NASM Flashcards
Muscle imbalance
Alteration of a muscle length surrounding a joint.
Obesity
The condition of being considerably overweight, referring to a person with a body mass index of 30 or
greater, or who is at least 30 pounds over the recommended weight for their height.
Overweight
A person with a body mass index of 25 to 29.9, or who is 25 to 30 pounds over the recommended
weight for their height.
Blood lipids
Cholesterol and triglycerides, carried in the bloodstream by protein molecules known as high-density
lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
Diabetes mellitus
Chronic metabolic disorder caused by insulin deficiency which impairs carbohydrate usage and
enhances usage of fats and proteins.
Deconditioned
A state of lost physical fitness which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.
Proprioception
The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement.
Proprioceptively enriched environment
An unstable (yet controllable) physical situation in which exercises are performed that cause the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms.
Muscular endurance
A muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period of time.
Neuromuscular efficiency
The ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work
together in all planes of motion.
Prime mover
The muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power
Superset
Set of two exercises that are performed back to back without any rest time between them.
Rate of force production
Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
Three main systems of human movement system
nervous, skeletal, muscular
Kinetic
Motion
The nervous system
A conglomeration of billions of cells specifically designed to provide a communication network within the human body.
Sensory function
The ability of the nervous
system to sense changes
in either the internal or
external environment.
Integrative function
The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces the appropriate response.
Motor function
The neuromuscular
response to the sensory
information.
Neuron
The functional unit of the
nervous system.
Specialized cell that processes and transmits information
through both electrical and chemical signals.
Sensory (afferent) neurons
Respond to touch, sound, light and other stimuli and transmit nerve impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal
cord.
Interneurons
Transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another.
Motor (efferent) neurons
Transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites such as muscles or glands.
Efferent
conducted or conducting outward or away from something (for nerves, the central nervous system; for blood vessels, the organ supplied).
Afferent
conducting or conducted inward or toward something (for nerves, the central nervous system; for blood vessels, the organ supplied).
Three main functions of nervous system
Sensory, Integrative, Motor functions
Central Nervous System
consists of the brain and the spinal cord, and its primary function is to
coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
Peripheral nervous system?
How many nerves of each?
- consists of nerves that connect the CNS
to the rest of the body and the external environment. - nerves of the PNS are how the CNS receives sensory input and initiates responses.
- consists of 12 cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves (which branch out from the brain
and spinal cord), and sensory receptors
Two main functions of PNS?
1 - Motor function (connection for nervous system to activate different effector sites, such as muscles)
2 - Sensory function (peripheral nerves relay info from effector sites back to brain via sensory receptors)
Types of peripheral nervous system?
Somatic (voluntary systems of the body) and automatic (involuntary systems)
Types of Automatic nervous sytems?
sympathetic (increase activation to prep for activity)
parasympathetic (decrease activation during rest and recovery)
Endocrine glands
ductless glands of the endocrine system that secrete hormones, directly into the blood.
Sensory receptors
convert environmental stimuli (heat, light, sound, taste, motion) into sensory info the brain and spinal cord use to respond.
4 types of sensory receptors
mechanoreceptors, nociceptors, chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors
mechanoreceptors
respond to outside forces such as touch, pressure, stretching, sound waves,
and motion, and transmit impulses through sensory nerves, which enable us
to detect touch, sounds, and the motion of the body and to monitor the position of our muscles, bones, and joints (proprioception)
most important for personal training.
nociceptors
respond to pain receptors
chemoreceptors
respond to chemical interaction like smell and taste
photoreceptors
respond to light - vision
Where are mechanoreceptors located?
muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules and include muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors
Muscle spindles
Receptors sensitive to
change in length of the
muscle and the rate of
that change.
Golgi tendon organs
Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change.
Joint receptors
Receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.
Kinetic Chain consist of what three systems?
human movement requiring the nervous, skeletal and muscular systems.
Skeletal System
The body’s framework, composed of bones and joints.
Bones
Provide a resting ground for muscles and protection of vital organs. & form junctions that are connected by muscles and connective tissue
Joints
Junctions of bones, muscles, and connective tissue at which movement occurs. Also known as an articulation.
Articulation
Joints
Remodeling
The process of resorption and formation of bone.
Osteoclasts
A type of bone cell that removes bone tissue.
Osteoblasts
A type of cell that is responsible for bone formation.
Types of bones
long, short, flat, irregular, sesamoid
Periosteum
A dense membrane composed of fibrous connective tissue that closely wraps (invests) all bone, except that of the articulating surfaces in joints, which are covered by a synovial membrane.
Medullar cavity
The central cavity of bone
shafts where marrow is
stored.
Articular (hyaline)
cartilage
Cartilage that
covers the articular
surfaces of bones.
Epiphysis
The end of long bones, which is mainly composed of cancellous bone, and house much of the red marrow involved in red blood cell production. They are also one of the primary sites for bone growth.
Diaphysis
The shaft portion of a long bone.
Epiphyseal plate
The region of long bone connecting the diaphysis to the epiphysis. It is a layer of subdividing cartilaginous cells in which growth in length of the diaphysis occurs.
Long Bone sections
Epiphysis, Diaphysis
& Epiphyseal plate, Periosteum, Medullar cavity, Articular (hyaline) cartilage
Depressions
Flattened
or indented portions
of bone, which can be
muscle attachment sites.
Processes
Projections
protruding from the bone
where muscles, tendons,
and ligaments can attach.
Short Bones. Consist of? Examples?
They consist predominantly of spongy bone tissue to maximize shock absorption. Ex: the carpals of the hands and tarsals of the feet fit this category.
Flat Bones. Consist of? Examples?
Thin bones comprising two layers of compact bone tissue surrounding a layer of spongy bone tissue. Ex: sternum, scapulae, ribs, ilium, and cranial bones
Irregular Bones. Consist of? Examples?
Unique shape and function. Ex: the vertebrae, pelvic
bones, and certain facial bones.
Sesamoid Bones. Consist of? Examples?
Small bones embedded in a joint capsule or found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint. Ex: Patella
Tendon
Tissue that connects muscle to bone
Two types of bone markings
Depressions and Processes
Fossa, Supraspinous or infraspinous is an example of what?
Bone depression
Sulcus is an example of what? does what?
Bone depression. Groove that allows soft tissue (tendons) to pass through
Five common bone processes?
process, condyle, epicondyle, tubercle, and trochanter
Spinous processes found on the vertebrae and the acromion and coracoid processes found on the scapulae is an example of what?
Bone process
What type of bone process is located on the inner and outer portions at the bottom of the femur (thigh bone) and top of the tibia (shin bone) to form the knee joint?
Condyles
What type of bone process is located at the top of the humerus at the glenohumeral (shoulder)
joint?
Tubercles
What type of bones process is located at the top of the femur and are attachment sites for the hip musculature?
Trochanters
What type of bone process is located on the inner and outer portions of the humerus to help form
the elbow joint?
Epicondyles
posterior cervical curvature
posterior concavity of the cervical spine
anterior thoracic curvature
posterior convexity of the thoracic spine
posterior lumbar curvature
posterior concavity of the lumbar spine
Vertebral Column, top to bottom?
Cervical Spine (C1-C7) Thoracic Spine (T1-T12) Lumbar Spine (L1-L5) Sacrum Coccyx
Arthrokinematics
Joint motion
Three major motion types of arthrokinematics?
roll, slide, spin
pronation
Inward
supination
Outward
Synovial joints
Joints that are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are
most associated with
movement in the body.
They have: synovial capsule (collagenous structure), synovial membrane (inner layer of the capsule) and hyaline cartilage with pads the ends of articulating bones.
Gliding (plane),
condyloid (condylar or ellipsoidal), hinge, saddle, pivot, and ball-and-socket joints are types of what joints?
Synovial Joints
Gliding (plane) joint? & Examples?
No axis of rotation; moves by sliding side-to-side or back and forth
Ex: carpals of the hand and in the facet (spine) joints
Condyloid (condylar or ellipsoidal) joints? & Examples?
Formed by the fitting of condyles of one bone into elliptical cavities of another; moves predominantly in one plane
Ex: Knee
Hinge Joint? Examples?
Uniaxial; moves predominantly in one plane of motion (sagittal)
Ex: elbow
Saddle Joint? Example?
One bone fits like a saddle on another bone; moves
predominantly in two planes (sagittal, joint of thumb frontal)
Only found in carpometacarpal joint in thumb.
Pivot Joint? Examples?
Only one axis; moves predominantly in one plane of motion (transverse)
Ex: radioulnar joint at the
elbow
Ball-and-socket joint? Examples?
Ball-and-socket joints allow movement in all three planes.
Ex: shoulder and hip
Synovial Joint? Examples?
Produces synovial fluid, has a joint cavity and fibrous
connective tissue.
Ex: Knee
Nonsynovial Joint? Examples?
No joint cavity and fibrous connective tissue; little or no movement
Ex: Sutures of the skull
Ligament? made up of?
Primary connective tissue that connects bones together and provides stability, input to the nervous system, guidance, and the limitation of improper joint movement.
