi —-> ATP

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267
Q

ATP

A

adenosine triphosphate

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268
Q

ADP

A

adenosine diphosphate

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269
Q

Excess post exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)

A

The state
in which the body’s
metabolism is elevated
after exercise.

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270
Q

phosphocreatine

A

is a phosphorylated creatine molecule that serves as a rapidly mobilizable reserve of high-energy phosphates in skeletal muscle, myocardium and the brain to recycle adenosine triphosphate, the energy currency of the cell. (wiki)

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271
Q

Respiratory Quotient (RQ) ?

A

CO2 / O2 consumed

measured during rest or steady state.

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272
Q

If RQ is at 1 what is happening?

A

100% fuel from carbs

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273
Q

RQ stand for?

A

Respiratory Quotient

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274
Q

If QR is btw .7 and 1?

A

mix of carbs and fats fueling metabolism.

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275
Q

One molecule of glucose produces how many ATPs?

A

38

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276
Q

Main function of Acetyl CoA

A

acetyl coenzyme A

The main function is to deliver the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) to be oxidized for energy production.

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277
Q

What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?

A

The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.

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278
Q

Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?

A

Gluconeogenesis

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279
Q

How does metabolism behave during EPOC?

A

Remains elevated

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280
Q

During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into which important molecule in metabolism?

A

Acetyl coenzyme A

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281
Q

EPOC

A

Excess postexcercise oxygen consumption

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282
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

During a
negative energy balance (e.g., low-calorie diet), amino acids are used to assist in energy
production.

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283
Q

When does your body use the glycolysis for energy?

A

activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds

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284
Q

What energy system is used most when running a 10-second sprint?

A

ATP-PC

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285
Q

A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. What energy system?

A

Oxidative

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286
Q

When would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism during excercise?

A

At the beginning

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287
Q

After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which structure?

A

Aorta

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288
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?

A

Pulmonary Arteries

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289
Q

Human Movement efficiency cycle? List phases

A

Movement > Internal environment > External environment > Summation of all information > Central nervous system

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290
Q

Biomechanics

A

The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.

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291
Q

Superior

A

position ABOVE reference point

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292
Q

Inferior

A

position BELOW reference point

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293
Q

Proximal

A

position NEAREST the center of the body or point of reference

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294
Q

Distal

A

position AWAY from the center of the body or point of reference

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295
Q

Anterior

A

position on or toward the front of the body

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296
Q

Posterior? also called?

A

dorsal. on the back of the body

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297
Q

Medial

A

position near the midline of body

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298
Q

Lateral

A

position away from the midline of body

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299
Q

Contralateral

A

position on the opposite side of the body

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300
Q

Ipsilateral

A

position on the same side of the body

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301
Q

Three planes of motion?

A

Frontal, Saggittal and transverse

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302
Q

Anatomic position?

A

The position with the body
erect with the arms at
the sides and the palms
forward.

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303
Q

Saggittal plane

A

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves.

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304
Q

Flexion

A

bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decrease.

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305
Q

Extension

A

straightening movement where the relative angle btw 2 adjacent segments increase

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306
Q

Frontal Plane

A

Imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves

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307
Q

Abduction

A

movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body

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308
Q

Adduction

A

movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body

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309
Q

Transverse plane

A

imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves

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310
Q

Internal rotation

A

rotation of joint toward the middle of the body

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311
Q

External rotation

A

rotation of joint away from the middle of the body

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312
Q

Horizontal abduction

A

movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from an anterior position to a lateral position

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313
Q

Horizontal adduction

A

movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position

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314
Q

Scapular retraction

A

Adduction of scapula. shoulder blades move toward the midline

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315
Q

Scapular protraction

A

Abduction of scapula. shoulder blades move away from the midline

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316
Q

Scapular depression

A

downward (inferior) motion of the scapula

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317
Q

Scapular elevation

A

upward (superior) motion of the scapula

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318
Q

The Rockport walk test is used to determine?

A

Estimated oxygen consumption

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319
Q

During a client’s static postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. What muscle requires static stretching?

A

Gastrocnemius

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320
Q

Which method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?

A

Skinfold measurement

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321
Q

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

A

Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus

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322
Q

What assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?

A

Bench press 1RM test

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323
Q

Eccentric. Ex?

A
  • muscle lengthen & contracts
  • contract < resistance
  • ex: lowering weight during a resistance exercise
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324
Q

Concentric. What theory associated with?

A
  • muscle shorten & contracts
  • exert force > resistance
  • sliding filament theory
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325
Q

Isometric. Ex?

A
  • no change, usually in between eccentric and concentric
  • dynamic force stabilizes force
  • contract = resistance force
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326
Q

Two types of Isotonic muscle actions?

A

Eccentric and Concentric

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327
Q

Isotonic

A

Constant muscle tension

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328
Q

iso

A

same or equal

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329
Q

tonic

A

tension

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330
Q

metric

A

length

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331
Q

Isokinetic

A

muscle shortens at a constant speed over full range of motion.

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332
Q

Force

A

magnitude and direction

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333
Q

What type of muscle action?

Velocity goes up, ability to produce force decrease

A

Concentric

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334
Q

What type of muscle action?

Velocity goes up, ability to produce force goes up

A

Eccentric

335
Q

Length velocity relationship

A

resting length of a muscle and tension the muscle can produce at the resting length

336
Q

Force-couple relationships

A

producing movement around joint with all muscle actions: eccentric, isometric, concentric and all functions: agonists, synergists, stabilizers and antagonists

337
Q

Muscular leverage components

A

fulcrum, rotary motion, torque

338
Q

Fulcrum

A

muscle pivot point for motion resistance, body weight or object weight

339
Q

Rotary motion

A

movement of the bones around joints

340
Q

Torque

A

force that produces rotation

341
Q

Components of motor behavior

A

motor control, motor learning, motor development

342
Q

Motor control

A

posture and movements involved with CNS to produce movement

343
Q

Motor learning

A

use motor control to prac an experience permanently produced skilled movement

344
Q

Motor development

A

change in motor behavior over time throughout life

345
Q

Efficient motor control includes?

A
  • proprioception
  • sensorimotor integration
  • muscle synergies
346
Q

Agonist?
Synergist?
Stabilizer?
Antagonist?

A

Agonist - prime mover
Synergist - assist agonist
Stabilizer - stabilizes agonist and synergist
Antagonist - opposite agonist

347
Q

Systolic blood pressure

A

pressure in arterial system after heart contracts

348
Q

Diastolic blood pressure

A

pressure in arterial system when heart is rested and filled with blood

349
Q

normal blood pressure range

A

120 / 80 (systolic / diastolic)

350
Q

fat mass equation

A

body fat % x scale weight

Ex: .28(body fat%) X 130 (scale weight) = 36 pounds of fat

351
Q

lean body mass

A

scale weight - fat mass

352
Q

heart rate reserve

A

((HRmax - HRrest) x Intensity ) + HR rest

Karvonen method, method of establishing training intensity on the basis of difference between a client’s predicted maximal HR and their resting HR.

353
Q

estimated max HR

A

220 - age

354
Q

Training Zone 1

HR%? & function?

A

X.65 - X.75

builds aerobic base and aids in recovery

355
Q

Training Zone 2

HR%? & function?

