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NASM CPT (excuse typos - rushed to enter content) > NASM CPT Ch. 2 > Flashcards

NASM CPT Ch. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What 3 systems make up the Human Movement System?

A

Muscular, Skeletal, Nervous

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2
Q

The muscular, skeletal and nervous systems responsible for human movement is also referred to as ____________

A

the kinetic chain

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3
Q

What is the combination and interrelation of the nervous, skeletal and muscular systems?

A

Human Movement System

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4
Q

What is a conglomeration of cells specifically designed to provide a communication network within the human body?

A

Nervous System

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5
Q

The ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment is ____________

A

Sensory Function

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6
Q

The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory info to allow for proper decision making, which produces the appropriate response.

A

Integrative Function

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7
Q

The neuromuscular response to the sensory information

A

Motor Function

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8
Q

Cumulative sensory input to the CNS from all mechanoreceptors that sense body position and limb movement

A

proprioception

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9
Q

The functional unit of the nervous system

A

neuron

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10
Q

transmits nerve impulses from effector sites (muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal cord

A

Sensory (AFFERENT) Neurons

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11
Q

One of the main organ systems and consists of a network of specialized cells called neurons that transmit and coordinate signals, providing a communication network within the body

A

The Nervous System

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12
Q

What 2 parts make up the nervous system?

A

Peripheral and Central

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13
Q

System that makes up the brain and spinal cord; primary function is to coordinate the activity of all parts of the body

A

Central Nervous System

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14
Q

System that contains only nerves and connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body

A

Peripheral Nervous System

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15
Q

3 functions of the Nervous System

A

Sensory
Integrative
Motor

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16
Q

Ability of nervous system to sense change in internal/external environment

A

Sensory Function (ex. muscle stretch - internal; or walking on sidewalk vs sand - external)

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17
Q

ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces appropriate response

A

Integrative Function

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18
Q

Nervous and Muscular systems response to sensory info

A

Motor Function (ex. causing a muscle to contract when stretched too far, or changing one’s walking pattern when walking in sand vs sidewalk)

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19
Q

This system is responsible for recruiting muscles, learned patterns or movement and the functioning of every organ

A

Nervous System

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20
Q

specialized cell that processes and transmits info through both electrical and chemical signs

A

neuron

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21
Q

this cell forms the core of the nervous system, which includes the brain, spinal cord and peripheral ganglia

A

neuron

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22
Q

What 3 things make up a neuron?

A

Dendrite, Cell Body and Axon

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23
Q

What makes up the body (soma) of the neuron?

A

Nucleus and other organelles, including lysosomes, mitochondria and golgi complex

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24
Q

What is the cylindrical projection from the cell body that transmits nervous impulses to other neurons or effector sites?

A

The Axon

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25
Q

What part of the neuron provides communication from the brain and spinal cord to other parts of the body?

A

The Axon

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26
Q

Gathers info from other structures and transmits it back to the neuron?

A

Dendrites

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27
Q

What are the 3 classifications of neurons?

A

Sensory (afferent) neurons
Interneurons
Motor (efferent) neurons

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28
Q

These neurons respond to touch, sound, light and other stimuli and transmit impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) to the brain and spinal cord.

A

Sensory (afferent) neurons

Example - touching a hot object and the hand signals the brain that the object is hot

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29
Q

These neurons transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another

A

Interneurons

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30
Q

These neurons transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to the effector sites such as muscles or glands.

A

Motor (efferent) neurons

Example - when touching a hot object, the brain signaling the hand to remove from the object

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31
Q

How many cranial nerves in the peripheral nervous system?

A

12

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32
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves (branch out from brain and spinal cord)?

A

31

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33
Q

The 2 primary functions of the peripheral nervous system are:

A

Provide connection for nervous system to activate different effector sites, such as muscles (motor function) and they relay info from effector sites back tot he brain via sensory receptors

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34
Q

What are the 2 subsystems of the PNS?

A

Somatic and Autonomic

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35
Q

What system consists of nerves that serve outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle, and are largely responsible for the voluntary control of movement?