Made up of collagen & elastin
Two divisions of skeletal system?
axial and appendicular
Axial Skeleton
Bones located across central axis of body
Appendicular Skeleton
Bones mainly composed of limbs
Cortical Bones
Compact bone, dense outer layer
Cancellous Bones
Spongy bone, located beneath compact cortical bone
Muscular System
Series of muscles that moves the skeleton.
Muscle
Multiple bundles of muscle fibers held together by connective tissue.
Epimysium
A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia and surrounds the muscle.
Perimysium
The connective tissue that surrounds fascicles.
Endomysium
The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers.
Fascia
Muscle’s outer layer of connective tissue
Fascicles
Made up of many individual muscle fibers wrapped by connective tissue (endomysium).
Neural Activation
Communication link btw nervous system and muscular system.
The contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation.
Motor Unit
A motor neuron and all of the muscle fiber it innervates.
Synapse
Neuromuscular junction, aka gap btw nerve and muscle fiber.
Neurotransmitters
Chemical messengers that cross the synapse to transmit electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle.
Type 1 muscle fiber
Slow-twitch. Red Fibers.
For stabilization, long-term contractions.
Contain a large number of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin.
Increased oxygen delivery.
Smaller in diameter.
Slower to produce maximal tension and more resistant to fatigue.
Less force produced.
Type 2 muscle fiber
Fast-twitch. White fibers.
For force and power, short-term contractions.
Fewer capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin.
Decreased oxygen delivery
Larger in size
Quick to fatigue
Myoglobin.
A red protein that allows for improved delivery of oxygen.
Myoglobin
A protein in red blood cells that store and carry oxygen in muscle cells.
Hemoglobin
A protein in red blood cells that carry oxygen.
Capillaries
branching blood vessels that form a network between the arterioles and venules.
Type 2x muscle fibers
muscle fibers that have a low oxidative capacity (ability to use oxygen)
Type 2a muscle fibers
Intermediate fast-twitch fibers. higher oxidative capacity and fatigue more slowly than 2x. Can use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism to create energy.
Types of muscles (per function)
agonist, synergist, stabilizer, antagonist
Agonist muscles
act as prime movers
Synergist muscles
assist primer movers during movement
Stabilizer muscles
support or stabilize the body
Antagonist muscles
opposite action of the prime mover
Sarcomeres
a structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle
Myofibril
Muscle fibral / fiber
Steps in Sliding Filament Theory
- Sarcomere shortens (bc Z lines move together)
- Z line converges as result of myosin heads attaching to the actin filament and asynchronously pulling (power stroke) the actin filament across the myosin, resulting in shortening of the muscle fiber.
motor unit
one motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
innervate
supply with nerves
Endocrine System
system of glands that secrete hormones into blood stream to regulate bodily functions.
What bodily functions does the endocrine system regulate?
control of mood, growth and development, tissue function and metabolism.
endocrine
“hormone secreting”
Hormones produced by endocrine system will affect what human functions?
triggering muscle contraction
stimulating protein and fat synthesis
activating enzyme systems
regulating growth and metabolism
how body responds to stress physically and emotionally
Primary Endocrine Glands?
Pituitary, Hypothalamus, Adrenal, Thyroid
Pituitary Gland
‘Master’ Gland of Endocrine system. Controls the functions of the other endocrine glands.
Three different lobes of the pituitary gland
Anterior, intermediate and posterior
Pancreas produces what two hormones?
Insulin and glucagon
What does insulin do?
regulate energy and glucose metabolism
What does glucagon do?
raises blood glucose levels by triggering the release of glycogen stores from the liver back into the bloodstream
Glycogen
stored form of glucose
Increased activity levels cause insulin to what? and glucagon to what?
insulin levels drop and glucose increase
Where are the adrenal glands?
top of each kidney
What are the two catecholamines?
epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine
What do catecholamine hormones do?
Hormones that prepare the body for activity, specifically the fight or flight response. The brain triggers adrenal glands to secrete more epinephrine.
What happens when epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal glands?
increase heart rate and stroke volume, elevate blood glucose levels, redistributes blood to working tissues, opens up the airways,
Testosterone plays a fundamental role in what?
growth and repair of tissue
Where is testosterone located?
males: testes
females: ovaries and adrenal glands
Cortisol
catabolic hormone (assoc. with tissue breakdown)
serves to maintain energy supply thru breakdown of carbs, fats and proteins.
High levels of cortisol can lead to?
significant breakdown of muscle tissue
What can cause high levels of cortisol?
overtraining, excessive stress, poor sleep, inadequate nutrition
Growth hormone. Released from? Responsible for?
Released from pituitary gland and regulated by hypothalamus.
Anabolic hormone that is responsible for most of the growth and development during childhood up until puberty
Where is the thyroid gland located?
base of the neck just below the thyroid cartilage,
sometimes called the Adam’s apple
Thyroid hormone. Released from? Responsible for?
Released from pituitary gland.
Main: Metabolism
Also: carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism, basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, sensitivity
to epinephrine, heart rate, breathing rate, and body temperature
Low thyroid function leads to?
low metabolism, fatigue, depression, sensitivity to cold, and weight gain.
What are the adrenal glands?
suprarenal glands. are endocrine glands that produce a variety of hormones including adrenaline and the steroids aldosterone and cortisol.
Anabolism
building up of metabolism
Cardio-respiratory system
a system of the body composed of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
Cardiovascular system
a system of the body composed of the heart, blood and blood vessels.
Heart
a hollow muscular organ made up of involuntary cardiac muscle that pumps a circulation of blood through the body by means of rhythmic contraction.
Mediastinum
the space in the chest between the lungs that contains all the internal organs, including the heart, of the chest except the lungs.
Where is the heart located?
in the center of the chest (or thoracic cavity), area know as mediastinum
Size and weight of heart?
human fist and 300g or 10 ounces.
Types of muscles
smooth, cardiac and skeletal
What type of muscles have intercalated discs? from the three main types
Cardiac muscles
Typical resting heart rate?
70-80 beats per minute
The heart has it’s own built-in conduction system that does what?
sends electrical signal rapidly throughout all the cardiac cells.
What do intercalated discs do?
hold muscle cells together during contraction and create an electrical connection btw cells that allows the heart to contact as one functional units .
Sinoatrial (SA) node
‘Pacemaker for the heart’ A specialized area of cardiac tissue, located in the right atrium of the heart, which initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate.
Atrioventricular (AV) node
A small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers, in the wall of right atrium of heart, that receives heartbeat impulses from the sinoatrial node and directs them to the walls of the ventricles.
Ventricle
the inferior chamber of the heart that receives blood from its corresponding atrium and forces blood into the arteries.
Atrium
the superior chamber of the heart that receives blood from the veins and forces it into the ventricles.
BMI
weight / (height X height) X 703
Which side of the heart carries oxygenated blood?
The left
The left side is known as the _____ side, pumps blood high in O2 and low is CO2.
systemic
The left atrium does what?
gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs.
The right atrium does what?
gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the entire body.
What does the right ventricle do?
receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to lungs to be saturated with incoming oxygen
What does the left ventricle do?
receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the entire body
types of chamber valves?
atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) and the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves)
stroke volume (SV)
the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction.
End-systolic volume (ESV)
residual volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after ejection.
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
the filled volume of the ventricle before contraction
Typical Stroke volume (SV)
the difference btw EDV (typically 120) and ESV (typically 50) = 70mL blood
Heart rate (HR)
the rate at which the heart pumps
Cardiac output (Q)
Heart rate x stroke volume, the overall performance of the heart
Average resting heart rate for an untrained adult
70 - 80 beats per minute (bpm)
Blood
fluid that circulates in the heart, arteries, capillaries, and veins, carries nutrients and oxygen to all parts of the body and rids body of waste products.
Three functions of blood?
transportation, regulation and protection
Three kinds of cells in blood?
red, white and platelets
Percentage makeup of blood?
55% plasma and 45% red, white blood cells and platelets.
What do the red and white blood cells do?
Red blood cells carry oxygen from lungs thruout body and white blood cells help fight infection.
What do platelets do?
help with clotting
average adult has how much blood?
4 - 6L in body
Blood transportation includes what functions?
- oxygen and nutrients to tissues
- waste products from tissues
- hormones to organs and tissues
- heat throughout body
Blood regulation includes what function?
body temperature and acid balance in body
Blood protection includes what function?
- body form excessive bleeding by clotting
- contains specialized immune cells to help fight disease and sickness
Blood vessels
network of hollow tubes that circulates blood throughout body
Arteries
vessels that transport blood away from the heart
Capillaries
smallest blood vessels. exchange chemicals and water btw blood and tissues.
three types of blood vessels?
arteries, capillaries, veins
veins
vessels that transport blood from capillaries toward heart
Arterioles
small terminal branches of an artery which end in capillaries
Venules
very small veins that connect capillaries to larger veins
What neurotransmitter is used by the neuromuscular system to initiate muscle contraction?
acetylcholine (ACh)
The heart is divided into what?
Four chambers: two atria (gather blood from body) & two ventricles (which pump blood out to the body)
Respiratory system
A system of organs (the lungs and respiratory passageways) that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream.
Respiratory system is also know as?