A

X.76 - X.86

increases aerobic and anerobic endurance

356
Q

Training Zone 3

HR%? & function?

A

X.86 - X.95

builds high end work capacity

357
Q

Average body fat % range for women?

A

20 - 38

358
Q

Average body fat % range for men?

A

8 - 25

359
Q

Essential body fat % for men and women

A

men 3-5 / women 8 - 12

360
Q

Average resting heart rate range?

A

60 - 100

361
Q

BMI underweight?

A

< 18.5

362
Q

homeostasis

A

dynamic postural equilibrium

363
Q

altered R1

A

tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist

364
Q

cumulative injury cycle

A

tissue trauma > inflammation > muscle spasm > adhesions > altered neuromuscular control > muscle imbalance

365
Q

types of flexibility in order?

A

Corrective
Active
Functional

366
Q

What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?

A

Posterior hip

367
Q

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

A

Static Stretching

368
Q

Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?

A

Under the arm

369
Q

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

A

Groin region inside upper thigh

370
Q

Extensibility

A

capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched

371
Q

Static stretching should be used when muscles have been ?

A

overactive

372
Q

Autogenic inhibition

A

neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.

373
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place

374
Q

Altered reciprocal inhibition

A

caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist

375
Q

Synergistic dominance

A

inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover

376
Q

Self-Myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogeneic inhibition by doing what?

A

stimulating the golgi tendon organ

377
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which muscle?

A

Psoas

378
Q

Predictable patterns of muscle imbalance?

A

Postural distortion patterns

379
Q

How should dynamic stretching be performed?

A

at a controlled speed

380
Q

What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

381
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, explain pelvis tilt?

A

Posteriorly rotated pelvis

382
Q

How does joint connective tissue function? types?

A

Fibrous and flexible, providing stability and proprioception

383
Q

What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?

A

Synergistic dominance

384
Q

What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?

A

Reciprocal inhibition

385
Q

In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension?

A

Quadriceps

386
Q

Supine

A

person lying face up

387
Q

types of muscle contractions?

A

Isotonic (eccentric & concentric), isometeric, isokinetic

388
Q

Isokinetic muscle contraction

A

constant velocity of motion

389
Q

Isotonic muscle contraction

A

constant muscle tension

390
Q

Isometric muscle contraction

A

constant muscle length

391
Q

Eccentric muscle contraction

A

Tension while lengthening

392
Q

Concentric muscle contraction

A

shortening of the muscle, visible joint movement

393
Q

A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?

A

Self-Myofascial release

394
Q

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client’s warm-up?

A

Hip Flexor complex

395
Q

During an overhead squat assessment, a client’s knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client’s underactive musculature?

A

Tube Walk: side to side

396
Q

Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

A

Psoas

397
Q

Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?

A

Strength Level client

398
Q

The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?

A

Reciprocal Inhibition

399
Q

Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

A

Static stretching

400
Q

When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?

A

Altered reciprocal inhibition

401
Q

Anterior Tibialis stretch?

A

Top of toe pushing into ground

402
Q

Plantar

A

sole of foot

403
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

raising foot upward toward shin

404
Q

Dorsal

A

upward

405
Q

Plantarflexion

A

moving foot downward away from shin

406
Q

Inversion

A

lean outside / supination

407
Q

Eversion

A

lean inside / pronation

408
Q

When the body is trying to regulate its temperature correctly, which sensory receptors does it rely on?

A

Thermorecptors

409
Q

What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?

A

They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement

410
Q

The 3 major muscle types in the Human body?

A

cardiac, smooth, skeletal

411
Q

Within the muscle, where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

A

Capillaries

412
Q

If there is not enough oxygen when sprinting or when first beginning to exercise, which of the following is created?

A

Lactic acid

413
Q

Shoulder abduction is a result of the force-coupling between which muscles?

A

Deltoid and rotator cuff

414
Q

Which of the following initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate?

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node

415
Q

In regard to fatigue, what is a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?

A

not slow to fatigue

416
Q

During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered what type of mover?

A

Antagonist

417
Q

Posterior Tibialis stretch?

A

Standing calf stretch, heel raises, exercise band resist pronation or supination

418
Q

Soleus Stretch?

A

Bend knee standing calf stretch

419
Q

Gastrocnemius stretch?

A

standing calf stretch

420
Q

Peroneus Longus also called?

A

fibularis longus

421
Q

Peroneus longus stretch?

A

supination of foot from a seated position with leg on knee

422
Q

Peroneus longus is the antogonist to what muscles?

A

Anterior tibialis and Peroneus tertius tendon

423
Q

Opposing muscle of the gastrocnemius and the soleus?

A

Anterior tibialis

424
Q

Posterior Tibialis opposite muscle?

A

Peroneus / fibularis longus brevis

425
Q

Hamstring complex muscles?

A

biceps femoris (long and short head), Semimembranosus, semitendinosus

426
Q

Lower leg muscles?

A

Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, soleus, gastrocnemius, peroneus longus

427
Q

Biceps femoris stretch?

A

supine biceps femoris stretch (bent leg up and extend up)

428
Q

Semimembranosus stretch?

A

hip extension, knee flexion.

This muscle is posterior and medial of tibia

429
Q

Semitendinosus stretch?

A

hip extension, knee flexion.

This muscle is medial middle portion of muscle

430
Q

Cardiorespiratory fitness training: body functions?

A

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.

431
Q

5 components of health related physical fitness

A

Cardiorespiratory, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition

432
Q

Integrated cardiorespiratory

A

Cardiorespiratory training programs that systematically progress clients thru stages to achieve optimal levels of physiologic, physical and performance adaptions by placing stress on system.

433
Q

Pulmonary circuit

A

blood flow btw heart and lungs

434
Q

Systemic circuit (in body)

A

allows blood to flow to and from the rest of the body

435
Q

Coronary circuit

A

just provides blood to heart

436
Q

What is important to consider when designing an integrated cardiorespiratory training program?

A

rate of progression

437
Q

an improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness is related

to a reduction in ?

A

premature death from all causes

438
Q

Initial exercise prescription should reflect what three things?

A
  1. Initial client fitness level
  2. client fitness assessment results
  3. whether the client has significant risk factor or health limitations.
439
Q

Each training session should include what phases?

A

Warmup
Conditioning
Cool-down

440
Q

General warm-up

A

low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise to follow

441
Q

specific warm-up

A

(Dynamic stretching) low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise to follow

442
Q

Benefits of a warm-up

A
  • Increased heart and respiratory rate
  • increased tissue temperature
  • increased psychological preparation
443
Q

Effects of a warm-up

A

increases:

  • cardiorespiratory system’s capacity to perform
  • blood flow to active muscle tissue
  • O2 exchange capacity
  • rate of muscle contraction
  • efficiency of opposing muscle contraction and relaxation
  • metabolic rate
  • soft tissue tissue extensibility

-mental readiness

444
Q

cardio warm up time period and consists of?

A

5-10 mins, whole body, dynamic cardiovascular or muscular movements

445
Q

the purpose of warmups?

A

to raise heart and respiration rates, tissue temperature and psychologically prepare

446
Q

Warm-up for the stabilization level client should include what components?

A

self-myofascial release, static stretching, cardiorespiratory excercise

447
Q

Warm-up for the stabilization level client should include what components?