A

Somatic Nervous System

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36
Q

What system supplies neural input to the involuntary systems (heart, digestivve, endocrine)

A

Autonomic Nervous System

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37
Q

The autonomic nervous system is broken down into what 2 systems?

A

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

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38
Q

sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in the tissues

A

mechanoreceptors

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39
Q

what system prepares the body for activity?

A

sympathetic nervous system

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40
Q

what system serves to decrease levels of activation during rest and recovery?

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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41
Q

Specialized structures located throughout the body that convert environmental stimuli into sensory information that the brain and spinal cord use to produce a response

A

Sensory Receptors

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42
Q

Four categories of sensory receptors are

A

Mechanoreceptors, Nociceptors, Chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors

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43
Q

These receptors respond to mechanical forces, such as touch and pressure. They are specialized structures that respond to pressure within tissues and transmit signals to sensory nerves.

A

Mechanoreceptors

Respond to: touch, pressure, stretching, sound waves and motion, and transmit impulses thru sensory nerves which enable detection of tough, sounds and motion of body

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44
Q

What type of receptors respond to pain?

A

nociceptors

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45
Q

What type of receptors respond to chemical interaction (smell and taste)?

A

chemoreceptors

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46
Q

What type of receptors respond to light/vision?

A

photoreceptors

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47
Q

Where are mechanoreceptors located?

A

muscles, tendons, ligaments and joint capsules and include muscle spindles, golgi tendon organs and joint receptors

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48
Q

Put the sets of nerves in order from the following, starting with the top section.

Lumbar, Sacral, Thoracic, Cranial, Coccygeal

A 
Cranial
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccygeal
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49
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change. They run parallel to the muscle fibers.

A

Muscle Spindles - also help in regulating the contraction of muscles via the stretch reflex mechanism; they respond rapidly, preventing over-stretching and muscle damage

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50
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscles and the rate of that change

A

GTOs

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51
Q

Receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint.

  • act to signal extreme joint positions and help prevent injury
  • act to initiate a reflex response if too much stress on the joint
A

Joint receptors

Examples - Ruffini endings and Pacinian corpuscles, sweat glands, meissner corpuscle and merkel cells

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52
Q

_____________ are specialized sensory receptors located at the point where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to muscle tension and rate of tension change.

A

GTOs

They cause muscle to relax to prevent excess stress/injury

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53
Q

This system is the body’s framework, composed of bones and joints. Provides shape and form in addition to supporting, protecting, allowing bodily movement, producing blood for the body and storing minerals.

A

Skeletal System

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54
Q

Connect muscles to bones

A

tendons

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55
Q

Bones form junctions connected by muscle tissues and connective tissue. These junctions are known as ____________

A

joints - sites where movement occurs as a result of muscle contraction

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56
Q

__________provide a resting ground for muscles and protection of vital organs

A

bones

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57
Q

this portion of the skeletal system consists of skull, rib cage and vertebral column

A

AXIAL skeleton

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58
Q

this portion of the skeletal system includes the upper and lower extremities as well as shoulder and pelvic girdle. NOTE: PELVIC GIRDLE is often a component of both as it is a link between the 2

A

APPENDICULAR skeleton

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59
Q

Number of bones in the axial skeleton?

A

“approximately 80”

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60
Q

Number of bones in the appendicular skeleton?

A

126

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61
Q

How many bones in the skeleton system?

A

206 - 177 are used in voluntary movement

Bones in body form more than 300 joints

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62
Q

2 vital functions of bones in movement

A

1 - leverage

2 - provide support (posture)

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63
Q

Process of resorption and formation of bone; how bone is renewed

A

remodeling

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64
Q

type of bone cell that removes bone tissue

A

osteoclasts

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65
Q

type of bone cell that is responsible for bone formation

A

osteoblasts

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66
Q

Name that bone type: long, cylindrical shaft and irregular or widened ends

A

LONG BONE
example - humerus, femur, clavicle, radius, ulna, metacarpals, phalanges, femur, tibia, fibula and metatarsals
Mostly composed of compact bone tissue to ensure strength but they do have spongy tissue for shock absoprtion

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67
Q

Name that bone type: similar in length and width and appear somewhat cubical in shape

A

SHORT BONES - cubicle in shape, spongy tissue to maximize shock absorption
example - carpals of hand, tarsals of feet

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68
Q

what type of bone is the vertebrae?