Pulmonary system
Primary role of the respiratory system?
to ensure proper cellular function
Respiratory pump
composed of structures (bones) and soft tissues (muscles) that work together to allow proper respiratory mechanics and to pump blood back to heart during inspiration
Inspiration
actively contracting the inspiratory muscles to move air into the body.
Expiration
actively or passively relaxing the inspiratory muscles to move air out of the body.
Inhalation
Inspiration
Exhalation
Expiration
Normal breathing requires what muscles?
primary respiratory (diaphragm, external intercostals)
Heavy breathing requires what muscles?
Primary respiratory and secondary respiratory muscles (scalenes, pectoralis minor)
Two categories of respiratory passages?
conducting airways and respiratory airways
Conducting airways?
structures that air travels thru before entering respiratory airways.
incoming air is purified, humidified and temperature regulated to match body
- nasal and oral cavities, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles
Respiratory airways?
collect channeled air from conducting airways.
Alveolar sacs?
where gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in and out of the bloodstream (diffusion)
Diffusion
The process
of getting oxygen from
the environment to the
tissues of the body.
Oxygen uptake
Oxygen consumption / the use of oxygen by the body
Resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is approximately __ of oxygen per ___ per ____
approximately 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute
1 metabolic (MET)
VO2 = Q X A - VO2 difference
Flick equation
oxygen consumption
(product of cardiac output) [Q, or HR x SV] X (Difference in the oxygen btw blood in arteries and blood in veins) [a-VO2]
Best measure of cardio-respiratory fitness?
Max oxygen consumption
Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max) definition
The highest rate of
oxygen transport and
utilization achieved at
maximal physical exertion.
VO2 max ranges
40 to 80 mL · kg –1 · min –1 , or approximately 11 to 23 METs
How to measure VO2
ventilation, oxygen consumption, and carbon
dioxide production during a maximal exercise test
sub: Rockport
Walk Test, the Step Test, and the YMCA bike protocol test
Potential abnormal breathing scenarios?
- using secondary respiratory muscles
- Postural role
- excessive short shallow breaths
- inadequate oxygen and retention of metabolic waste in muscles
- inadequate joint motion of spine and rib cage
Bioenergetics
The study of energy in the human body.
Metabolism
All of the chemical reactions that occur in the body to maintain itself.
Metabolism is the process in which nutrients are
acquired, transported,
used, and disposed of by
the body.
Exercise metabolism
The examination of bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands placed on the body during exercise.
Substrates
The material or substance on which an enzyme acts
Substrates? includes?
The material or substance on which an enzyme acts.
Includes carbohydrates, proteins and fats
Carbohydrates?
Organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which include starches, cellulose, and sugars, and are an important source of energy. All carbohydrates are eventually broken down in the body to glucose, a simple sugar.
Glucose
A simple sugar manufactured by the body from carbohydrates, fat, and to a lesser extent protein, which serves as the body's main source of fuel.
Glycogen
complex carb molecule that stores carbs in liver and muscle cells. Converted into glucose for energy when needed.
Fat?
class of food and source of energy for body.
helps with use some vitamins and keep the skin healthy.
Two types of fat?
saturated and unsaturated.
Three classes of food?
fat, protein, carbs
Triglycerides
Low density lipid (bad cholesterol) / The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists.
Protein
Amino acids linked by peptide bonds, consisting of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and usually sulfur, and that have several essential biologic compounds.
Gluconeogenesis
The formation of glucose from noncarb sources such as amino acids.
Adenosine Triphosphate
ATP - energy storage and transfer unit within body cells.
Adenosine Diphosphate
High-energy compound occurring in all cells from which adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed.
What is the energy process for ATP?
When chemical bonds holding ATP together are broken, energy is released for cellular work (like muscle contraction).
Function of energy metabolism with ATP and ADP?
harness enough free energy to reattach a phosphate group to an ADP and restore ATP levels back to normal to perform more work.
Any form of exercise can be defined by two factors?
intensity and duration
How much of the energy released from ATP is used for cell work and where does the rest go?
40%, released as heat.
Three metabolic pathways which cells can generate ATP?
- The ATP-PC system
- The glycolytic system (glycolysis)
- The oxidative system (oxidative phosphorylation)
phosphorylation?
adding another phosphate group to ADP b4 ATP can release additional energy
phosphagen?
ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) and PC (Phosphocreatine) together
Fastest and simplest of the energy systems?
Phosphocreatine molecule (ATP-PC system)
ATP-PC system with or without oxygen?
Anaerobic (no oxygen)
ATP-PC generally used for what type of excercise?
power and strength forms of training, like sprints
ATP-PC process?
____+____ —-> ____+_____
Creatine phosphate + Adenosine diphosphate —–> Creatine + Adenosine triphosphate
Glycolysis
Anerobic means of producing ATP through chemical breakdown of glucose.
Glycolysis is limited to how long?
30 - 50 seconds.
Oxidative System explained?
Process that uses substrates with the aid of oxygen to generate ATP (Aerobic)
3 oxidative or aerobic systems?
- Aerobic glycolysis
- The Krebs cycles
- The electron transport chain (ETC)
β-oxidation
the breakdown of triglycerides into FFA (free fatty acids, which are subunits) to convert FFAS to acyl-CoA molecules to be available for the Krebs cycles (production of ATP)
Pyruvic acid is converted into an important molecule in metabolism called ?
acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA)
NADH
“nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) + hydrogen (H).” This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that generates energy. People use NADH supplements as medicine.
ATP = ___ + ____
ADP + Pi
For one cycle of cross-bridge, how many ATPs?
2
Aerobic Metabolism:
Carbs into ?
Triglycerides into ?
Proteins into ?
Carbs into glucose
Triglycerides into fatty acids
Proteins into amino acids
The glycogen process of aerobic glycolysis?
Glycogen—>___—>___—>___ & ___+____
Glycogen —> Glucose —> Pyruvic Acid—> ATP & Co2+ H20
The glycogen process of anaerobic glycolysis?
Glycogen—>___—>___—>___
Glycogen —> Glucose —> Pyruvic Acid—> Lactic Acid
Process in both aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis?
ADP + Pi —-> ATP
ATP
adenosine triphosphate
ADP
adenosine diphosphate
Excess post exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
The state
in which the body’s
metabolism is elevated
after exercise.
phosphocreatine
is a phosphorylated creatine molecule that serves as a rapidly mobilizable reserve of high-energy phosphates in skeletal muscle, myocardium and the brain to recycle adenosine triphosphate, the energy currency of the cell. (wiki)
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) ?
CO2 / O2 consumed
measured during rest or steady state.
If RQ is at 1 what is happening?
100% fuel from carbs
RQ stand for?
Respiratory Quotient
If QR is btw .7 and 1?
mix of carbs and fats fueling metabolism.
One molecule of glucose produces how many ATPs?
38
Main function of Acetyl CoA
acetyl coenzyme A
The main function is to deliver the acetyl group to the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) to be oxidized for energy production.
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
Which term refers to the assistance of amino acids in energy production during periods of starvation?
Gluconeogenesis
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?
Remains elevated
During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into which important molecule in metabolism?
Acetyl coenzyme A
EPOC
Excess postexcercise oxygen consumption
Gluconeogenesis
During a
negative energy balance (e.g., low-calorie diet), amino acids are used to assist in energy
production.
When does your body use the glycolysis for energy?
activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds
What energy system is used most when running a 10-second sprint?
ATP-PC
A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. What energy system?
Oxidative
When would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism during excercise?
At the beginning
After leaving the left ventricle, blood enters which structure?
Aorta
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?
Pulmonary Arteries
Human Movement efficiency cycle? List phases
Movement > Internal environment > External environment > Summation of all information > Central nervous system
Biomechanics
The science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces.
Superior
position ABOVE reference point
Inferior
position BELOW reference point
Proximal
position NEAREST the center of the body or point of reference
Distal
position AWAY from the center of the body or point of reference
Anterior
position on or toward the front of the body
Posterior? also called?
dorsal. on the back of the body
Medial
position near the midline of body
Lateral
position away from the midline of body
Contralateral
position on the opposite side of the body
Ipsilateral
position on the same side of the body
Three planes of motion?
Frontal, Saggittal and transverse
Anatomic position?
The position with the body
erect with the arms at
the sides and the palms
forward.
Saggittal plane
An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves.
Flexion
bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decrease.
Extension
straightening movement where the relative angle btw 2 adjacent segments increase
Frontal Plane
Imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves
Abduction
movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body
Adduction
movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body
Transverse plane
imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves
Internal rotation
rotation of joint toward the middle of the body
External rotation
rotation of joint away from the middle of the body
Horizontal abduction
movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from an anterior position to a lateral position
Horizontal adduction
movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position
Scapular retraction
Adduction of scapula. shoulder blades move toward the midline
Scapular protraction
Abduction of scapula. shoulder blades move away from the midline
Scapular depression
downward (inferior) motion of the scapula
Scapular elevation
upward (superior) motion of the scapula
The Rockport walk test is used to determine?
Estimated oxygen consumption
During a client’s static postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. What muscle requires static stretching?
Gastrocnemius
Which method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
Skinfold measurement
What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?
Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
What assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
Bench press 1RM test
Eccentric. Ex?
- muscle lengthen & contracts
- contract < resistance
- ex: lowering weight during a resistance exercise
Concentric. What theory associated with?