A

self-myofascial release, static stretching, cardiorespiratory excercise

448
Q

Warm-up for the strength level client should include what components?

A

self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, cardiorespiratory

449
Q

Warm-up for the power level client should include what components?

A

self-myofascial release, dynamic stretching

450
Q

Example of aerobic training?

A

Cardio - running, jogging, walking, skating, rowing, swimming

451
Q

Example of anaerobic training?

A

quick bursts of energy for a short period of time, HIIT, strength training, sprints

452
Q

Benefits of cool-down

A
  • reduce heart and breathing rates
  • gradually cool body temperature
  • return muscles to optimal length-tension relationships
  • prevent venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
  • restore physiologic systems close to baseline.
453
Q

Cool down components include? and time?

A

cardiorespiratory exercise, self-myofascial release, static stretching

5-10 mins

454
Q

For static stretching, which muscles should you focus on during warm-up and cool-down?

A

warm-up: only areas that are tight or overactive

cool-down: areas used during workout

455
Q

FITTE

A

Frequency, intensity, time, type and enjoyment

456
Q

Aerobic activity recommended for 5 days per week?

A

150 mins per week

moderate-intensity aerobic activity (brisk walking)

457
Q

Aerobic activity recommended for 3 days per week?

A

75 mins per week

vigorous-intensity aerobic activity (jogging or running)

458
Q

FITTE

A

Frequency, intensity, time, type and enjoyment

459
Q

Aerobic activity recommended for 5 days per week?

A

150 mins per week

moderate-intensity aerobic activity (brisk walking)

460
Q

Aerobic activity recommended for 3 days per week?

A

75 mins per week

vigorous-intensity aerobic activity (jogging or running)

461
Q

Light % HRmax? & %Vo2R?

A

35-54 & 20-39

462
Q

Moderate % HRmax? & %Vo2R?

A

55-69 & 40-59

463
Q

Hard % HRmax?

A

70-89

464
Q

Intensity definition?

A

the level of demand that a given activity places on the body

465
Q

how is intensity monitored?

A

HR , power output (watts), calculating (VO2 max) or(VO2R)

466
Q

Max oxygen consumption (Vo2 max)

A

the highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.

467
Q

For general health requirements what intensity is preferred?

A

moderate, less than 60% VO2R, does not exhaust the average untrained healthy adult.

468
Q

one MET =

A

3.5 mL O2 kg -1 min -1

average RMP (resting metabolic rate)

469
Q

What does MET representing in relationship to resting?

A

MET value of 4 means the exercises requires 4 times the energy of that person at rest.

470
Q

MET for jogging?

A

4

471
Q

What is the Karvonen method?

A

Heart Rate Reserve HRR: based on difference btw clients HRmax and HRrest

472
Q

Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)

A
The point during graded
exercise in which
ventilation increases
disproportionately
to oxygen uptake,
signifying a switch from
predominately aerobic
energy production
to anaerobic energy
production.
473
Q

During dynamic exercise, heart rate and oxygen are related how?

A

linearly

474
Q

RPE

A

Rating of perceived exertion, rating the perceived difficulty of exercise. Based on increased heart rate, respiration rate, sweating and muscle fatigue

475
Q

Type

A

mode or type of activity selected

476
Q

Recommended exercise per week?

A

2.5hrs moderate or 1.25 vigorous

477
Q

Characteristics of aerobic exercises ?

A
  • rhythmic in nature
  • use large muscle groups
  • be continuous in nature

example: running, jogging, walking, swimming, cardio equipment, cycling

478
Q

Frequency in FITTE

A

number of training sessions in a given time period (per week usually)

479
Q

General fitness improvement usually require what level % of intensity?

A

over 60%

480
Q

VO2

A

Volume of Oxygen Consumption

481
Q

Formula for Peak VO2?

A

Target VO2 = VO2max X intensity desired

482
Q

Principle of specificity

A

The body will adapt to the level of stress placed on it and will then require more and varied amounts of stress to produce a higher level of adaption in the future.

483
Q

Overtraining

A

excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in fatigue caused from lack of proper rest and recovery

484
Q

Jogging is an example of what training zone? with what heart percentage? and how on walk test?

A

Zone 1
65-75%
be able to hold convo

485
Q

Group exercise classes and spinning are examples of what training zone? with what heart percentage?

A

Zone 2

76 - 85%

486
Q

Sprinting is an example of what training zone? with what heart percentage?

A

Zone 3

86 - 95%

487
Q

When in training zone 1, when will you be ready for zone 2?

A

maintain zone one heart rate for at least 30 minutes two - three times per week.

488
Q

Borg scale range walking or jogging

A

12-13

489
Q

Borg scale range spinning

A

14-16

490
Q

Borg scale range sprinting

A

17-19

491
Q

Borg scale resting

A

6

492
Q

Beginning client circuit training example workout ?

A

5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)
5-10 min stage 1 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 1 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)

493
Q

(basic) Intermediate client circuit training example workout ?

A

5-10 min flexibility (SMR & active isolation stretching)
5-10 min stage 2 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 2 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)

494
Q

Advanced client circuit training example workout ?

A

5-10 min flexibility (SMR & dynamic stretching)
5-10 min stage 3 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 3 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)

495
Q

Some common postural considerations during cardiorespiratory training?

A
  • Upper Crossed Syndrome (rounded shoulder, forward head posture)
  • Lower crossed syndrome (Anteriorly rotated pelvis and arched lower back)
  • Pronation Distortion Syndrome (Feet turn out and knees move in )
496
Q

A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?

A

improved ability of muscles to use oxygen

497
Q

What does integrated cardiorespiratory training do to your heart rate?

A

decreases

498
Q

What is the cause of knock knees during a squat?

A
  • decreased hip abduction and hip external rotation strength
  • increased hip adduction strength
  • restricted ankle dorsiflexion
499
Q

The Core is made up of what muscles?

A

LPHC (Lumbo-Pelvis-Hip Complex)

  • Lumbar Spine
  • Pelvic Girdle
  • Hip Joint
  • Abdomen
500
Q

Three core musculature systems?

A
  • Local stabilization system
  • Global stabilization system
  • Movement stabilization system
501
Q

Recruitment patterns also known as?

A

force-couple relationships

502
Q

What allows for neuromuscular efficiency in the muscles of the LPHC?

A
  • optimal lengths (or length-tension relationships)
  • recruitment patterns (or force-couple relationships)
  • joint motions (or arthrokinematics)
503
Q

LPHC stands for?

A

Lumbo-Pelvis-Hip Complex

504
Q

Local Stabilization system consist of primarily what type of muscle fibers? and a high density of?

A

Type 1 Slow twitch & muscle spindles

505
Q

Local Stabilization system consists of what muscles?

A

Transversus abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm

506
Q

Global Stabilization system consists of what muscles?

A

Quadratus lumborum, Psoas major, external oblique, parts of internal oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex

507
Q

The adductor complex consists of what muscles?

A

Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilis, pectineus

508
Q

The Movement system consists of what muscles?

A

Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps

509
Q

The Global Stabilization system connects which two bones?

A

pelvis to the spine

510
Q

The Global stabilization system provides what functions during functional movements?

A

Stabilization and eccentric control of core during functional movements

511
Q

The movement system provides what 3 things during functional movements?