A

irregular

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69
Q

what type of bone is the femur?

A

long bone

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70
Q

what type of bones are the carpals of the hand?

A

short bones

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71
Q

what type of bone is the patella?

A

sesamoid and flat

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72
Q

Name that bone type: thin and protective. It’s comprised of 2 layers of compact bone tissue surrounding a layer of spongy bone tissue.

A

FLAT BONES
example: scapulae, patella, sternum, ribs, ilium and craial bones
They protect internal structures

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73
Q

What type of bones is the humerus

A

long bone

74
Q

what type of bones make up the tarsals of the feet?

A

short bones

75
Q

what type of bones are unique in shape and function?

A

irregular

76
Q

what type of bones are small, often round, embedded in a joint capsule or found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint?

A

sesamoid (patella)
- they develop within particular tendons at a site of considerable friction or tension. They improve leverage and protect the joint from damage

77
Q

Name the 5 major types of bones

A

sesamoid, irregular, short, long, flat

78
Q

What type of bone is the clavicle?

A

Long

79
Q

What type of bones are the metacarpals?

A

Long

80
Q

end of long bone, composed of cancellous bone, and house much of red marrow involved in RBC production.

A

Epiphysis

Also primary site for bone growth and vulnerable to injury

81
Q

shaft portion of long bone; predominantly compact (although shaft inside is hollow)

A

diaphysis

82
Q

region of long bone connecting the diaphysis to the epiphysis. It is a layer of subdividing cartilaginous cells in which growth in length of the diaphysis occurs

A

Epiphyseal Plate

83
Q

What bone’s principal role is support?

A

Diaphysis

84
Q

A dense membrane composed of fibrous connective tissue that closely wraps all bone, except that of the articulating surfaces in joints, which are covered by a synovial membrane

A

Periosteum

  • contains nerves, blood vessels, and bone-producing cells. inner surface provides material for nutrition repair and facilitates growth in the diameter of the bone.
  • fundamental role in movement by providing the point of attachment of tendons
85
Q

central cavity of bone shafts where marrow is stored

A

medullar cavity

86
Q

cartilage that covers the articular surfaces of bones and is hard, white, shiny tissue that helps reduce friction. It’s fundamental for smooth joint action.

A

articular cartilage

87
Q

space that runs down through the center of the diaphysis and contains fatty yellow marrow that is mostly adipose tissue and serves as a useful energy reserve

A

Medullary Cavity

88
Q

What category bone - ribs?

A

Flat

89
Q

What category bone - carpals of the hand?

A

Short

90
Q

What type of bone? vertebrae

A

irregular

91
Q

what type of bone? pelvic and facial bones

A

irregular

92
Q

what type of bone? ilium

A

flat bone

93
Q

what type of bones are the cranial bones?

A

flat bones

94
Q

what type of bones are the tarsals of the feet?

A

short bones

95
Q

2 categories of bone markings

A

depressions and processes

96
Q

These bone markings are flattened or indented portions of the bone.

A

Depressions

  • common depression is called a fossa (ex. supraspinous or infraspinous foss on the scapulae)
  • another form is a sulcus - groove in bone that allows tendons to pass through (ex. intertubercular sulcus in humerus - groove for biceps tendon)
97
Q

these bone markings are projections protruding from the bone to which muscles, tendons and ligaments can attach

A

Processes
- common processes: condyle, epicondyle, tubercle, and trochanter
Example - spinous processes on vertebra, acromion and coracoid processes on the scapulae