- muscle shorten & contracts
- exert force > resistance
- sliding filament theory
Isometric. Ex?
- no change, usually in between eccentric and concentric
- dynamic force stabilizes force
- contract = resistance force
Two types of Isotonic muscle actions?
Eccentric and Concentric
Isotonic
Constant muscle tension
iso
same or equal
tonic
tension
metric
length
Isokinetic
muscle shortens at a constant speed over full range of motion.
Force
magnitude and direction
What type of muscle action?
Velocity goes up, ability to produce force decrease
Concentric
What type of muscle action?
Velocity goes up, ability to produce force goes up
Eccentric
Length velocity relationship
resting length of a muscle and tension the muscle can produce at the resting length
Force-couple relationships
producing movement around joint with all muscle actions: eccentric, isometric, concentric and all functions: agonists, synergists, stabilizers and antagonists
Muscular leverage components
fulcrum, rotary motion, torque
Fulcrum
muscle pivot point for motion resistance, body weight or object weight
Rotary motion
movement of the bones around joints
Torque
force that produces rotation
Components of motor behavior
motor control, motor learning, motor development
Motor control
posture and movements involved with CNS to produce movement
Motor learning
use motor control to prac an experience permanently produced skilled movement
Motor development
change in motor behavior over time throughout life
Efficient motor control includes?
- proprioception
- sensorimotor integration
- muscle synergies
Agonist?
Synergist?
Stabilizer?
Antagonist?
Agonist - prime mover
Synergist - assist agonist
Stabilizer - stabilizes agonist and synergist
Antagonist - opposite agonist
Systolic blood pressure
pressure in arterial system after heart contracts
Diastolic blood pressure
pressure in arterial system when heart is rested and filled with blood
normal blood pressure range
120 / 80 (systolic / diastolic)
fat mass equation
body fat % x scale weight
Ex: .28(body fat%) X 130 (scale weight) = 36 pounds of fat
lean body mass
scale weight - fat mass
heart rate reserve
((HRmax - HRrest) x Intensity ) + HR rest
Karvonen method, method of establishing training intensity on the basis of difference between a client’s predicted maximal HR and their resting HR.
estimated max HR
220 - age
Training Zone 1
HR%? & function?
X.65 - X.75
builds aerobic base and aids in recovery
Training Zone 2
HR%? & function?
X.76 - X.86
increases aerobic and anerobic endurance
Training Zone 3
HR%? & function?
X.86 - X.95
builds high end work capacity
Average body fat % range for women?
20 - 38
Average body fat % range for men?
8 - 25
Essential body fat % for men and women
men 3-5 / women 8 - 12
Average resting heart rate range?
60 - 100
BMI underweight?
< 18.5
homeostasis
dynamic postural equilibrium
altered R1
tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist
cumulative injury cycle
tissue trauma > inflammation > muscle spasm > adhesions > altered neuromuscular control > muscle imbalance
types of flexibility in order?
Corrective
Active
Functional
What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?
Posterior hip
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
Static Stretching
Alan is utilizing self-myofascial release for his corrective flexibility protocols. Where should the foam roll be placed for the latissimus dorsi?
Under the arm
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
Groin region inside upper thigh
Extensibility
capability of soft tissues to be elongated or stretched
Static stretching should be used when muscles have been ?
overactive
Autogenic inhibition
neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
Reciprocal inhibition
simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place
Altered reciprocal inhibition
caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist
Synergistic dominance
inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover
Self-Myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogeneic inhibition by doing what?
stimulating the golgi tendon organ
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which muscle?
Psoas
Predictable patterns of muscle imbalance?
Postural distortion patterns
How should dynamic stretching be performed?
at a controlled speed
What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, explain pelvis tilt?
Posteriorly rotated pelvis
How does joint connective tissue function? types?
Fibrous and flexible, providing stability and proprioception
What term describes the act of synergists taking over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?
Synergistic dominance
What term refers to the simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist?
Reciprocal inhibition
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension?
Quadriceps
Supine
person lying face up
types of muscle contractions?
Isotonic (eccentric & concentric), isometeric, isokinetic
Isokinetic muscle contraction
constant velocity of motion
Isotonic muscle contraction
constant muscle tension
Isometric muscle contraction
constant muscle length
Eccentric muscle contraction
Tension while lengthening
Concentric muscle contraction
shortening of the muscle, visible joint movement
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?
Self-Myofascial release
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client’s warm-up?
Hip Flexor complex
During an overhead squat assessment, a client’s knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client’s underactive musculature?
Tube Walk: side to side
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
Psoas
Which of the following clients would use active-isolated stretching during a warm-up?
Strength Level client
The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?
Reciprocal Inhibition
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of?
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Anterior Tibialis stretch?
Top of toe pushing into ground
Plantar
sole of foot
Dorsiflexion
raising foot upward toward shin
Dorsal
upward
Plantarflexion
moving foot downward away from shin
Inversion
lean outside / supination
Eversion
lean inside / pronation
When the body is trying to regulate its temperature correctly, which sensory receptors does it rely on?
Thermorecptors
What is the main characteristic of motor (efferent) neurons?
They stimulate muscle contraction and create movement
The 3 major muscle types in the Human body?
cardiac, smooth, skeletal
Within the muscle, where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
Capillaries
If there is not enough oxygen when sprinting or when first beginning to exercise, which of the following is created?
Lactic acid
Shoulder abduction is a result of the force-coupling between which muscles?
Deltoid and rotator cuff
Which of the following initiates the electrical impulses that determine the heart rate?
Sinoatrial (SA) node
In regard to fatigue, what is a characteristic of Type II (fast-twitch) muscle fibers?
not slow to fatigue
During a biceps curl, the triceps brachii would be considered what type of mover?
Antagonist
Posterior Tibialis stretch?
Standing calf stretch, heel raises, exercise band resist pronation or supination
Soleus Stretch?
Bend knee standing calf stretch
Gastrocnemius stretch?
standing calf stretch
Peroneus Longus also called?
fibularis longus
Peroneus longus stretch?
supination of foot from a seated position with leg on knee
Peroneus longus is the antogonist to what muscles?
Anterior tibialis and Peroneus tertius tendon
Opposing muscle of the gastrocnemius and the soleus?
Anterior tibialis
Posterior Tibialis opposite muscle?
Peroneus / fibularis longus brevis
Hamstring complex muscles?
biceps femoris (long and short head), Semimembranosus, semitendinosus
Lower leg muscles?
Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, soleus, gastrocnemius, peroneus longus
Biceps femoris stretch?
supine biceps femoris stretch (bent leg up and extend up)
Semimembranosus stretch?
hip extension, knee flexion.
This muscle is posterior and medial of tibia
Semitendinosus stretch?
hip extension, knee flexion.
This muscle is medial middle portion of muscle
Cardiorespiratory fitness training: body functions?
The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during sustained physical activity.
5 components of health related physical fitness
Cardiorespiratory, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition
Integrated cardiorespiratory
Cardiorespiratory training programs that systematically progress clients thru stages to achieve optimal levels of physiologic, physical and performance adaptions by placing stress on system.
Pulmonary circuit
blood flow btw heart and lungs
Systemic circuit (in body)
allows blood to flow to and from the rest of the body
Coronary circuit
just provides blood to heart
What is important to consider when designing an integrated cardiorespiratory training program?
rate of progression
an improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness is related
to a reduction in ?
premature death from all causes
Initial exercise prescription should reflect what three things?
- Initial client fitness level
- client fitness assessment results
- whether the client has significant risk factor or health limitations.
Each training session should include what phases?
Warmup
Conditioning
Cool-down
General warm-up
low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise to follow
specific warm-up
(Dynamic stretching) low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise to follow
Benefits of a warm-up
- Increased heart and respiratory rate
- increased tissue temperature
- increased psychological preparation
Effects of a warm-up
increases:
- cardiorespiratory system’s capacity to perform
- blood flow to active muscle tissue
- O2 exchange capacity
- rate of muscle contraction
- efficiency of opposing muscle contraction and relaxation
- metabolic rate
- soft tissue tissue extensibility
-mental readiness
cardio warm up time period and consists of?
5-10 mins, whole body, dynamic cardiovascular or muscular movements
the purpose of warmups?
to raise heart and respiration rates, tissue temperature and psychologically prepare
Warm-up for the stabilization level client should include what components?
self-myofascial release, static stretching, cardiorespiratory excercise
Warm-up for the stabilization level client should include what components?
self-myofascial release, static stretching, cardiorespiratory excercise
Warm-up for the strength level client should include what components?
self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, cardiorespiratory
Warm-up for the power level client should include what components?
self-myofascial release, dynamic stretching
Example of aerobic training?
Cardio - running, jogging, walking, skating, rowing, swimming
Example of anaerobic training?
quick bursts of energy for a short period of time, HIIT, strength training, sprints
Benefits of cool-down
- reduce heart and breathing rates
- gradually cool body temperature
- return muscles to optimal length-tension relationships
- prevent venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities
- restore physiologic systems close to baseline.