A
  • produce force (concentric contractions),
  • reduce force (eccentric actions)
  • dynamic stabilization in all planes of movement during functional activities.
512
Q

Optimal lengths also known as?

A

length-tension relationships

513
Q

Drawing in maneuver

A

A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel toward spine.

514
Q

Bracing

A

occurs when you have contracted both abdominal, lower back and buttock muscles at same time.

515
Q

EMG

A

Electromyography - a procedure that measures the electrical conducting function of nerves in muscles.

516
Q

Core training variables?

A
  • plane of motion
  • range of motion
  • type of resistance
  • body position
  • speed of motion
  • duration
  • frequency
  • amount of feedback
517
Q

Core training exercise selection should have what traits?

A
  • progressive
  • systematic
  • activity / goal-specific
  • integrated
  • proprioceptively challenging
  • based in current science
518
Q

Core training variable - range of motions?

A

full, partial, end-range

519
Q

Core training variable - types of resistance exercise?

A

cable, tubing, medicine ball, power ball, dumbbells, kettlebells.

520
Q

Core training variable - Body positions?

A

supine, prone, side, kneeling, half-kneeling, stand, staggered-stance, single-leg, standing progression on unstable surface

521
Q

Core training variable - speed of motion?

A

Stabilization, strength, power

522
Q

Core training variable - amount of feedback types?

A

fitness professional cues, kinesthetic awareness

523
Q

Core training exercise selection - progressive types?

A
  • easy to hard
  • simple to complex
  • known to unknown
  • stable to unstable
524
Q

Core training exercise selection - systematic types?

A

Stabilization, strength, power

525
Q

Core training exercise selection - proprioceptively challenging types?

A
  • stability ball
  • BOSU ball
  • Reebok core board
  • half foam roll
  • airex pad
  • bodyblade
526
Q

Goals of a core training program?

A
  • neuromuscular efficiency
  • stability
  • functional strength
527
Q

What types of stability is needed during core training?

A

intervertebral and lumbopelvic stability - local and global stabilization systems

528
Q

What is more important during a core training program?

increasing proprioceptive demand or external resistance

A

increasing proprioceptive demand

529
Q

Core training program should achieve what functional outcomes in this order?

A
  1. Intervertebral stability
  2. Lumbopelvic stability
  3. Movement effeciency
530
Q

Core stabilization training should be programmed for how long?

A

traditionally about 4 weeks

531
Q

Sample core stabilization exercises?

A

Marching, floor bridges, floor prone cobra, prone iso-ab (plank)

532
Q

In what phases do you use core strength training?

A

2,3,4

533
Q

Core strength exercises are designed to improve what?

A

dynamic stabilization, concentric strength (force production), eccentric strength (force reduction) and neuromuscular efficiency of entire kinetic chain.

534
Q

Examples of core strength exercises?

A

ball crunch, back extensions, reverse crunch, cable rotations

535
Q

In phase do you use core power training?

A

5

536
Q

Core power training is design to improve?

A

the rate of force production of the core musculature

537
Q

Examples of core power training exercises?

A

rotation chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover throw, front MB oblique throw, soccer throw

538
Q

Core training programs must be..?

A

systematic, progressive, goal-specific, integrated and proprioceptively challenging

539
Q

Stabilization, phase 1 program?

of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

A

1-4 exercises / 1-4 sets / 12-20 reps / slow tempo / 0-90 sec rest

540
Q

Strength, phase 2,3,4 program?

of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

A

0-4 exercises / 2-3 sets / 8-12 reps / med tempo / 0-60 secs rest

541
Q

Power, phase 5 program?

of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

A

0-2 exercises / 2-3 sets / 8-12 reps / fast as can control tempo / 0-60 secs rest

542
Q

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?

A

Core-Power

543
Q

What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?

A

Transferring loads btw upper and lower extremities

544
Q

Quadricep muscles?

A

vastus lateralis, vastus medialis (VMO), vastus intermedius, rectus femoris

545
Q

Vastus lateralis stretch?

A

kneeling hip stretch, hand grabbing foot and pushing out lateraly

546
Q

Vastus medialis stretch?

A

sitting leg extensions, single leg ball squat on wall, leg extensions turned out, bridge with ball btw legs

547
Q

Vastus medialis synergistic muscles?

A

Vastus lateralis, Vastus intermedius, Rectus femoris

548
Q

Vastus medialis antagonistic muscles?

A

hamstring muscle group, gastrocnemius

549
Q

Vastus Intermedius muscle exercises?

A

standing leg pull, sitting on heels lean,

550
Q

Rectus Femoris actions?

A

knee extension, knee flexion

551
Q

Rectus Femoris stretch?

A

knee flexion, hip extension, knee hip stretch and actively pull feet toward glute, active push and pull leg over heel (push foot not touching ground)

552
Q

Balance requires optimal what 3 things?

A
  • muscle balance
  • joint dynamics
  • neuromuscular efficiency
553
Q

Definition: Limit of stability?

A

distance outside base of support with losing control of center of gravity

554
Q

Balance-stabilization exercises should require what?

A

little joint motion of balance leg

555
Q

Balance progression stages in order (surfaces)

A
  1. Two-leg / stable surface
  2. Single-leg / stable surface
  3. Two-leg / unstable surface
  4. Single-leg / unstable surface
556
Q

Balance stabilization training exercise examples include?

A
  • Single-leg balance
  • single leg hip internal/external rotation
  • single-leg balance reach
  • single-leg lift and chop
  • single-leg throw and catch
557
Q

Balance strength level phase 2, 3, 4 named?

A

2: Strength endurance
3: Hypertrophy
4: Maximal strength

558
Q

Balance strength exercise have what types of movements?

A
  • eccentric and concentric movements
  • full range of motion
  • movement of balance leg
  • medium tempo
559
Q

Balance strength training exercise examples include?

A
  • singe-leg squat,
  • single-leg squat touchdown
  • single-leg romanian deadlift
  • step-up to balance
  • lunge to balance
  • multiplanar lunge to balance
560
Q

Balance power training exercises develop what?

A
  • high levels of eccentric strength
  • dynamic neuromuscular efficiency
  • relative joint stabilization
561
Q

Balance power training exercise examples include?

A
  • multiplanar hop with stabilization,
  • multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
  • multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
562
Q

Balance definiton?

A

When the body is in equilibrium and stationary, meaning no linear or angular movement

563
Q

Dynamic Balance definition?

A

The ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling.

564
Q

Integrated performance paradigm requires what?

A

Core and neuromuscular stabilization with eccentric and concentric force

565
Q

Effects of joint dysfunction in order?

A

Joint dysfunction > Muscle inhibition > Joint Injury > Swelling > Altered proprioception

566
Q

After what injuries is sensory feedback to the CNS altered?

A

ankle sprains, ligamentous injuries, low-back pain

567
Q

Plyometerics definition?

A

jump training or plyos, are exercises in which muscles exert maximum force in short intervals of time, with the goal of increasing power (speed-strength).

568
Q

When creating a balance training program, what are some parameters to consider?

A

Safety, progressive, proprioceptively challenging, plane of motion, body position

569
Q

Balance training program - how can the program progress?

A
  • easy to hard
  • simple to complex
  • stable to unstable
  • static to dynamic
  • slow to fast
  • two arms/legs to single arm/leg
  • eyes open to eyes closed
  • know to unknown (cognitive)
570
Q

Balance training program - how can the you challenge the workout proprioceptively?