98
Q

______are located on the inner and outer portions of the femur and top of tibia to form knee joint

A

condoyles

99
Q

______are located at the top of the humerus and glenohumeral (shoulder) joint

A

tubercles

100
Q

____________are located on the inner/outer portions of the humerus to help form the elbow join

A

epicondyles

101
Q

type of bone marking for scapulae

A

fossa / depression

102
Q

bones located at the top of the femur and are attachment sites for the hips - the hipbone is commonly called the greater _______

A

trochanter

103
Q

consists of irregularly shaped bones

A

vertebral column

104
Q

first 7 vertebrae, flexible motion head

A

Cervical Vertebrae

105
Q

12 vertebrae located in upper mid back

A

thoracic vertebrae (move w/ribs to form rear anchor of rib cage)

106
Q

the 5 vertebrae below the thoracic vertebrae

A

lumbar vertebrae - support most amount of body weight and subject to largest forces and stresses along the spine

107
Q

triangular bone located below the lumbar vertebrae

A

sacrum - 4-5 sacral vertebrae in a child which fuse together as adult

108
Q

bone at the bottom of the spinal column

A

coccyx (tailbone) - consists of 3-5 bones that are fused as an adult

109
Q

vertebral column function

A

allow to stand upright and maintain balance, helps support head/arms while permitting freedom of movement

110
Q

optimal arrangement of spine is called

A

neutral spine

111
Q

posterior concavity of cervical spine

A

posterior cervical curvature

112
Q

posterior concavity of the thoracic spione

A

anterior thoracic curvature

113
Q

posterior concavity of the lumbar spine

A

posterior lumbar curvature

114
Q

joint motion

A

arthrokinematics

115
Q

3 type of joint motions

A

roll, slide and spin

116
Q

when femoral condyles move over the tibial condoyles in a squat – this is an example of what type of joint motion

A

rolling

117
Q

example of sliding joint

A

tibial condyles sliding across femoral condyles during a knee extension

118
Q

example of spinning joint

A

head of radius rotating on the end of humerus during pronation and supination of the forearm

119
Q

Joints held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are most associated with movement in the body

A

synovial joints - they comprise 80% of all joints in the body - synovial fluid lubes joints

120
Q

Name the various types of synovial joints

A 
gliding (plane)
condyloid
hinge
saddle
pivot
ball and socket
121
Q

What type of joint allows movement in all 3 planes?

A

Ball and socket

122
Q

Joints that have no joint cavity, connective tissue or cartilage?

A

Nonsynovial joints

123
Q

What type of joint would sutures of the skull be?

A

Nonsynovial

124
Q

The knee is a synovial or non-synovial joint?

A

Synovial

125
Q

Carpals of the hand are what kind of joint?

A

Gliding

126
Q

The knee is what type of joint?

A

Condyloid and synovial

127
Q

Types of joint that fit one bone into the elliptical cavity of another - move predominantly in 1 plane

A

Condyloid

128
Q

The elbow is what kind of joint?

A

hinge

129
Q

carpometacarpals are what kind of joint?

A

saddle

130
Q

radioulnar is what type of joint?

A

pivot

131
Q

the shoulder is what kind of joint?

A

ball and socket (shoulder)

132
Q

this joint moves by sliding side-to-side or back and forth; no axis of rotation

A

gliding (carpals of hand)

133
Q

this joint moves mostly in 1 plane (saggital) of motion and is uniaxial

A

hinge (elbow)

134
Q

this joint fits into another bone like a saddle, moves mostly in 2 planes (saggital, joint of thumb frontal)

A

saddle (ex carpometacarpal)

135
Q

this joint has only 1 axis and moves mostly in the transverse plane

A

pivot (ex radioulnar)

136
Q

this joint is the most mobile of joints and moves in all 3 planes

A

ball and socket

137
Q

connective tissue that connects bones and provides stability; input to the nervous system, guidance and limitation of joint movement

A

ligaments (very slow to repair)