Cool down components include? and time?
cardiorespiratory exercise, self-myofascial release, static stretching
5-10 mins
For static stretching, which muscles should you focus on during warm-up and cool-down?
warm-up: only areas that are tight or overactive
cool-down: areas used during workout
FITTE
Frequency, intensity, time, type and enjoyment
Aerobic activity recommended for 5 days per week?
150 mins per week
moderate-intensity aerobic activity (brisk walking)
Aerobic activity recommended for 3 days per week?
75 mins per week
vigorous-intensity aerobic activity (jogging or running)
FITTE
Frequency, intensity, time, type and enjoyment
Aerobic activity recommended for 5 days per week?
150 mins per week
moderate-intensity aerobic activity (brisk walking)
Aerobic activity recommended for 3 days per week?
75 mins per week
vigorous-intensity aerobic activity (jogging or running)
Light % HRmax? & %Vo2R?
35-54 & 20-39
Moderate % HRmax? & %Vo2R?
55-69 & 40-59
Hard % HRmax?
70-89
Intensity definition?
the level of demand that a given activity places on the body
how is intensity monitored?
HR , power output (watts), calculating (VO2 max) or(VO2R)
Max oxygen consumption (Vo2 max)
the highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion.
For general health requirements what intensity is preferred?
moderate, less than 60% VO2R, does not exhaust the average untrained healthy adult.
one MET =
3.5 mL O2 kg -1 min -1
average RMP (resting metabolic rate)
What does MET representing in relationship to resting?
MET value of 4 means the exercises requires 4 times the energy of that person at rest.
MET for jogging?
4
What is the Karvonen method?
Heart Rate Reserve HRR: based on difference btw clients HRmax and HRrest
Ventilatory threshold (Tvent)
The point during graded exercise in which ventilation increases disproportionately to oxygen uptake, signifying a switch from predominately aerobic energy production to anaerobic energy production.
During dynamic exercise, heart rate and oxygen are related how?
linearly
RPE
Rating of perceived exertion, rating the perceived difficulty of exercise. Based on increased heart rate, respiration rate, sweating and muscle fatigue
Type
mode or type of activity selected
Recommended exercise per week?
2.5hrs moderate or 1.25 vigorous
Characteristics of aerobic exercises ?
- rhythmic in nature
- use large muscle groups
- be continuous in nature
example: running, jogging, walking, swimming, cardio equipment, cycling
Frequency in FITTE
number of training sessions in a given time period (per week usually)
General fitness improvement usually require what level % of intensity?
over 60%
VO2
Volume of Oxygen Consumption
Formula for Peak VO2?
Target VO2 = VO2max X intensity desired
Principle of specificity
The body will adapt to the level of stress placed on it and will then require more and varied amounts of stress to produce a higher level of adaption in the future.
Overtraining
excessive frequency, volume, or intensity of training resulting in fatigue caused from lack of proper rest and recovery
Jogging is an example of what training zone? with what heart percentage? and how on walk test?
Zone 1
65-75%
be able to hold convo
Group exercise classes and spinning are examples of what training zone? with what heart percentage?
Zone 2
76 - 85%
Sprinting is an example of what training zone? with what heart percentage?
Zone 3
86 - 95%
When in training zone 1, when will you be ready for zone 2?
maintain zone one heart rate for at least 30 minutes two - three times per week.
Borg scale range walking or jogging
12-13
Borg scale range spinning
14-16
Borg scale range sprinting
17-19
Borg scale resting
6
Beginning client circuit training example workout ?
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)
5-10 min stage 1 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 1 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)
(basic) Intermediate client circuit training example workout ?
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & active isolation stretching)
5-10 min stage 2 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 2 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)
Advanced client circuit training example workout ?
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & dynamic stretching)
5-10 min stage 3 cardiorespiratory training
15-20 min circuit weight training
5-10 min Stage 3 cardiorespiratory training
5-10 min flexibility (SMR & Static stretching)
Some common postural considerations during cardiorespiratory training?
- Upper Crossed Syndrome (rounded shoulder, forward head posture)
- Lower crossed syndrome (Anteriorly rotated pelvis and arched lower back)
- Pronation Distortion Syndrome (Feet turn out and knees move in )
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
What does integrated cardiorespiratory training do to your heart rate?
decreases
What is the cause of knock knees during a squat?
- decreased hip abduction and hip external rotation strength
- increased hip adduction strength
- restricted ankle dorsiflexion
The Core is made up of what muscles?
LPHC (Lumbo-Pelvis-Hip Complex)
- Lumbar Spine
- Pelvic Girdle
- Hip Joint
- Abdomen
Three core musculature systems?
- Local stabilization system
- Global stabilization system
- Movement stabilization system
Recruitment patterns also known as?
force-couple relationships
What allows for neuromuscular efficiency in the muscles of the LPHC?
- optimal lengths (or length-tension relationships)
- recruitment patterns (or force-couple relationships)
- joint motions (or arthrokinematics)
LPHC stands for?
Lumbo-Pelvis-Hip Complex
Local Stabilization system consist of primarily what type of muscle fibers? and a high density of?
Type 1 Slow twitch & muscle spindles
Local Stabilization system consists of what muscles?
Transversus abdominis, internal oblique, lumbar multifidus, pelvic floor muscles, diaphragm
Global Stabilization system consists of what muscles?
Quadratus lumborum, Psoas major, external oblique, parts of internal oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex
The adductor complex consists of what muscles?
Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilis, pectineus
The Movement system consists of what muscles?
Latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps
The Global Stabilization system connects which two bones?
pelvis to the spine
The Global stabilization system provides what functions during functional movements?
Stabilization and eccentric control of core during functional movements
The movement system provides what 3 things during functional movements?
- produce force (concentric contractions),
- reduce force (eccentric actions)
- dynamic stabilization in all planes of movement during functional activities.
Optimal lengths also known as?
length-tension relationships
Drawing in maneuver
A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel toward spine.
Bracing
occurs when you have contracted both abdominal, lower back and buttock muscles at same time.
EMG
Electromyography - a procedure that measures the electrical conducting function of nerves in muscles.
Core training variables?
- plane of motion
- range of motion
- type of resistance
- body position
- speed of motion
- duration
- frequency
- amount of feedback
Core training exercise selection should have what traits?
- progressive
- systematic
- activity / goal-specific
- integrated
- proprioceptively challenging
- based in current science
Core training variable - range of motions?
full, partial, end-range
Core training variable - types of resistance exercise?
cable, tubing, medicine ball, power ball, dumbbells, kettlebells.
Core training variable - Body positions?
supine, prone, side, kneeling, half-kneeling, stand, staggered-stance, single-leg, standing progression on unstable surface
Core training variable - speed of motion?
Stabilization, strength, power
Core training variable - amount of feedback types?
fitness professional cues, kinesthetic awareness
Core training exercise selection - progressive types?
- easy to hard
- simple to complex
- known to unknown
- stable to unstable
Core training exercise selection - systematic types?
Stabilization, strength, power
Core training exercise selection - proprioceptively challenging types?
- stability ball
- BOSU ball
- Reebok core board
- half foam roll
- airex pad
- bodyblade
Goals of a core training program?
- neuromuscular efficiency
- stability
- functional strength
What types of stability is needed during core training?
intervertebral and lumbopelvic stability - local and global stabilization systems
What is more important during a core training program?
increasing proprioceptive demand or external resistance
increasing proprioceptive demand
Core training program should achieve what functional outcomes in this order?
- Intervertebral stability
- Lumbopelvic stability
- Movement effeciency
Core stabilization training should be programmed for how long?
traditionally about 4 weeks
Sample core stabilization exercises?
Marching, floor bridges, floor prone cobra, prone iso-ab (plank)
In what phases do you use core strength training?
2,3,4
Core strength exercises are designed to improve what?
dynamic stabilization, concentric strength (force production), eccentric strength (force reduction) and neuromuscular efficiency of entire kinetic chain.
Examples of core strength exercises?
ball crunch, back extensions, reverse crunch, cable rotations
In phase do you use core power training?
5
Core power training is design to improve?
the rate of force production of the core musculature
Examples of core power training exercises?
rotation chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover throw, front MB oblique throw, soccer throw
Core training programs must be..?
systematic, progressive, goal-specific, integrated and proprioceptively challenging
Stabilization, phase 1 program?
of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
1-4 exercises / 1-4 sets / 12-20 reps / slow tempo / 0-90 sec rest
Strength, phase 2,3,4 program?
of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
0-4 exercises / 2-3 sets / 8-12 reps / med tempo / 0-60 secs rest
Power, phase 5 program?
of Exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
0-2 exercises / 2-3 sets / 8-12 reps / fast as can control tempo / 0-60 secs rest
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
Core-Power
What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?
Transferring loads btw upper and lower extremities
Quadricep muscles?
vastus lateralis, vastus medialis (VMO), vastus intermedius, rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis stretch?
kneeling hip stretch, hand grabbing foot and pushing out lateraly
Vastus medialis stretch?
sitting leg extensions, single leg ball squat on wall, leg extensions turned out, bridge with ball btw legs
Vastus medialis synergistic muscles?
Vastus lateralis, Vastus intermedius, Rectus femoris
Vastus medialis antagonistic muscles?
hamstring muscle group, gastrocnemius
Vastus Intermedius muscle exercises?
standing leg pull, sitting on heels lean,
Rectus Femoris actions?
knee extension, knee flexion
Rectus Femoris stretch?
knee flexion, hip extension, knee hip stretch and actively pull feet toward glute, active push and pull leg over heel (push foot not touching ground)
Balance requires optimal what 3 things?