A

Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc, wobble board, BOSU ball

571
Q

Single leg romanian deadlift

A

one legged, spine neutral, flat back, hand touching toe

572
Q

When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?

A

Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc

573
Q

Plyometric training is?

A

Reactive training or jump training

Included eccentric to concentric movements

574
Q

3 Phases of plyometic training?

A
  1. Eccentric (loading) phase
  2. Amortization (transition) phase
  3. Concentric (unloading) phase
575
Q

Pre-requisites for Plyometrics?

A
  • Adequate core strength

- Ability to properly stabilize

576
Q

Goal of plyometrics training?

A

Improve the rate of force production

577
Q

Plyometerics-stabilization exercises have what characteristics?

A
  • jumping movement with 3-5 second landing hold
  • optimize land mechanics
  • improve postural alignment
  • enhance coordination
578
Q

Plyometerics-strength exercises have what characteristics?

A
  • jumping movement

- decreased amount of time on ground

579
Q

Plyometerics-power exercises have what characteristics?

A
  • as fast and explosively as possible

- need very good technique first

580
Q

Plyometerics-stabilization exercises examples?

A

jump squat with stabilization, box jump with stabilization and multiplanar jump with stabilization

581
Q

Plyometerics-strength exercises examples?

A

squat jump, tuck jump, butt kicks, step ups

582
Q

Plyometerics-power exercises examples?

A

ice skaters, single leg power step up, proprioceptive plyometric drills

583
Q

What type of exercise and at what level is the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?

A

Plyometric-power training

584
Q

When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?

A

Power

585
Q

Name a plyometric-power exercise?

A

Proprioceptive plyometrics

586
Q

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

A

Quadriceps

587
Q

Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?

A

Reactive-power

588
Q

In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?

A

Flexion

589
Q

During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?

A

Plyometric-stabilization training

590
Q

What exercise requires that the knees always stay in line with the toes during the takeoff and landing components?

A

Power step up

591
Q

Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise?

A

Plyometric-power

592
Q

Integrated performance paradigm states?

A

The integrated performance paradigm states that to move with
precision, forces must be loaded (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then unloaded or accelerated (concentrically).

593
Q

The eccentric phase of plyometric exercise is also called what? and increases what?

A

deceleration, loading, yielding, counter movement or cocking phase

increases muscle spindle activity by prestretching the muscle before activation.

594
Q

where is potential energy stored during the eccentric phase of plyometric exercises?

A

the the elastic components of the muscle, like a rubber band

595
Q

The amortization phase involves what?

A

dynamic stabilization
it is the time between the end of the eccentric muscle action and the concentric contraction which the muscle switches from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction.

596
Q

The shorter the amortization phase, the more or less powerful?

A

more powerful

597
Q

The concentric phase of plyometric training involves what?

A

concentric contraction

598
Q

Plyometric training enhances what?

A

the excitability, sensitivity, and reactivity of the neuromuscular system and increase the rate of force production (power), motor unit recruitment, firing frequency (rate coding), and motor unit synchronization

599
Q

Stretch-shortening cycles require?

A

the neuromuscular system to react quickly and efficiently after an eccentric muscle action to produce a concentric contraction and impart the necessary force (or acceleration) in the appropriate direction.

600
Q

Plyometric training concepts: exercise selection characteristics?

A

safe, done with supportive shoes, performed on proper training surface (grass field, court, track surface), proper supervision, progressive

601
Q

Plyometric training concepts: exercise variables?

A
  • plane of motion
  • range of motion
  • type of resistance
  • type of implements (tape, cones, boxes)
  • muscle action
  • speed of motion
  • duration
  • frequency
  • amplitude of movement
602
Q

Plyometric power exercises are designed to improve?

A

the rate of force production, eccentric
strength, reactive strength, reactive joint stabilization, dynamic neuromuscular efficiency, and optimal force production

603
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

Plyometric training exercise program for Stabilization clients?

A

0-2 / 1-3 / 5-8 / controlled (3-5 sec stabilization holds) / 0-90sec

604
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

Plyometric training exercise program for Strength clients?

A

0-4 / 2-3 / 8-10 / medium repeating / 0-60sec

605
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest

Plyometric training exercise program for Power clients?

A

0-2 / 2-3 / 8-12 / fast as possible / 0-60sec

606
Q

Adductor Longus stretch?

A

all fours with straight leg extended out and slide down, butterflies, all fours side to side

607
Q

Isometeric

A

relating to or denoting muscular action in which tension is developed without contraction of the muscle.

608
Q

What muscle is primarily used when crossing legs?

A

Adductor longus

609
Q

Adductor Magnus stretch?

A

leg up on chair and pull down, happy baby, frog pose

610
Q

Adductor Brevis stretch?

A

side kick

611
Q

Gracilis stretch?

A

Lunge with leg turned out

612
Q

Pectineus stretch?

A

sitting clam shell with lean back

613
Q

Adductor Minimus stretch?

A

Side kick in

614
Q

One-ins are an example of what type of drill?

A

an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill

615
Q

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

A

Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

616
Q

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions for ankle, knee and hip?

A

Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

617
Q

What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?

A

Those with limited horizontal inertia

618
Q

What should be extended while sprinting?

A

hip extension

619
Q

A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?

A

Stand up to figure 8

620
Q

What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?

A

Keeping heart rate appropriately elevated

621
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during running movements?

A

The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.

622
Q

Stride rate?

A

the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance

623
Q

Speed is the product of what two things?

A

stride rate and stride length

624
Q

Stride length?

A

the distance covered with each stride during running

625
Q

Frontside mechanics

A
Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during
sprinting, which includes
ankle dorsiflexion, knee
flexion, hip flexion, and
neutral pelvis
626
Q

Backside mechanics

A
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during
sprinting, which includes
ankle plantarflexion, knee
extension, hip extension,
and neutral pelvis.
627
Q

During frontside and backside mechanics what has to stay neutral?

A

pelvis

628
Q

Agility?

A

the ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture.

629
Q

Kinetic chain checkpoints during running movements?

A
  • foot/ankle complex
  • knee complex
  • LPHC
  • Head
630
Q

Quickness?

A

the ability to ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.

631
Q

Example SAQ drills for youth?

A

Red light, green light & Follow the Snake

632
Q

When designing SAQ programs for weight loss, the primary focus should be to?

A

keep HR appropriately elevated to increase fat oxidation and caloric expenditure

633
Q

SAQ example circuit for weight loss populations?

A

Circuit 1:

  • 30 sec jump rope, 20 sec rest
  • 30 sec cone shuffle, 20 sec rest
  • 30 sec ladder drills, 20 sec rest

Circuit 2:

  • 30 sec 5-10-5 drill, 20 sec rest
  • 30 sec modified box drill, 20 sec rest
  • 30 sec partnered mirror drill, 20 sec rest
634
Q

Primary function of SAQ training in seniors?

A

to prevent age-related decreases in bone density, coordinative ability, and muscular power.

635
Q

What is Osteopenia?

A

loss of bone density

636
Q

What is Sarcopenia?

A

age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass

637
Q

SAQ drills for seniors?

A

Varied size cone / hurdle step overs & stand up to figure 8

638
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest

SAQ exercise program for Stabilization clients?