138
Q

3 layers of connective tissue

A

epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

139
Q

connective tissue that surrounds fascicles

A

perimysium

140
Q

innermost layer, deepest and surrounds muscle fibers

A

endomysium

141
Q

underneath fascia and surrounds muscle

A

epimysium

142
Q

attach muscle to bone

A

tendons

143
Q

series of muscles that moves the skeleton

A

muscular system

144
Q

3 types of muscle

A

skeletal, cardiac and smooth

145
Q

the functional unit of muscle that produces contraction and consists of repeating sections of actin and myosin

A

sarcomere

146
Q

the communication between the nervous system and the muscular system - muscle contraction generated by neural stimulation

A

neural activation

147
Q

motor neuron and all of the fibers it connects

A

motor unit

148
Q

point where motor neuron meets an individual muscle fiber

A

neuromuscular junction

149
Q

when impulse reaches the end of the axon, chemicals called ________ are released

A

neurotransmitters - transports the impulse from nerve to muscle

150
Q

T/F - sarcomeres shorten as a result of zlines moving closer together

A

true

151
Q

these are slow twitch muscle fibers
increased oxygen delivery, less force produced, slow to fatigue, long-term contractions (staibilization), more capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin

A

Type I - often called red fibers and smaller in size

used more in stabilization and postural control

152
Q

fast twitch muscle fibers with fewer capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin, decreased oxygen delivery, larger in size, more force produced, quick to fatigue, short term contractions, fast twitch

A

Type II - often called white fibers and larger in size, quick to produce max tension and fatigue quicker than type 1

153
Q

Type II muscle fiber categories

A

Type IIa and Type IIx

154
Q

which type of fibers have low oxidative capacity?

A

Type IIx

155
Q

which type fibers use anaerobic and aerobic to create energy?

A

Type IIa

156
Q

Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer and antagonist for the chest press

A 
Chest press -
agonist - pec major
synergist - anterior deltoid/triceps
stabilizer - rotator cuff
antagonist - posterior deltoid
157
Q

Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer and antagonist for the overhead press

A

agonist - deltoid
synergist - triceps
stabilizer - rotator cuff
antagonist - lat dorsi

158
Q

Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer and antagonist for the row

A

agonist - lat dorsi
synergist - posterior deltoid, biceps
stabilizer - rotator cuff
antagonist - pec major

159
Q

Name the agonist, synergist, stabilizer and antagonist for the squat

A

agonist - glue max and quads
synergist - hamstring complex
stabilizer - transverse abdominis
antagonist - psoas

160
Q

antagonist

A

performs opposite of prime mover

161
Q

agonist

A

prime mover

162
Q

synergist

A

assists the prime mover

163
Q

stabilizer

A

supports or stabilizes the body

164
Q

Primary endocrine glands

A

hypothalmus, pituitary, thyroid and adrenal glands

165
Q

the “master” gland because it controls the other glands

A

pituitary

166
Q

gland that secretes cortisol, adrenaline and respond to stress

A

adrenal

167
Q

produces hormones to regulate metabolism

A

thyroid

168
Q

primary source of energy in rigorous exercise

A

carbs (glucose)

169
Q

control of blood glucose is regulated by the _____

A

pancreas

170
Q

The pancreas produces which 2 hormones?

A

glucagon and insulin

171
Q

this regulates energy and close metabolism in the body

A

insulin

172
Q

glucagon

A

regulates blood glucose levels; triggers release of glycogen stores from the liver

173
Q

name the 2 catecholamines

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

174
Q

what gland produces catecholamines?

A

adrenal

175
Q

fight or flight syndrom - what gland?

A

adrenal

176
Q

when adrenal gland produces epinephrine, what physiological effects take place to sustain activity?

A

increases heart and stroke volume, elevates blood glucose levels, redistributes blood to working tissues, opens up the airways

177
Q

what hormone plays a fundamental role in the growth and repair of tissue?

A

testosterone

178
Q

what is referred to as a catabolic hormone?

A

cortisol - breaks down muscle tissue

179
Q

what gland releases growth hormone?

A

pituitary - and regulated by hypothalmus

180
Q

release of thyroid hormones is regulated by what gland?

A

pituitary

NASM CPT (excuse typos - rushed to enter content) (14 decks)

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