- muscle balance
- joint dynamics
- neuromuscular efficiency
Definition: Limit of stability?
distance outside base of support with losing control of center of gravity
Balance-stabilization exercises should require what?
little joint motion of balance leg
Balance progression stages in order (surfaces)
- Two-leg / stable surface
- Single-leg / stable surface
- Two-leg / unstable surface
- Single-leg / unstable surface
Balance stabilization training exercise examples include?
- Single-leg balance
- single leg hip internal/external rotation
- single-leg balance reach
- single-leg lift and chop
- single-leg throw and catch
Balance strength level phase 2, 3, 4 named?
2: Strength endurance
3: Hypertrophy
4: Maximal strength
Balance strength exercise have what types of movements?
- eccentric and concentric movements
- full range of motion
- movement of balance leg
- medium tempo
Balance strength training exercise examples include?
- singe-leg squat,
- single-leg squat touchdown
- single-leg romanian deadlift
- step-up to balance
- lunge to balance
- multiplanar lunge to balance
Balance power training exercises develop what?
- high levels of eccentric strength
- dynamic neuromuscular efficiency
- relative joint stabilization
Balance power training exercise examples include?
- multiplanar hop with stabilization,
- multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
- multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
Balance definiton?
When the body is in equilibrium and stationary, meaning no linear or angular movement
Dynamic Balance definition?
The ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling.
Integrated performance paradigm requires what?
Core and neuromuscular stabilization with eccentric and concentric force
Effects of joint dysfunction in order?
Joint dysfunction > Muscle inhibition > Joint Injury > Swelling > Altered proprioception
After what injuries is sensory feedback to the CNS altered?
ankle sprains, ligamentous injuries, low-back pain
Plyometerics definition?
jump training or plyos, are exercises in which muscles exert maximum force in short intervals of time, with the goal of increasing power (speed-strength).
When creating a balance training program, what are some parameters to consider?
Safety, progressive, proprioceptively challenging, plane of motion, body position
Balance training program - how can the program progress?
- easy to hard
- simple to complex
- stable to unstable
- static to dynamic
- slow to fast
- two arms/legs to single arm/leg
- eyes open to eyes closed
- know to unknown (cognitive)
Balance training program - how can the you challenge the workout proprioceptively?
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc, wobble board, BOSU ball
Single leg romanian deadlift
one legged, spine neutral, flat back, hand touching toe
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
Plyometric training is?
Reactive training or jump training
Included eccentric to concentric movements
3 Phases of plyometic training?
- Eccentric (loading) phase
- Amortization (transition) phase
- Concentric (unloading) phase
Pre-requisites for Plyometrics?
- Adequate core strength
- Ability to properly stabilize
Goal of plyometrics training?
Improve the rate of force production
Plyometerics-stabilization exercises have what characteristics?
- jumping movement with 3-5 second landing hold
- optimize land mechanics
- improve postural alignment
- enhance coordination
Plyometerics-strength exercises have what characteristics?
- jumping movement
- decreased amount of time on ground
Plyometerics-power exercises have what characteristics?
- as fast and explosively as possible
- need very good technique first
Plyometerics-stabilization exercises examples?
jump squat with stabilization, box jump with stabilization and multiplanar jump with stabilization
Plyometerics-strength exercises examples?
squat jump, tuck jump, butt kicks, step ups
Plyometerics-power exercises examples?
ice skaters, single leg power step up, proprioceptive plyometric drills
What type of exercise and at what level is the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?
Plyometric-power training
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?
Power
Name a plyometric-power exercise?
Proprioceptive plyometrics
During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
Quadriceps
Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?
Reactive-power
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
Flexion
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?
Plyometric-stabilization training
What exercise requires that the knees always stay in line with the toes during the takeoff and landing components?
Power step up
Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise?
Plyometric-power
Integrated performance paradigm states?
The integrated performance paradigm states that to move with
precision, forces must be loaded (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then unloaded or accelerated (concentrically).
The eccentric phase of plyometric exercise is also called what? and increases what?
deceleration, loading, yielding, counter movement or cocking phase
increases muscle spindle activity by prestretching the muscle before activation.
where is potential energy stored during the eccentric phase of plyometric exercises?
the the elastic components of the muscle, like a rubber band
The amortization phase involves what?
dynamic stabilization
it is the time between the end of the eccentric muscle action and the concentric contraction which the muscle switches from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction.
The shorter the amortization phase, the more or less powerful?
more powerful
The concentric phase of plyometric training involves what?
concentric contraction
Plyometric training enhances what?
the excitability, sensitivity, and reactivity of the neuromuscular system and increase the rate of force production (power), motor unit recruitment, firing frequency (rate coding), and motor unit synchronization
Stretch-shortening cycles require?
the neuromuscular system to react quickly and efficiently after an eccentric muscle action to produce a concentric contraction and impart the necessary force (or acceleration) in the appropriate direction.
Plyometric training concepts: exercise selection characteristics?
safe, done with supportive shoes, performed on proper training surface (grass field, court, track surface), proper supervision, progressive
Plyometric training concepts: exercise variables?
- plane of motion
- range of motion
- type of resistance
- type of implements (tape, cones, boxes)
- muscle action
- speed of motion
- duration
- frequency
- amplitude of movement
Plyometric power exercises are designed to improve?
the rate of force production, eccentric
strength, reactive strength, reactive joint stabilization, dynamic neuromuscular efficiency, and optimal force production
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
Plyometric training exercise program for Stabilization clients?
0-2 / 1-3 / 5-8 / controlled (3-5 sec stabilization holds) / 0-90sec
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
Plyometric training exercise program for Strength clients?
0-4 / 2-3 / 8-10 / medium repeating / 0-60sec
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Tempo / Rest
Plyometric training exercise program for Power clients?
0-2 / 2-3 / 8-12 / fast as possible / 0-60sec
Adductor Longus stretch?
all fours with straight leg extended out and slide down, butterflies, all fours side to side
Isometeric
relating to or denoting muscular action in which tension is developed without contraction of the muscle.
What muscle is primarily used when crossing legs?
Adductor longus
Adductor Magnus stretch?
leg up on chair and pull down, happy baby, frog pose
Adductor Brevis stretch?
side kick
Gracilis stretch?
Lunge with leg turned out
Pectineus stretch?
sitting clam shell with lean back
Adductor Minimus stretch?
Side kick in
One-ins are an example of what type of drill?
an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions for ankle, knee and hip?
Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?
Those with limited horizontal inertia
What should be extended while sprinting?
hip extension
A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?
Stand up to figure 8
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
Keeping heart rate appropriately elevated
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during running movements?
The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.
Stride rate?
the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance
Speed is the product of what two things?
stride rate and stride length
Stride length?
the distance covered with each stride during running
Frontside mechanics
Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
Backside mechanics
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.
During frontside and backside mechanics what has to stay neutral?
pelvis
Agility?
the ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture.
Kinetic chain checkpoints during running movements?
- foot/ankle complex
- knee complex
- LPHC
- Head
Quickness?
the ability to ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.
Example SAQ drills for youth?
Red light, green light & Follow the Snake
When designing SAQ programs for weight loss, the primary focus should be to?
keep HR appropriately elevated to increase fat oxidation and caloric expenditure
SAQ example circuit for weight loss populations?
Circuit 1:
- 30 sec jump rope, 20 sec rest
- 30 sec cone shuffle, 20 sec rest
- 30 sec ladder drills, 20 sec rest
Circuit 2:
- 30 sec 5-10-5 drill, 20 sec rest
- 30 sec modified box drill, 20 sec rest
- 30 sec partnered mirror drill, 20 sec rest
Primary function of SAQ training in seniors?
to prevent age-related decreases in bone density, coordinative ability, and muscular power.
What is Osteopenia?
loss of bone density
What is Sarcopenia?
age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass
SAQ drills for seniors?
Varied size cone / hurdle step overs & stand up to figure 8
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest
SAQ exercise program for Stabilization clients?
4-6 drills with limited horizontal inertia & unpredictability (cone shuffles and agility ladder) / 1-2 sets / 2-3 Reps / 0-60sec rest
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest
SAQ exercise program for Strength clients?
6-8 drills with greater horizontal inertia & limited unpredictability (5-10-5, T-drill, Box drill, Stand up to figure 8) / 3-4 sets / 3-5 Reps / 0-60sec rest
of exercises / Sets / Reps / Rest
SAQ exercise program for Power clients?
6-10 drills with max horizontal inertia & unpredictability (modified box drill, partner mirror drill, timed drills) / 3-5 sets / 3-5 Reps / 0-90sec rest
Gluteus medius exercises?
tube walks, monster walks toe taps (w/ resistance bands too), clamshell
Gluteus minimus exercises?
glute raises, lunge to high knee
Gluteus maximus exercises?
squats, hip thrust
TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae) Stretch?
Cross legs and lean on wall
Psoas stretch?
Twisted lizard, cat cow with lateral leg, lateral leg with arm reach over
Iliacus muscle stretch?
twist lizard, bridge, side lying leg pull back, hips up
Sartorius muscle stretch?