A

4-6 drills with limited horizontal inertia & unpredictability (cone shuffles and agility ladder) / 1-2 sets / 2-3 Reps / 0-60sec rest

639
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest

SAQ exercise program for Strength clients?

A

6-8 drills with greater horizontal inertia & limited unpredictability (5-10-5, T-drill, Box drill, Stand up to figure 8) / 3-4 sets / 3-5 Reps / 0-60sec rest

640
Q

of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest

SAQ exercise program for Power clients?

A

6-10 drills with max horizontal inertia & unpredictability (modified box drill, partner mirror drill, timed drills) / 3-5 sets / 3-5 Reps / 0-90sec rest

641
Q

Gluteus medius exercises?

A

tube walks, monster walks toe taps (w/ resistance bands too), clamshell

642
Q

Gluteus minimus exercises?

A

glute raises, lunge to high knee

643
Q

Gluteus maximus exercises?

A

squats, hip thrust

644
Q

TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae) Stretch?

A

Cross legs and lean on wall

645
Q

Psoas stretch?

A

Twisted lizard, cat cow with lateral leg, lateral leg with arm reach over

646
Q

Iliacus muscle stretch?

A

twist lizard, bridge, side lying leg pull back, hips up

647
Q

Sartorius muscle stretch?

A

Tree pose, squat, lunge

648
Q

Piriformis muscle stretch?

A

supine glute stretch, 90 degree stretch sitting

649
Q

Rectus Abdominis exercises?

A

yoga abs, bird dog, sit ups

650
Q

External Oblique exercises?

A

Any twisting abs, side planks, spidey pushups, bent yoga v-ups

651
Q

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?

A

Peripheral heart action

652
Q

A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program.

What training method is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?

A

Circuit training

653
Q

A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?

A

Vertical loading

654
Q

A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?

A

Metabolic specificity

655
Q

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?

A

two legs

656
Q

On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?

A

split-routine system

657
Q

When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, which of the following exercises would you perform immediately after a barbell squat?

A

seated row

658
Q

Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?

A

muscular hypertrophy

659
Q

Which of the following best describes the split-routine system used in resistance training?

A

Training different body parts on separate days

660
Q

A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?

A

Pyramid system

661
Q

General adaption syndrome?

A

a term used
to describe how the body
responds and adapts to
stress.

662
Q

What is eustress?

A

stress that over time allows the human movement system to adapt and maintain homeostatic states under a variety of conditions.

663
Q

Three stages in response to stress?

A

Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion

664
Q

Physiologic adaptive benefits of resistance training?

A
  • improved cardiovascular efficiency
  • endocrine (hormone) & serum lipid (cholesterol) adaptations
  • increase bone density
  • increased metabolic efficiency (metabolism)
665
Q

Physical adaptive benefits of resistance training?

A
  • increased tissue (muscle, tendons, ligaments) tensile strength
  • increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers
  • decreased body fat
666
Q

Performance adaptive benefits of resistance training?

A
  • increased neuromuscular control (coordination)
  • increased endurance
  • increased strength
  • increased power
667
Q

Alarm reaction stage, explain?

A

initial reaction to stressor such as increased oxygen and blood supply to necessary areas of the body

668
Q

Resistance development stage, explain?

A

increased functional capacity to adapt to stressor such as increasing motor unit recruitment

669
Q

Exhaustion stage, explain?

A

a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury

670
Q

Exhaustion stage can lead to?

A

stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue

671
Q

What is periodization?

A

division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages.

672
Q

Training related injuries occur more often to what part of body? and why?

A

connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons because they lack blood supply

673
Q

What is the principle of specificity?

A

SAID: specific adaptation to imposed demands.

The body will adapt to the demands placed on it

674
Q

type 1 muscle fibers are necessary for what?

A

long-term contractions necessary for stabilization, endurance, postural control.

675
Q

type 2 muscle fibers necessary for what?

A

fast twitch, produce max tension such as in sprinting

676
Q

Mechanical specificity?

A

weight and movements placed on the body

677
Q

Neuromuscular specificity?

A

speed of contraction and exercise selection

678
Q

Metabolic specificity?

A

energy demand placed on body

679
Q

Mechanically the body burns more calories when standing or seated?

A

standing

680
Q

Neuromuscularly, the body burns more calories when more muscles are being used for longer or shorter periods of time in what type of environment?

A

longer, controlled but unstable

681
Q

Metabolically, the body burns more calories when rest periods are ?

A

short

682
Q

a well designed integrated training program produces optimal levels of? (6 things)

A
flexibility
endurance
neuromuscular control
alterations in body composition
strength
power
683
Q

muscular endurance

A

ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.

684
Q

muscular hypertrophy

A

enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension

Increase in myofibril proteins

685
Q

strength

A

the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load

686
Q

power

A

ability of neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time

687
Q

Improves what?

24 weeks of training 3 days per week with 3 sets of 8–12 repetitions

A

muscle hypertrophy and body composition

688
Q

Improves what?

2 sets of 20–28 repetitions
with 1-minute rest periods beginning at 2 days/week

A

local muscle endurance and hypertrophy

689
Q

Improves what?

12 weeks of training, multiple sets of up to 15 repetitions, 4 times a week for 6 months

A

decrease body fat, increase local muscle endurance, increase lean body mass

690
Q

Single - set resistance training system?

A

Performing one set of each exercise

691
Q

Multiple - set resistance training system?

A

performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise

692
Q

Pyramid resistance training system?

A

increasing or decreasing weight with each set

693
Q

Superset resistance training system?

A

performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest inbtw

694
Q

Drop-sets resistance training system?

A

performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

695
Q

Circuit resistance training system?

A

performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest

696
Q

Peripheral heart action resistance training system?

A

circuit training that varies btw upper and lower body focuses for each exercise

697
Q

Split-routine resistance training system?

A

routine that trains different body parts on seperate days

698
Q

Vertical loading resistance training system?

A

following OPT model, vertically (one exercise for each body part - total body, chest, back, shoulders, biceps, triceps, legs)

699
Q

Horizontal loading resistance training system?

A

following OPT model horizontal, completing sets of each exercise at a time.

700
Q

ventral is also

A

anterior

701
Q

dorsal is also

A

posterior

702
Q

What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?

A

Leg-stabilization exercise

703
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance Phase of training?

A

12-20

704
Q

Low-volume training with high intensity increases which of the following?

A

rate of force production

705
Q

A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate while performing resistance training?

a. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
b. Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity
c. Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity
d. 10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity

A

12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity

706
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal?

a. 7 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 2 minutes
d. 30 seconds

A

30 seconds

707
Q

During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?

A

0-60 seconds

708
Q

What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period?

A

3-5 minutes

709
Q

When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?

A

alternating arm

710
Q

How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training?

A

1-3

711
Q

What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?

A

Alternating arm ball squat, curl to press

712
Q

how many calories per gram does protein provide?

A

4 calories per gram

713
Q

potential effect of ingesting too much iron?

A

gastrointestinal irritation

714
Q

how can a trainer support a client in the action stage?

A

continue to education them concerning the benefits of exercise

715
Q

what is PAR-Q?

A

Physical activity readiness questionnaire

716
Q

What are the acute variables of training?

A
  • repetitions
  • sets
  • training intensity
  • repetition tempo
  • training volume
  • rest interval
  • training frequency
  • training duration
  • exercise selection
717
Q

one rep includes what three muscle actions?

A

concentric, isometric, eccentric

718
Q

Muscular endurance and stabilization is best achieved by performing __ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)

A

1-3 sets, 12-20 reps, 50-70% of 1RM

719
Q

Hypertrophy is best achieved by performing ___ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)

A

3-5 sets, 6-12 reps, 75-85% of 1RM

720
Q

Max strength adaption is best achieved by performing ___ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)

A

4-6 sets, 1-5 reps, 85-100% of 1RM

721
Q

Power adaption is best achieved by performing ____ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)

A

3-6 sets, 1-10 reps, 30-45% of 1RM or about 10% body weight

722
Q

Typical rest period for muscular endurance and stabilization?

A

0-90sec

723
Q

Typical rest period for hypertrophy?

A

0-60sec

724
Q

Typical rest period for max strength adaption?

A

3-5min

725
Q

Typical rest period for power adaption?

A

3-5min

726
Q

rest intervals of how many seconds will allow for 50% recovery of ATP and PC?

A

20-30 seconds

727
Q

rest intervals of how many seconds will allow for 100% recovery of ATP and PC?

A

3 minutes

728
Q

Appropriate rest intervals factors include?

A
■ Training experience
■ Training intensity
■ Tolerance of short rest periods
■ Muscle mass
■ General fitness level
■ Training goals
■ Nutritional status
■ Recoverability
729
Q

Training volume factors include?

A
◆ Training phase
◆ Goals
◆ Age
◆ Work capacity or training status
◆ Recoverability
◆ Nutritional status
◆ Injury history
◆ Life stress
730
Q

Muscular endurance adaption recommended intensity?

A

50-70% of 1RM

731
Q

Hypertrophy adaption recommended intensity?

A

75-85% of 1RM

732
Q

Max strength adaption recommended intensity?

A

85-100% 1RM

733
Q

Power adaption recommended intensity?

A

30-45% 1RM

734
Q

Low Volume (high intensity) adaptions have an increase in what?

A
  • rate of force production
  • motor unit recruitment
  • motor unit synchronization
735
Q

High Volume (low/moderate intensity) adaptions have an increase in what?

A
  • muscle cross section
  • improved blood lipid serum profile (improved cholesterol and triglycerides)
  • increased metabolic rate
736
Q

what is training duration?

A

the timeframe of a workout or the length of time spent in one phase of training.

737
Q

single joint exercise examples?

A

bicep curls, triceps pushdowns, calf raises

738
Q

multijoint exercise examples?

A

squats, lunges, step-ups, chest presses, rows

739
Q

Total body exercise examples?

A

step-up balance to overhead press, squat to two arm press, barbell clean

740
Q

Step-ups and balance to overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

Stabilization, total body

741
Q

Squat, curl to overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

Strength, total body

742
Q

Two arm push press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

Power, total body

743
Q

Ball dumbbell chest press, Ball dumbbell row, Standing overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

Stabilization, multijoint

744
Q

bench press, seated row machine, shoulder press machine are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

strength, multijoint

745
Q

two arm medicine ball chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover throw, front medicine ball oblique throw are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

power, multijoint

746
Q

single leg dumbbell curl are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

stabilization, single joint

747
Q

standing two arm dumbbell curl are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?

A

strength, single joint

748
Q

Training plans

A

The specific outline, created by a fitness professional to meet a client’s goals, that details the form of training, length of time, future changes, and specific exercises to be performed.

749
Q

Periodization

A

Planned fitness training that does:

  1. divide program into periods or phases of training
  2. training different forms of strength in each period or phase to control volume of training and prevent injury
750
Q

Udulating periodization?

A

day 1 stabilization, day 2 strength, day 3 power

751
Q

periodization cycles are also called what for:
Annual?
Monthly?
Weekly?

A

Macro
Meso
Micro

752
Q

Stabilization endurance training focuses on improving?

A

◆ Increasing stability
◆ Increasing muscular endurance
◆ Increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature
◆ Improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination

753
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?

A

3 minutes

754
Q

When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?

A

1-5

755
Q

A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?

a. Suspension trainer
b. Barbells
c. Resistance machine
d. Smith machine

A

Suspension trainer

756
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?

a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable row
d. Standing cable crunch

A

Standing cable chest press

757
Q

Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?

a. Kettlebell training
b. Vibration training
c. Suspension body-weight training
d. Elastic resistance training

A

Vibration training

758
Q
Which of the following exercises is a bodyweight exercise?
Select one:
a. Sit-ups
b. Lift and chop
c. Biceps curls
d. The barbell squat
A

Sit-up

759
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client’s hands.
b. Spot at the client’s elbows.
c. Spot at the client’s axilla.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.

A

Never spot underneath the weight stack

760
Q
Which of the following is a flat-bottomed cast iron ball with a handle?
Select one:
a. Sandbell 
b. Kettlebell
c. Dumbbell
d. Barbell
A

Kettlebell

761
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
b. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
c. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
d. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.

A

Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.

762
Q

Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Select one:
a. Spot at the elbows.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.

A

Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.

763
Q

Stability ball size suggested size for heights below:

  • under 5’
  • 5-1 to 5-7
  • 5-8 to 6’
  • over 6’
A
  • 45cm
  • 55cm
  • 65cm
  • 75cm
764
Q

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?

A

Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy

765
Q

A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a. “I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline.”
b. “I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press.”
c. “I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise.”
d. “I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”

A

d. “I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”

766
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as ?

A

Dyspnea

767
Q

If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?

a. Incline prone iso-abs
b. Seated ball adductor stretch
c. Machine chest press
d. Foam roll calves

A

Foam roll calves

768
Q

Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?

a. Implement a drop-set loading system
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Avoid prone positions
d. Use Valsalva maneuvers

A

Avoid prone positions

769
Q

Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?

a. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
b. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
c. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training

A

Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity

770
Q

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

a. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
b. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
d. Focus on resistance training so leg pain will not limit exercise.

A

c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

771
Q

Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?

a. Strength
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Speed
d. Postural control

A

Postural control

772
Q

A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?

a. Knee-up
b. Standing cobra
c. Floor bridge
d. Reverse crunch

A

Standing cobra

773
Q

Vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments

should be restricted for children to less than ___mins

A

30

774
Q

important physiologic differences between children and adults that impact their response and adaptation to exercises include?

A
  • peak oxygen uptake
  • submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement)
  • children do not produce sufficient levels of glycolytic enzymes to sustain high intensity exercise
  • children have immature thermoregulatory systems, such as ability to sweat
775
Q

Sprains are?

A

injury to ligament

776
Q

Strains are?

A

injury to tendon or muscle

777
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: mode, frequency and intensity?

A

Mode: walking, jogging, games, running, activities, sports, water activities, resistance training

Frequency: 5-7 days of the week

Intensity: Moderate to vigorous cardio exercise training

778
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: Movement assessment examples

A

Overhead squats

10 push-ups (if 10 cannot be performed, do as many as can be tolerated

Single-leg stance (if can tolerate, perform 3–5 single-leg squats per leg)

779
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: resistance training?

A

1–2 sets of 8–12 repetitions at 40–70% on 2–3 days per week

Phase 1 of OPT model should be mastered before moving on

Phases 2–5 should be reserved for mature adolescents on the basis of dynamic
postural control and a licensed physician’s recommendation

780
Q

pathologic also means?