Tree pose, squat, lunge
Piriformis muscle stretch?
supine glute stretch, 90 degree stretch sitting
Rectus Abdominis exercises?
yoga abs, bird dog, sit ups
External Oblique exercises?
Any twisting abs, side planks, spidey pushups, bent yoga v-ups
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?
Peripheral heart action
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program.
What training method is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Circuit training
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
Vertical loading
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?
Metabolic specificity
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
two legs
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
split-routine system
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, which of the following exercises would you perform immediately after a barbell squat?
seated row
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?
muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following best describes the split-routine system used in resistance training?
Training different body parts on separate days
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?
Pyramid system
General adaption syndrome?
a term used
to describe how the body
responds and adapts to
stress.
What is eustress?
stress that over time allows the human movement system to adapt and maintain homeostatic states under a variety of conditions.
Three stages in response to stress?
Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
Physiologic adaptive benefits of resistance training?
- improved cardiovascular efficiency
- endocrine (hormone) & serum lipid (cholesterol) adaptations
- increase bone density
- increased metabolic efficiency (metabolism)
Physical adaptive benefits of resistance training?
- increased tissue (muscle, tendons, ligaments) tensile strength
- increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers
- decreased body fat
Performance adaptive benefits of resistance training?
- increased neuromuscular control (coordination)
- increased endurance
- increased strength
- increased power
Alarm reaction stage, explain?
initial reaction to stressor such as increased oxygen and blood supply to necessary areas of the body
Resistance development stage, explain?
increased functional capacity to adapt to stressor such as increasing motor unit recruitment
Exhaustion stage, explain?
a prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury
Exhaustion stage can lead to?
stress fractures, muscle strains, joint pain, emotional fatigue
What is periodization?
division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages.
Training related injuries occur more often to what part of body? and why?
connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons because they lack blood supply
What is the principle of specificity?
SAID: specific adaptation to imposed demands.
The body will adapt to the demands placed on it
type 1 muscle fibers are necessary for what?
long-term contractions necessary for stabilization, endurance, postural control.
type 2 muscle fibers necessary for what?
fast twitch, produce max tension such as in sprinting
Mechanical specificity?
weight and movements placed on the body
Neuromuscular specificity?
speed of contraction and exercise selection
Metabolic specificity?
energy demand placed on body
Mechanically the body burns more calories when standing or seated?
standing
Neuromuscularly, the body burns more calories when more muscles are being used for longer or shorter periods of time in what type of environment?
longer, controlled but unstable
Metabolically, the body burns more calories when rest periods are ?
short
a well designed integrated training program produces optimal levels of? (6 things)
flexibility endurance neuromuscular control alterations in body composition strength power
muscular endurance
ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.
muscular hypertrophy
enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
Increase in myofibril proteins
strength
the ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external load
power
ability of neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time
Improves what?
24 weeks of training 3 days per week with 3 sets of 8–12 repetitions
muscle hypertrophy and body composition
Improves what?
2 sets of 20–28 repetitions
with 1-minute rest periods beginning at 2 days/week
local muscle endurance and hypertrophy
Improves what?
12 weeks of training, multiple sets of up to 15 repetitions, 4 times a week for 6 months
decrease body fat, increase local muscle endurance, increase lean body mass
Single - set resistance training system?
Performing one set of each exercise
Multiple - set resistance training system?
performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise
Pyramid resistance training system?
increasing or decreasing weight with each set
Superset resistance training system?
performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest inbtw
Drop-sets resistance training system?
performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set
Circuit resistance training system?
performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest
Peripheral heart action resistance training system?
circuit training that varies btw upper and lower body focuses for each exercise
Split-routine resistance training system?
routine that trains different body parts on seperate days
Vertical loading resistance training system?
following OPT model, vertically (one exercise for each body part - total body, chest, back, shoulders, biceps, triceps, legs)
Horizontal loading resistance training system?
following OPT model horizontal, completing sets of each exercise at a time.
ventral is also
anterior
dorsal is also
posterior
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
Leg-stabilization exercise
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the Stabilization Endurance Phase of training?
12-20
Low-volume training with high intensity increases which of the following?
rate of force production
A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate while performing resistance training?
a. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
b. Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity
c. Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity
d. 10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity
12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal?
a. 7 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 2 minutes
d. 30 seconds
30 seconds
During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
0-60 seconds
What is the recommended rest period for power adaptations during a training period?
3-5 minutes
When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
alternating arm
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training?
1-3
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise?
Alternating arm ball squat, curl to press
how many calories per gram does protein provide?
4 calories per gram
potential effect of ingesting too much iron?
gastrointestinal irritation
how can a trainer support a client in the action stage?
continue to education them concerning the benefits of exercise
what is PAR-Q?
Physical activity readiness questionnaire
What are the acute variables of training?
- repetitions
- sets
- training intensity
- repetition tempo
- training volume
- rest interval
- training frequency
- training duration
- exercise selection
one rep includes what three muscle actions?
concentric, isometric, eccentric
Muscular endurance and stabilization is best achieved by performing __ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)
1-3 sets, 12-20 reps, 50-70% of 1RM
Hypertrophy is best achieved by performing ___ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)
3-5 sets, 6-12 reps, 75-85% of 1RM
Max strength adaption is best achieved by performing ___ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)
4-6 sets, 1-5 reps, 85-100% of 1RM
Power adaption is best achieved by performing ____ sets, ___ reps @ ___% if the 1RM (rep max)
3-6 sets, 1-10 reps, 30-45% of 1RM or about 10% body weight
Typical rest period for muscular endurance and stabilization?
0-90sec
Typical rest period for hypertrophy?
0-60sec
Typical rest period for max strength adaption?
3-5min
Typical rest period for power adaption?
3-5min
rest intervals of how many seconds will allow for 50% recovery of ATP and PC?
20-30 seconds
rest intervals of how many seconds will allow for 100% recovery of ATP and PC?
3 minutes
Appropriate rest intervals factors include?
■ Training experience ■ Training intensity ■ Tolerance of short rest periods ■ Muscle mass ■ General fitness level ■ Training goals ■ Nutritional status ■ Recoverability
Training volume factors include?
◆ Training phase ◆ Goals ◆ Age ◆ Work capacity or training status ◆ Recoverability ◆ Nutritional status ◆ Injury history ◆ Life stress
Muscular endurance adaption recommended intensity?
50-70% of 1RM
Hypertrophy adaption recommended intensity?
75-85% of 1RM
Max strength adaption recommended intensity?
85-100% 1RM
Power adaption recommended intensity?
30-45% 1RM
Low Volume (high intensity) adaptions have an increase in what?
- rate of force production
- motor unit recruitment
- motor unit synchronization
High Volume (low/moderate intensity) adaptions have an increase in what?
- muscle cross section
- improved blood lipid serum profile (improved cholesterol and triglycerides)
- increased metabolic rate
what is training duration?
the timeframe of a workout or the length of time spent in one phase of training.
single joint exercise examples?
bicep curls, triceps pushdowns, calf raises
multijoint exercise examples?
squats, lunges, step-ups, chest presses, rows
Total body exercise examples?
step-up balance to overhead press, squat to two arm press, barbell clean
Step-ups and balance to overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
Stabilization, total body
Squat, curl to overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
Strength, total body
Two arm push press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
Power, total body
Ball dumbbell chest press, Ball dumbbell row, Standing overhead press are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
Stabilization, multijoint
bench press, seated row machine, shoulder press machine are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
strength, multijoint
two arm medicine ball chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover throw, front medicine ball oblique throw are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
power, multijoint
single leg dumbbell curl are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
stabilization, single joint
standing two arm dumbbell curl are what level exercises? and is it total body, multijoint or single joint?
strength, single joint
Training plans
The specific outline, created by a fitness professional to meet a client’s goals, that details the form of training, length of time, future changes, and specific exercises to be performed.
Periodization
Planned fitness training that does:
- divide program into periods or phases of training
- training different forms of strength in each period or phase to control volume of training and prevent injury
Udulating periodization?
day 1 stabilization, day 2 strength, day 3 power
periodization cycles are also called what for:
Annual?
Monthly?
Weekly?
Macro
Meso
Micro
Stabilization endurance training focuses on improving?
◆ Increasing stability
◆ Increasing muscular endurance
◆ Increasing neuromuscular efficiency of the core musculature
◆ Improving intermuscular and intramuscular coordination
Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?
3 minutes
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?
1-5
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
a. Suspension trainer
b. Barbells
c. Resistance machine
d. Smith machine
Suspension trainer
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable row
d. Standing cable crunch
Standing cable chest press
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
a. Kettlebell training
b. Vibration training
c. Suspension body-weight training
d. Elastic resistance training
Vibration training
Which of the following exercises is a bodyweight exercise? Select one: a. Sit-ups b. Lift and chop c. Biceps curls d. The barbell squat
Sit-up
Which of the following statements is correct regarding proper spotting technique for a client using a machine?
Select one:
a. Spot at the client’s hands.
b. Spot at the client’s elbows.
c. Spot at the client’s axilla.
d. Never spot underneath the weight stack.