A

related to diease

781
Q

Prehypertensive blood pressure level btw ?

A

between 120/80 mm Hg and 135/85 mm Hg

782
Q

Hypertension is? with #s

A

high blood pressure

resting systolic over 140 or diastolic over 90

783
Q

Arteriosclerosis is?

A

general hardening and loss of elasticity of arteries

784
Q

Atherosclerosis is? and caused by?

A

buildup of fatty plaques in arteries that leads to narrowing and reduced blood flow

caused by poor lifestyle choices (smoking, obesity, sitting forever)

785
Q

Peripheral vascular disease?

A

group of diseases in which blood vessels become restricted or blocked, typically from atherosclerosis

786
Q

Natural functional and physiologic changes associated with aging include?

A
Reduction in:
 Maximal attainable heart rate
◆ Cardiac output
◆ Muscle mass
◆ Balance
◆ Coordination (neuromuscular efficiency)
◆ Connective tissue elasticity
◆ Bone mineral density
787
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for seniors: mode, frequency, intensity and duration?

A

mode: stationary or recumbent cycling, aquatic exercise, treadmills with handrails

Frequency: 3-5 days per week of mod-intensity or 3 days per week of vigorous intensity

Intensity: 40-85% of VO2 peak

Duration: 30-60min per day or 8-10 min bouts

788
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for seniors: Resistance training program?

A

1–3 sets of 8–20 repetitions at 40–80% on 3–5 days per week
Phase 1 of OPT model should be mastered before moving on
Phases 2–5 should be based on dynamic postural control and a licensed physician’s
recommendation

789
Q

obese clients should expend how many calories per session? and min per week?

A

200-300cal & 1,250 cal

790
Q

Exercise intensity for obese clients should be? with a weekly caloric volume of?

A

60-80% intensity

1,250kcal per week and progress to 2,000 as tolerable

791
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for obese or overweight clients: mode, frequency, intensity and duration?

A

Low-impact or step aerobics (treadmill walking, rowing, stationary cycling, water activity)

5 days a week

60-80% of max HR

40-60min per day, or 20-30min sessions 2x per day

792
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for obese or overweight clients: resistance training program?

A

1-3 sets of 10-15 reps on 2-3 days a week

793
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with diabetes: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

Low-impact

4-7 days per week

50-90% of max HR

20-60 mins

794
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with diabetes: resistance training program?

A

1-3sets. 10-15 reps, 2-3 days per week

795
Q

peripheral

neuropathy?

A

loss of protective sensation in feet and legs

796
Q

What causes hypertension?

A

smoking, high saturated dat diet, excess weight

797
Q

Example core exercises for clients with hypertension?

A

torso cable iso-rotations

798
Q

Valsalva maneuver is?

A
A maneuver in which a
person tries to exhale
forcibly with a closed
glottis (windpipe) so that
no air exits through the
mouth or nose as, for
example, in lifting a heavy
weight. The Valsalva
maneuver impedes the
return of venous blood to
the heart.
799
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with hypertension: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

stationary cycling, treadmill walk, rowers

3-7 days a week

50-85% max HR

30-60 mins

800
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with hypertension: assessment, resistance training program?

A

assess push pull, OH squat, single leg balance

1-3 sets of 10-20 reps, 2-3 days per week, 4/1/1

exercises can be seated or standing

801
Q

normal blood pressure?

A

less than 120/80

802
Q

atherosclerosis is ?

A

plaque formation

803
Q

angina pectoris is?

A

chest pain

804
Q

myocardial infarction is?

A

heart attack

805
Q

What does RPE stand for?

A

rate of perceived exertion

806
Q

RPE 20 = ___ on RPE Category-ratio scale?

A

9.0

807
Q

0.0 Category-ratio scale = ___ original RPE scale?

A

6

808
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with CHD: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

Coronary Heart Disease

Large muscle group activities like stationary cycling, treadmill walking or rowing

3-5 days per week

40-85% of max HR (use talk test)

5-10mins warmup with 20-40min of exercise with 5-10mins cool down

809
Q

Osteopenia is?

A

a decrease in the calcification or density of bone as well as reduced bone mass

(precursor to osteoporosis)

810
Q

Osteoporosis is?

A

condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space btw bones, resulting in porosity and fragility

811
Q

Osteoporosis type 1 characteristics?

A

normal aging process and attributable to lower production of estrogen and progesterone

812
Q

Osteoporosis type 2 caused by?

A

lifestyle habits like alcohol abuse, smoking, disease or certain medications

813
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with Osteoporosis: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill with handrails

2-5 days per week

50-90% of max HR

20-60mins per day or 8-10min bouts

814
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with osteoporosis: assessment, resistance training program?

A

push, pull, overhead squat, sitting and standing into chair

focus on hips, thighs, back and arms

1-3 sets of 8-10 reps at 85% on 2-3 days per week

815
Q

Arthritis is ?

A

chronic inflammation of the joints

816
Q

Osteoarthritis is?

A

arthritis in which cartilage becomes soft, frayed, things out as a result of trauma or other conditions

817
Q

rheumatoid arthritis is ?

A

arthritis primarily affecting connective tissues, with thickening of articular soft tissue and extension of synovial tissue over articular cartilages that have become eroded.

818
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with Arthritis: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill, walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low impact or step aerobics

3-5 days per week

60-80% of max HR

30mins per day

819
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with arthritis: resistance training program?

A

1-3sets, 10-12 reps, 2-3 days per week

820
Q

Cancer definition?

A

Any of various types of malignant neoplasms, most of which invade surrounding tissues, may metastasize to several sites and are likely to recur after attempted removal and to cause death of the patient unless treated

821
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with cancer: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low-impact or step aerobics

3-5 days per week

50-70% of max HR

15-30mins per day (start with 5min)

822
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with cancer: resistance training program?

A

1-3sets, 10-15 reps, 2-3 days per week

823
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for pregnant women: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low-impact or step aerobics, water activity

3-5 days per week

Stage 1

15-30mins per day

824
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for pregnant women: resistance training program?

A

2-3 days per week, light loads 12-15 reps

825
Q

Restrictive lung disease?

A

condition of a fibrous lung tissue, resulting in a decreased ability to expand the lungs.

826
Q

Chronic obstructive lung disease ?

A

condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production

827
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with lung diseases: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill walking, stationary cycling, low-impact or step aerobics, elliptical

3-5 days per week

40-60% of peak work capacity

20-45mins per day

828
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with lung disease: resistance training program?

A

1 set of 8-15reps 2-3days a week

upper body exercises increase dyspenea

829
Q

Intermittent claudication?

A

the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease

830
Q

peripheral arterial disease?

A

condition characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for suppling blood to the lower extremities

831
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with intermittent claudication/PAD: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?

A

treadmill walking, stationary cycling, low-impact or step aerobics, elliptical

3-5 days per week working up to 7 days

50-85% of peak work capacity

work up to 20-30mins per day

832
Q

Basic exercise guidelines for people with intermittent claudication/PAD: resistance training program?`

A

1-3sets, 8-12 reps, 2-3 days per week up to 12-20 reps

833
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test

A

Pushing test

834
Q

Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Select one:
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
b. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
c. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
d. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.

A

The correct answer is: Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.