Never spot underneath the weight stack
Which of the following is a flat-bottomed cast iron ball with a handle? Select one: a. Sandbell b. Kettlebell c. Dumbbell d. Barbell
Kettlebell
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
b. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
c. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
d. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Select one:
a. Spot at the elbows.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
Stability ball size suggested size for heights below:
- under 5’
- 5-1 to 5-7
- 5-8 to 6’
- over 6’
- 45cm
- 55cm
- 65cm
- 75cm
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline.”
b. “I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press.”
c. “I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise.”
d. “I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”
d. “I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as ?
Dyspnea
If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?
a. Incline prone iso-abs
b. Seated ball adductor stretch
c. Machine chest press
d. Foam roll calves
Foam roll calves
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
a. Implement a drop-set loading system
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Avoid prone positions
d. Use Valsalva maneuvers
Avoid prone positions
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
a. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
b. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
c. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?
a. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
b. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
d. Focus on resistance training so leg pain will not limit exercise.
c. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
a. Strength
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Speed
d. Postural control
Postural control
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
a. Knee-up
b. Standing cobra
c. Floor bridge
d. Reverse crunch
Standing cobra
Vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments
should be restricted for children to less than ___mins
30
important physiologic differences between children and adults that impact their response and adaptation to exercises include?
- peak oxygen uptake
- submaximal oxygen demand (economy of movement)
- children do not produce sufficient levels of glycolytic enzymes to sustain high intensity exercise
- children have immature thermoregulatory systems, such as ability to sweat
Sprains are?
injury to ligament
Strains are?
injury to tendon or muscle
Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: mode, frequency and intensity?
Mode: walking, jogging, games, running, activities, sports, water activities, resistance training
Frequency: 5-7 days of the week
Intensity: Moderate to vigorous cardio exercise training
Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: Movement assessment examples
Overhead squats
10 push-ups (if 10 cannot be performed, do as many as can be tolerated
Single-leg stance (if can tolerate, perform 3–5 single-leg squats per leg)
Basic exercise guidelines for youth training: resistance training?
1–2 sets of 8–12 repetitions at 40–70% on 2–3 days per week
Phase 1 of OPT model should be mastered before moving on
Phases 2–5 should be reserved for mature adolescents on the basis of dynamic
postural control and a licensed physician’s recommendation
pathologic also means?
related to diease
Prehypertensive blood pressure level btw ?
between 120/80 mm Hg and 135/85 mm Hg
Hypertension is? with #s
high blood pressure
resting systolic over 140 or diastolic over 90
Arteriosclerosis is?
general hardening and loss of elasticity of arteries
Atherosclerosis is? and caused by?
buildup of fatty plaques in arteries that leads to narrowing and reduced blood flow
caused by poor lifestyle choices (smoking, obesity, sitting forever)
Peripheral vascular disease?
group of diseases in which blood vessels become restricted or blocked, typically from atherosclerosis
Natural functional and physiologic changes associated with aging include?
Reduction in: Maximal attainable heart rate ◆ Cardiac output ◆ Muscle mass ◆ Balance ◆ Coordination (neuromuscular efficiency) ◆ Connective tissue elasticity ◆ Bone mineral density
Basic exercise guidelines for seniors: mode, frequency, intensity and duration?
mode: stationary or recumbent cycling, aquatic exercise, treadmills with handrails
Frequency: 3-5 days per week of mod-intensity or 3 days per week of vigorous intensity
Intensity: 40-85% of VO2 peak
Duration: 30-60min per day or 8-10 min bouts
Basic exercise guidelines for seniors: Resistance training program?
1–3 sets of 8–20 repetitions at 40–80% on 3–5 days per week
Phase 1 of OPT model should be mastered before moving on
Phases 2–5 should be based on dynamic postural control and a licensed physician’s
recommendation
obese clients should expend how many calories per session? and min per week?
200-300cal & 1,250 cal
Exercise intensity for obese clients should be? with a weekly caloric volume of?
60-80% intensity
1,250kcal per week and progress to 2,000 as tolerable
Basic exercise guidelines for obese or overweight clients: mode, frequency, intensity and duration?
Low-impact or step aerobics (treadmill walking, rowing, stationary cycling, water activity)
5 days a week
60-80% of max HR
40-60min per day, or 20-30min sessions 2x per day
Basic exercise guidelines for obese or overweight clients: resistance training program?
1-3 sets of 10-15 reps on 2-3 days a week
Basic exercise guidelines for people with diabetes: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
Low-impact
4-7 days per week
50-90% of max HR
20-60 mins
Basic exercise guidelines for people with diabetes: resistance training program?
1-3sets. 10-15 reps, 2-3 days per week
peripheral
neuropathy?
loss of protective sensation in feet and legs
What causes hypertension?
smoking, high saturated dat diet, excess weight
Example core exercises for clients with hypertension?
torso cable iso-rotations
Valsalva maneuver is?
A maneuver in which a person tries to exhale forcibly with a closed glottis (windpipe) so that no air exits through the mouth or nose as, for example, in lifting a heavy weight. The Valsalva maneuver impedes the return of venous blood to the heart.
Basic exercise guidelines for people with hypertension: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
stationary cycling, treadmill walk, rowers
3-7 days a week
50-85% max HR
30-60 mins
Basic exercise guidelines for people with hypertension: assessment, resistance training program?
assess push pull, OH squat, single leg balance
1-3 sets of 10-20 reps, 2-3 days per week, 4/1/1
exercises can be seated or standing
normal blood pressure?
less than 120/80
atherosclerosis is ?
plaque formation
angina pectoris is?
chest pain
myocardial infarction is?
heart attack
What does RPE stand for?
rate of perceived exertion
RPE 20 = ___ on RPE Category-ratio scale?
9.0
0.0 Category-ratio scale = ___ original RPE scale?
6
Basic exercise guidelines for people with CHD: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
Coronary Heart Disease
Large muscle group activities like stationary cycling, treadmill walking or rowing
3-5 days per week
40-85% of max HR (use talk test)
5-10mins warmup with 20-40min of exercise with 5-10mins cool down
Osteopenia is?
a decrease in the calcification or density of bone as well as reduced bone mass
(precursor to osteoporosis)
Osteoporosis is?
condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space btw bones, resulting in porosity and fragility
Osteoporosis type 1 characteristics?
normal aging process and attributable to lower production of estrogen and progesterone
Osteoporosis type 2 caused by?
lifestyle habits like alcohol abuse, smoking, disease or certain medications
Basic exercise guidelines for people with Osteoporosis: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill with handrails
2-5 days per week
50-90% of max HR
20-60mins per day or 8-10min bouts
Basic exercise guidelines for people with osteoporosis: assessment, resistance training program?
push, pull, overhead squat, sitting and standing into chair
focus on hips, thighs, back and arms
1-3 sets of 8-10 reps at 85% on 2-3 days per week
Arthritis is ?
chronic inflammation of the joints
Osteoarthritis is?
arthritis in which cartilage becomes soft, frayed, things out as a result of trauma or other conditions
rheumatoid arthritis is ?
arthritis primarily affecting connective tissues, with thickening of articular soft tissue and extension of synovial tissue over articular cartilages that have become eroded.
Basic exercise guidelines for people with Arthritis: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill, walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low impact or step aerobics
3-5 days per week
60-80% of max HR
30mins per day
Basic exercise guidelines for people with arthritis: resistance training program?
1-3sets, 10-12 reps, 2-3 days per week
Cancer definition?
Any of various types of malignant neoplasms, most of which invade surrounding tissues, may metastasize to several sites and are likely to recur after attempted removal and to cause death of the patient unless treated
Basic exercise guidelines for people with cancer: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low-impact or step aerobics
3-5 days per week
50-70% of max HR
15-30mins per day (start with 5min)
Basic exercise guidelines for people with cancer: resistance training program?
1-3sets, 10-15 reps, 2-3 days per week
Basic exercise guidelines for pregnant women: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill walking, stationary cycling, rowers, low-impact or step aerobics, water activity
3-5 days per week
Stage 1
15-30mins per day
Basic exercise guidelines for pregnant women: resistance training program?
2-3 days per week, light loads 12-15 reps
Restrictive lung disease?
condition of a fibrous lung tissue, resulting in a decreased ability to expand the lungs.
Chronic obstructive lung disease ?
condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production
Basic exercise guidelines for people with lung diseases: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill walking, stationary cycling, low-impact or step aerobics, elliptical
3-5 days per week
40-60% of peak work capacity
20-45mins per day
Basic exercise guidelines for people with lung disease: resistance training program?
1 set of 8-15reps 2-3days a week
upper body exercises increase dyspenea
Intermittent claudication?
the manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease
peripheral arterial disease?
condition characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for suppling blood to the lower extremities
Basic exercise guidelines for people with intermittent claudication/PAD: mode, frequency, intensity, duration?
treadmill walking, stationary cycling, low-impact or step aerobics, elliptical
3-5 days per week working up to 7 days
50-85% of peak work capacity
work up to 20-30mins per day
Basic exercise guidelines for people with intermittent claudication/PAD: resistance training program?`
1-3sets, 8-12 reps, 2-3 days per week up to 12-20 reps
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing test
d. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
Pushing test
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Select one:
a. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
b. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
c. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
d. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.
The correct answer is: Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
